text:
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2029)
Sec. 1.
Short title.
This Act may be cited as the
Crematory Regulation Act.
(Source: P.A. 87-1187
Sec. 5.
As used in this Act:
"Address of record" means the designated address recorded by the Comptroller in the applicant's or licensee's application file or license file. It is the duty of the applicant or licensee to inform the Comptroller of any change of address within 14 days, and such changes must be made either through the Comptroller's website or by contacting the Comptroller. The address of record shall be the permanent street address of the crematory.
"Alternative container" means a receptacle, other than a casket, in which human remains are transported to the crematory and placed in the cremation chamber for cremation. An alternative container shall be (i) composed of readily combustible or consumable materials suitable for cremation, (ii) able to be closed in order to provide a complete covering for the human remains, (iii) resistant to leakage or spillage, (iv) rigid enough for handling with ease, and (v) able to provide protection for the health, safety, and personal integrity of crematory personnel.
"Authorizing agent" means a person legally entitled to order the cremation and final disposition of specific human remains. "Authorizing agent" includes an institution of medical, mortuary, or other sciences as provided in Section 20 of the Disposition of Remains of the Indigent Act.
"Body parts" means limbs or other portions of the anatomy that are removed from a person or human remains for medical purposes during treatment, surgery, biopsy, autopsy, or medical research; or human bodies or any portion of bodies that have been donated to science for medical research purposes.
"Burial transit permit" means a permit for disposition of a dead human body as required by Illinois law.
"Casket" means a rigid container that is designed for the encasement of human remains, is usually constructed of wood, metal, or like material and ornamented and lined with fabric, and may or may not be combustible.
"Comptroller" means the Comptroller of the State of Illinois.
"Cremated remains" means all human remains recovered after the completion of the cremation, which may possibly include the residue of any foreign matter including casket material, bridgework, or eyeglasses, that was cremated with the human remains.
"Cremation" means the technical process, using heat and flame, or alkaline hydrolysis that reduces human remains to bone fragments. The reduction takes place through heat and evaporation or through hydrolysis. Cremation shall include the processing, and may include the pulverization, of the bone fragments.
"Cremation chamber" means the enclosed space within which the cremation takes place.
"Cremation interment container" means a rigid outer container that, subject to a cemetery's rules and regulations, is composed of concrete, steel, fiberglass, or some similar material in which an urn is placed prior to being interred in the ground, and which is designed to withstand prolonged exposure to the elements and to support the earth above the urn.
"Cremation room" means the room in which the cremation chamber is located.
"Crematory" means the building or portion of a building that houses the cremation room and the holding facility.
"Crematory authority" means the legal entity which is licensed by the Comptroller to operate a crematory and to perform cremations.
"Final disposition" means the burial, cremation, or other disposition of a dead human body or parts of a dead human body.
"Funeral director" means a person known by the title of "funeral director", "funeral director and embalmer", or other similar words or titles, licensed by the State to practice funeral directing or funeral directing and embalming.
"Funeral establishment" means a building or separate portion of a building having a specific street address and location and devoted to activities relating to the shelter, care, custody, and preparation of a deceased human body and may contain facilities for funeral or wake services.
"Holding facility" means an area that (i) is designated for the retention of human remains prior to cremation, (ii) complies with all applicable public health law, (iii) preserves the health and safety of the crematory authority personnel, and (iv) is secure from access by anyone other than authorized persons. A holding facility may be located in a cremation room.
"Human remains" means the body of a deceased person, including any form of body prosthesis that has been permanently attached or implanted in the body.
"Licensee" means an entity licensed under this Act. An entity that holds itself as a licensee or that is accused of unlicensed practice is considered a licensee for purposes of enforcement, investigation, hearings, and the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act.
"Niche" means a compartment or cubicle for the memorialization and permanent placement of an urn containing cremated remains.
"Person" means any person, partnership, association, corporation, limited liability company, or other entity, and in the case of any such business organization, its officers, partners, members, or shareholders possessing 25% or more of ownership of the entity.
"Processing" means the reduction of identifiable bone fragments after the completion of the cremation process to unidentifiable bone fragments by manual or mechanical means.
"Pulverization" means the reduction of identifiable bone fragments after the completion of the cremation process to granulated particles by manual or mechanical means.
"Scattering area" means an area which may be designated by a cemetery and located on dedicated cemetery property or property used for outdoor recreation or natural resource conservation owned by the Department of Natural Resources and designated as a scattering area, where cremated remains, which have been removed from their container, can be mixed with, or placed on top of, the soil or ground cover.
"Temporary container" means a receptacle for cremated remains, usually composed of cardboard, plastic or similar material, that can be closed in a manner that prevents the leakage or spillage of the cremated remains or the entrance of foreign material, and is a single container of sufficient size to hold the cremated remains until an urn is acquired or the cremated remains are scattered.
"Urn" means a receptacle designed to encase the cremated remains.
(Source: P.A. 100-97, eff. 1-1-18; 100-526, eff. 6-1-18; 100-863, eff. 8-14-18
Sec. 7.
Powers and duties of the Comptroller.
Subject to the provisions of this Act, the Comptroller may exercise any of the following powers and duties:
(1) Authorize standards to ascertain the
qualifications and fitness of applicants for licensing as licensed crematory authorities and pass upon the qualifications of applicants for licensure.
(2) Examine and audit a licensed crematory
authority's records, crematory, or any other aspects of crematory operation as the Comptroller deems appropriate.
(3) Investigate any and all unlicensed activity.
(4) Conduct hearings on proceedings to refuse to
issue licenses or to revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, or otherwise discipline licensees and to refuse to issue licenses or to revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, or otherwise discipline licensees.
(5) Formulate rules required for the administration
of this Act.
(6) Maintain rosters of the names and addresses of
all licensees, and all entities whose licenses have been suspended, revoked, or otherwise disciplined. These rosters shall be available upon written request and payment of the required fee.
(Source: P.A. 96-863, eff. 3-1-12; 97-679, eff. 2-6-12
Sec. 10.
Establishment of crematory and licensing of crematory authority.
(a) Any person doing business in this State, or any cemetery, funeral establishment, corporation, partnership, joint venture, voluntary organization or any other entity, may erect, maintain, and operate a crematory in this State and provide the necessary appliances and facilities for the cremation of human remains in accordance with this Act.
(b) A crematory shall be subject to all local, State, and federal health and environmental protection requirements and shall obtain all necessary licenses and permits from the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, the Department of Public Health, the federal Department of Health and Human Services, and the Illinois and federal Environmental Protection Agencies, or such other appropriate local, State, or federal agencies.
(c) A crematory may be constructed on or adjacent to any cemetery, on or adjacent to any funeral establishment, or at any other location consistent with local zoning regulations.
(d) An application for licensure as a crematory authority shall be in writing on forms furnished by the Comptroller. Applications shall be accompanied by a fee of $100 and shall contain all of the following:
(1) The full name and address, both residence and
business, of the applicant if the applicant is an individual; the full name and address of every member if the applicant is a partnership; the full name and address of every member of the board of directors if the applicant is an association; and the name and address of every officer, director, and shareholder holding more than 25% of the corporate stock if the applicant is a corporation.
(2) The address and location of the crematory.
(3) A description of the type of structure and
equipment to be used in the operation of the crematory, including the operating permit number issued to the cremation device by the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency.
(4) Any further information that the Comptroller
reasonably may require.
(e) Each crematory authority shall file an annual report with the Comptroller, accompanied with a $25 fee, providing (i) an affidavit signed by the owner of the crematory authority that at the time of the report the cremation device was in proper operating condition, (ii) the total number of all cremations performed at the crematory during the past year, (iii) attestation by the licensee that all applicable permits and certifications are valid, (iv) either (A) any changes required in the information provided under subsection (d) or (B) an indication that no changes have occurred, and (v) any other information that the Comptroller may require. The annual report shall be filed by a crematory authority on or before March 15 of each calendar year. If the fiscal year of a crematory authority is other than on a calendar year basis, then the crematory authority shall file the report required by this Section within 75 days after the end of its fiscal year. If a crematory authority fails to submit an annual report to the Comptroller within the time specified in this Section, the Comptroller shall impose upon the crematory authority a penalty of $5 for each and every day the crematory authority remains delinquent in submitting the annual report. The Comptroller may abate all or part of the $5 daily penalty for good cause shown. The $25 annual report fee shall be deposited in the Comptroller's Administrative Fund.
(f) All records required to be maintained under this Act, including but not limited to those relating to the license and annual report of the crematory authority required to be filed under this Section, shall be subject to inspection by the Comptroller upon reasonable notice.
(g) The Comptroller may inspect crematory records at the crematory authority's place of business to review the licensee's compliance with this Act. The Comptroller may charge a $100 fee for the inspection of the licensee. The inspection must include verification that:
(1) the crematory authority has complied with
record-keeping requirements of this Act;
(2) a crematory device operator's certification of
training and the required continuing education certification are conspicuously displayed at the crematory;
(3) the cremation device has a current operating
permit issued by the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency and the permit is conspicuously displayed in the crematory;
(4) the crematory authority is in compliance with
local zoning requirements;
(5) the crematory authority license issued by the
Comptroller is conspicuously displayed at the crematory; and
(6) other details as determined by rule.
(h) The Comptroller shall issue licenses under this Act to the crematories that are registered with the Comptroller as of on March 1, 2012 without requiring the previously registered crematories to complete license applications.
(i) Every license issued under this Act shall be renewed every 5 years for a renewal fee of $100 to be sent to the Comptroller. The renewal fee shall be deposited into the Comptroller's Administrative Fund. The Comptroller, upon the request of an interested person, or on his or her own motion, may issue new licenses to a licensee whose license or licenses have been revoked, if no factor or condition exists that would have warranted the Comptroller to refuse the issuance of the license.
(Source: P.A. 103-253, eff. 6-30-23.)
Sec. 11.
Grounds for denial or discipline.
(a) In this Section, "applicant" means a person who has applied for a license under this Act including those persons whose names are listed on a license application in Section 10 of this Act.
(b) The Comptroller may refuse to issue a license, place on probation, reprimand, or take other disciplinary action that the Comptroller may deem appropriate, including imposing fines not to exceed $5,000 for each violation, with regard to any license under this Act, or may suspend or revoke a license issued under this Act, on any of the following grounds:
(1) The applicant or licensee has made any
misrepresentation or false statement or concealed any material fact in furnishing information to the Comptroller.
(2) The applicant or licensee has been engaged in
business practices that work a fraud.
(3) The applicant or licensee has refused to give
information required under this Act to be disclosed to the Comptroller or failing, within 30 days, to provide information in response to a written request made by the Comptroller.
(4) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or
unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public.
(5) As to any individual listed in the license
application as required under Section 10, that individual has conducted or is about to conduct any cremation business on behalf of the applicant in a fraudulent manner or has been convicted of any felony or misdemeanor an essential element of which is fraud.
(6) The applicant or licensee has failed to make the
annual report required by this Act or to comply with a final order, decision, or finding of the Comptroller made under this Act.
(7) The applicant or licensee, including any member,
officer, or director of the applicant or licensee if the applicant or licensee is a firm, partnership, association, or corporation and including any shareholder holding more than 25% of the corporate stock of the applicant or licensee, has violated any provision of this Act or any regulation or order made by the Comptroller under this Act.
(8) The Comptroller finds any fact or condition
existing that, if it had existed at the time of the original application for a license under this Act, would have warranted the Comptroller in refusing the issuance of the license.
(9) Any violation of this Act or of the rules adopted
under this Act.
(10) Incompetence.
(11) Gross malpractice.
(12) Discipline by another state, District of
Columbia, territory, or foreign nation, if at least one of the grounds for the discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth in this Section.
(13) Directly or indirectly giving to or receiving
from any person, firm, corporation, partnership, or association any fee, commission, rebate, or other form of compensation for professional services not actually or personally rendered.
(14) A finding by the Comptroller that the licensee,
after having its license placed on probationary status, has violated the terms of probation.
(15) Willfully making or filing false records or
reports, including, but not limited to, false records filed with State agencies or departments.
(16) Gross, willful, or continued overcharging for
professional services, including filing false statements for collection of fees for which services are not rendered.
(17) Practicing under a false or, except as provided
by law, an assumed name.
(18) Cheating on or attempting to subvert this Act's
licensing application process.
Sec. 11.5.
License revocation or suspension; surrender of license.
(a) (Blank).
(b) Upon the revocation or suspension of a license issued under this Act, the licensee must immediately surrender the license to the Comptroller. If the licensee fails to do so, the Comptroller may seize the license.
Sec. 12.
Surrender of license; effect on licensee's liability.
A licensee may surrender a license issued under this Act by delivering to the Comptroller a written notice stating that the licensee thereby surrenders the license, but such a surrender does not affect the licensee's civil or criminal liability for acts committed before the surrender.
(Source: P.A. 92-675, eff. 7-1-03
Sec. 13.
License; display; transfer; duration.
(a) Every license issued under this Act must state the number of the license, the business name and address of the licensee's principal place of business, and the licensee's parent company, if any. The license must be conspicuously posted in the place of business operating under the license.
(b) After initial licensure, if any person comes to obtain at least 51% of the ownership over the licensed crematory authority, then the crematory authority shall apply for a new license in the required time as set out by rule.
(c) Every license issued under this Act shall remain in force until it has been surrendered, suspended, or revoked in accordance with this Act. Upon the request of an interested person or on the Comptroller's own motion, the Comptroller may issue a new license to a licensee whose license has been revoked under this Act if no factor or condition then exists which would have warranted the Comptroller in originally refusing the issuance of the license.
Sec. 14.
Display of cremation device permit.
A crematory authority must conspicuously display in its place of business the operating permit issued to its cremation device by the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency and the license issued by the Comptroller under this Act. All rulemaking authority in connection with operating permits issued by the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency shall be vested with the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency and all rulemaking authority in connection with licenses issued by the Comptroller under this Act shall be vested with the Comptroller.
(Source: P.A. 97-679, eff. 2-6-12
Sec. 15.
Authorizing agent.
The priority of the person or persons who have the right to serve as the authorizing agent for cremation is in the same priority as provided for in Section 5 of the Disposition of Remains Act.
(Source: P.A. 94-561, eff. 1-1-06
Sec. 19.
Cremation only in crematory.
An individual or a person, cemetery, funeral establishment, corporation, partnership, joint venture, voluntary organization, or other entity may cremate human remains only in a crematory operated by a crematory authority licensed for this purpose and only under the limitations provided in this Act.
Sec. 20.
Authorization to cremate.
(a) A crematory authority shall not cremate human remains until it has received all of the following:
(1) A cremation authorization form signed, in either
paper or electronic format, by an authorizing agent. The cremation authorization form shall be provided by the crematory authority and shall contain, at a minimum, the following information:
(A) The identity of the human remains and the
time and date of death.
(B) The name of the funeral director and funeral
establishment, if applicable, that obtained the cremation authorization.
(C) Notification as to whether the death
occurred from a disease declared by the Department of Health to be infectious, contagious, communicable, or dangerous to the public health.
(D) The name of the authorizing agent and the
relationship between the authorizing agent and the decedent.
(E) A representation that the authorizing agent
does in fact have the right to authorize the cremation of the decedent, and that the authorizing agent is not aware of any living person who has a superior priority right to that of the authorizing agent, as set forth in Section 15. In the event there is another living person who has a superior priority right to that of the authorizing agent, the form shall contain a representation that the authorizing agent has made all reasonable efforts to contact that person, has been unable to do so, and has no reason to believe that the person would object to the cremation of the decedent.
(F) Authorization for the crematory authority to
cremate the human remains.
(G) A representation that the human remains do
not contain a pacemaker or any other material or implant that may be potentially hazardous or cause damage to the cremation chamber or the person performing the cremation.
(H) The name of the person authorized to receive
the cremated remains from the crematory authority.
(I) The manner in which final disposition of the
cremated remains is to take place, if known. If the cremation authorization form does not specify final disposition in a grave, crypt, niche, or scattering area, then the form may indicate that the cremated remains will be held by the crematory authority for 30 days before they are released, unless they are picked up from the crematory authority prior to that time, in person, by the authorizing agent. At the end of the 30 days the crematory authority may return the cremated remains to the authorizing agent if no final disposition arrangements are made; or at the end of 60 days the crematory authority may dispose of the cremated remains in accordance with subsection (d) of Section 40.
(J) A listing of any items of value to be
delivered to the crematory authority along with the human remains, and instructions as to how the items should be handled.
(K) A specific statement as to whether the
authorizing agent has made arrangements for any type of viewing of the decedent before cremation, or for a service with the decedent present before cremation in connection with the cremation, and if so, the date and time of the viewing or service and whether the crematory authority is authorized to proceed with the cremation upon receipt of the human remains.
(L) The signature, in either paper or electronic
format, of the authorizing agent, attesting to the accuracy of all representations contained on the cremation authorization form, except as set forth in paragraph (M) of this subsection.
(M) If a cremation authorization form is being
executed on a pre-need basis, the cremation authorization form shall contain the disclosure required by subsection (b) of Section 140.
(N) The cremation authorization form, other than
pre-need cremation forms, shall also be signed, in either paper or electronic format, by a funeral director or other representative of the funeral establishment that obtained the cremation authorization. That individual shall merely execute the cremation authorization form as a witness and shall not be responsible for any of the representations made by the authorizing agent, unless the individual has actual knowledge to the contrary. The information requested by items (A), (B), (C) and (G) of this subsection, however, shall be considered to be representations of the authorizing agent. In addition, the funeral director or funeral establishment shall warrant to the crematory that the human remains delivered to the crematory authority are the human remains identified on the cremation authorization form.
(2) A completed and executed burial transit permit
indicating that the human remains are to be cremated.
(3) Any other documentation required by this State.
(b) If an authorizing agent is not available to execute a cremation authorization form in person, that person may delegate that authority to another person in writing, or by sending the crematory authority a facsimile transmission that contains the name, address, and relationship of the sender to the decedent and the name and address of the individual to whom authority is delegated. Upon receipt of the written document, or facsimile transmission, telegram, or other electronic telecommunications transmission which specifies the individual to whom authority has been delegated, the crematory authority shall allow this individual to serve as the authorizing agent and to execute the cremation authorization form. The crematory authority shall be entitled to rely upon the cremation authorization form without liability.
(c) An authorizing agent who signs, in either paper or electronic format, a cremation authorization form shall be deemed to warrant the truthfulness of any facts set forth on the cremation authorization form, including that person's authority to order the cremation; except for the information required by items (C) and (G) of paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of this Section, unless the authorizing agent has actual knowledge to the contrary. An authorizing agent signing, in either paper or electronic format, a cremation authorization form shall be personally and individually liable for all damages occasioned by and resulting from authorizing the cremation.
(d) A crematory authority shall have authority to cremate human remains upon the receipt of a cremation authorization form signed, in either paper or electronic format, by an authorizing agent. There shall be no liability for a crematory authority that cremates human remains according to an authorization, or that releases or disposes of the cremated remains according to an authorization, except for a crematory authority's gross negligence, provided that the crematory authority performs its functions in compliance with this Act.
(e) After an authorizing agent has executed a cremation authorization form, the authorizing agent may revoke the authorization and instruct the crematory authority to cancel the cremation and to release or deliver the human remains to another crematory authority or funeral establishment. The instructions shall be provided to the crematory authority in writing. A crematory authority shall honor any instructions given to it by an authorizing agent under this Section if it receives the instructions prior to beginning the cremation of the human remains.
(Source: P.A. 102-824, eff. 1-1-23
Sec. 22.
Performance of cremation service; training.
A person may not perform a cremation service in this State unless he or she has completed training in performing cremation services and received certification by a program recognized by the Comptroller. The crematory authority must conspicuously display the certification at the crematory authority's place of business. Any new employee shall have a reasonable time period, not to exceed one year, to attend a recognized training program. In the interim, the new employee may perform a cremation service if he or she has received training from another person who has received certification by a program recognized by the Comptroller and is under the supervision of the trained person. Each person performing a cremation service shall complete a continuing education cremation course at least 2 hours in length from a provider recognized by the Comptroller every 5 years. For purposes of this Act, the Comptroller may recognize any training program that provides training in the operation of a cremation device, in the maintenance of a clean facility, and in the proper handling of human remains. The Comptroller may recognize any course that is conducted by a death care trade association in Illinois or the United States or by a manufacturer of a cremation unit that is consistent with the standards provided in this Act or as otherwise determined by rule.
Sec. 25.
(a) The crematory authority shall furnish to the person who delivers human remains to the crematory authority a receipt signed, in either paper or electronic format, at the time of delivery by both the crematory authority and the person who delivers the human remains, showing the date and time of the delivery, the type of casket or alternative container that was delivered, the name of the person from whom the human remains were received and the name of the funeral establishment or other entity with whom the person is affiliated, the name of the person who received the human remains on behalf of the crematory authority, and the name of the decedent. The crematory shall retain a copy of this receipt in its permanent records.
(b) Upon its release of cremated remains, the crematory authority shall furnish to the person who receives the cremated remains from the crematory authority a receipt signed, in either paper or electronic format, by both the crematory authority and the person who receives the cremated remains, showing the date and time of the release, the name of the person to whom the cremated remains were released and the name of the funeral establishment, cemetery, or other entity with whom the person is affiliated, the name of the person who released the cremated remains on behalf of the crematory authority, and the name of the decedent. The crematory shall retain a copy of this receipt in its permanent records.
(c) A crematory authority shall maintain at its place of business a permanent record of each cremation that took place at its facility which shall contain the name of the decedent, the date of the cremation, and the final disposition of the cremated remains.
(d) The crematory authority shall maintain a record of all cremated remains disposed of by the crematory authority in accordance with subsection (d) of Section 40.
(e) Upon completion of the cremation, the crematory authority shall file the burial transit permit as required by the Illinois Vital Records Act and rules adopted under that Act and the Illinois Counties Code, and transmit a photocopy of the burial transit permit along with the cremated remains to whoever receives the cremated remains from the authorizing agent unless the cremated remains are to be interred, entombed, inurned, or placed in a scattering area, in which case the crematory authority shall retain a copy of the burial transit permit and shall send the permit, along with the cremated remains, to the cemetery, which shall file the permit with the designated agency after the interment, entombment, inurnment, or scattering has taken place.
(f) All cemeteries shall maintain a record of all cremated remains that are disposed of on their property, provided that the cremated remains were properly transferred to the cemetery and the cemetery issued a receipt acknowledging the transfer of the cremated remains.
Sec. 30.
Cremation containers.
(a) No crematory authority shall make or enforce any rules requiring that any human remains be placed in a casket before cremation or that human remains be cremated in a casket. No crematory authority shall refuse to accept human remains for cremation because the remains are not in a casket.
(b) No crematory authority shall accept human remains unless they are delivered to the crematory authority in a casket or an alternative container. If the human remains are delivered to the crematory authority in an alternative container, the alternative container shall comply with all aspects of the definition of "alternative container" set forth in Section 5.
Sec. 35.
Cremation procedures.
(a) Human remains shall not be cremated within 24 hours after the time of death, as indicated on the Medical Examiner's/Coroner's Certificate of Death. In any death, the human remains shall not be cremated by the crematory authority until a cremation permit has been received from the coroner or medical examiner of the county in which the death occurred and the crematory authority has received a cremation authorization form, executed by an authorizing agent, in accordance with the provisions of Section 15 of this Act. In no instance, however, shall the lapse of time between the death and the cremation be less than 24 hours, unless (i) it is known the deceased has an infectious or dangerous disease and that the time requirement is waived in writing by the medical examiner or coroner where the death occurred or (ii) because of a religious requirement.
(b) Except as set forth in subsection (a) of this Section, a crematory authority shall have the right to schedule the actual cremation to be performed at its own convenience, at any time after the human remains have been delivered to the crematory authority, unless the crematory authority has received specific instructions to the contrary on the cremation authorization form.
(c) No crematory authority shall cremate human remains when it has actual knowledge that human remains contain a pacemaker or any other material or implant that may be potentially hazardous to the person performing the cremation.
(d) No crematory authority shall refuse to accept human remains for cremation because such human remains are not embalmed.
(e) Whenever a crematory authority is unable or unauthorized to cremate human remains immediately upon taking custody of the remains, the crematory authority shall place the human remains in a holding facility in accordance with the crematory authority's rules and regulations. The crematory authority must notify the authorizing agent of the reasons for delay in cremation if a properly authorized cremation is not performed within any time period expressly contemplated in the authorization.
(f) A crematory authority shall not accept a casket or alternative container from which there is any evidence of the leakage of body fluids.
(g) The casket or the alternative container shall be cremated with the human remains or destroyed, unless the crematory authority has notified the authorizing agent to the contrary on the cremation authorization form and obtained the written consent of the authorizing agent.
(h) The simultaneous cremation of the human remains of more than one person within the same cremation chamber, without the prior written consent of the authorizing agent, is prohibited except for common cremation pursuant to Section 11.4 of the Hospital Licensing Act. Nothing in this subsection, however, shall prevent the simultaneous cremation within the same cremation chamber of body parts delivered to the crematory authority from multiple sources, or the use of cremation equipment that contains more than one cremation chamber.
(i) No unauthorized person shall be permitted in the holding facility or cremation room while any human remains are being held there awaiting cremation, being cremated, or being removed from the cremation chamber.
(j) A crematory authority shall not remove any dental gold, body parts, organs, or any item of value prior to or subsequent to a cremation without previously having received specific written authorization from the authorizing agent and written instructions for the delivery of these items to the authorizing agent. Under no circumstances shall a crematory authority profit from making or assisting in any removal of valuables.
(k) Upon the completion of each cremation, and insofar as is practicable, all of the recoverable residue of the cremation process shall be removed from the cremation chamber.
(l) If all of the recovered cremated remains will not fit within the receptacle that has been selected, the remainder of the cremated remains shall be returned to the authorizing agent or the agent's designee in a separate container. The crematory authority shall not return to an authorizing agent or the agent's designee more or less cremated remains than were removed from the cremation chamber.
(m) A crematory authority shall not knowingly represent to an authorizing agent or the agent's designee that a temporary container or urn contains the cremated remains of a specific decedent when it does not.
(n) Cremated remains shall be shipped only by a method that has an internal tracing system available and that provides a receipt signed, in either paper or electronic format, by the person accepting delivery.
(o) A crematory authority shall maintain an identification system that shall ensure that it shall be able to identify the human remains in its possession throughout all phases of the cremation process.
(p) A crematory authority shall not take possession of unembalmed human remains that cannot be cremated within 24 hours unless it provides or maintains either of the following capable of maintaining a temperature of less than 40 degrees Fahrenheit: an operable refrigeration unit, with cleanable, noncorrosive interior and exterior finishes, or a suitable cooling room.
(Source: P.A. 102-824, eff. 1-1-23; 103-253, eff. 6-30-23.)
Sec. 40.
Disposition of cremated remains.
(a) The authorizing agent shall be responsible for the final disposition of the cremated remains.
(b) Cremated remains may be disposed of by placing them in a grave, crypt, or niche, by scattering them in a scattering area as defined in this Act, or in any manner whatever on the private property of a consenting owner.
(c) Upon the completion of the cremation process, and except as provided for in item (I) of paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of Section 20, if the crematory authority has not been instructed to arrange for the interment, entombment, inurnment, or scattering of the cremated remains, the crematory authority shall deliver the cremated remains to the individual specified on the cremation authorization form, or if no individual is specified then to the authorizing agent. The delivery may be made in person or by registered mail. Upon receipt of the cremated remains, the individual receiving them may transport them in any manner in this State without a permit, and may dispose of them in accordance with this Section. After delivery, the crematory authority shall be discharged from any legal obligation or liability concerning the cremated remains.
(d) If, after a period of 60 days from the date of the cremation, the authorizing agent or the agent's designee has not instructed the crematory authority to arrange for the final disposition of the cremated remains or claimed the cremated remains, the crematory authority may dispose of the cremated remains in any manner permitted by this Section. The crematory authority, however, shall keep a permanent record identifying the site of final disposition. The authorizing agent shall be responsible for reimbursing the crematory authority for all reasonable expenses incurred in disposing of the cremated remains. Upon disposing of the cremated remains, the crematory authority shall be discharged from any legal obligation or liability concerning the cremated remains. Any person who was in possession of cremated remains prior to the effective date of this Act may dispose of them in accordance with this Section.
(e) Except with the express written permission of the authorizing agent, no person shall:
(1) Dispose of cremated remains in a manner or in a
location so that the cremated remains are commingled with those of another person. This prohibition shall not apply to the scattering of cremated remains at sea, by air, or in an area located in a dedicated cemetery and used exclusively for those purposes.
(2) Place cremated remains of more than one person in
the same temporary container or urn.
Sec. 45.
Limitation of liability.
(a) A crematory authority that has received an executed cremation authorization form that complies with paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of Section 20 and has received any additional documentation required by Section 20 shall not be liable for cremating the human remains designated by the cremation authorization form if the cremation is performed in accordance with this Act.
(b) A crematory authority shall not be liable for refusing to accept human remains or to perform a cremation until it receives a court order or other suitable confirmation that a dispute has been settled, if:
(1) it is aware of any dispute concerning the
cremation of the human remains;
(2) it has a reasonable basis for questioning any of
the representations made by the authorizing agent; or
(3) it refuses to accept the human remains for any
other lawful reason.
This provision shall not be construed as placing any affirmative obligation, not otherwise required by law, on any crematory authority to accept any human remains for cremation.
(c) No cemetery shall be liable for any cremated remains that are dumped, scattered, or otherwise deposited on the cemetery in violation of this Act, if that action is taken without the cemetery's consent.
(d) If a crematory authority is aware of any dispute concerning the release or disposition of the cremated remains, the crematory authority may refuse to release the cremated remains until the dispute has been resolved or the crematory authority has been provided with a court order directing the release or disposition of the cremated remains. A crematory authority shall not be liable for refusing to release or dispose of cremated remains in accordance with this Section.
(e) A crematory authority shall not be responsible or liable for any valuables delivered to the crematory authority with human remains, unless the crematory authority has received written instructions in accordance with item (K) of paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of Section 20.
Sec. 50.
Pacemakers and hazardous implants.
If an authorizing agent informs the funeral director and the cremation authority on the cremation authorization form of the presence of a pacemaker in the human remains, then the funeral director shall be responsible for ensuring that all necessary steps have been taken to remove the pacemaker before delivering the human remains to the crematory. Should the funeral director who delivers the human remains to the crematory fail to ensure that the pacemaker has been removed from the human remains prior to delivery, and should the human remains be cremated with the pacemaker, then the funeral director who delivered the human remains to the crematory and anyone else covered by this Section shall be liable for all resulting damages.
Sec. 55.
Violations of this Act shall be punishable as follows:
(1) Performing a cremation without receipt of a
cremation authorization form signed, in either paper or electronic format, by an authorizing agent shall be a Class 4 felony.
(2) Signing, in either paper or electronic format, a
cremation authorization form with the actual knowledge that the form contains false or incorrect information shall be a Class 4 felony.
(3) A Violation of any cremation procedure set forth
in Section 35 shall be a Class 4 felony.
(4) Holding oneself out to the public as a crematory
authority, or the operation of a building or structure within this State as a crematory, without being licensed under this Act, shall be a Class A misdemeanor.
(4.5) Performance of a cremation service by a person
who has not completed a training program as defined in Section 22 of this Act shall be a Class A misdemeanor.
(4.10) Any person who intentionally violates a
provision of this Act or a final order of the Comptroller is liable for a civil penalty not to exceed $5,000 per violation.
(4.15) Any person who knowingly acts without proper
legal authority and who willfully and knowingly destroys or damages the remains of a deceased human being or who desecrates human remains is guilty of a Class 3 felony.
(5) A violation of any other provision of this Act
shall be a Class B misdemeanor.
Sec. 60.
Failure to file annual report.
Whenever a crematory authority refuses or neglects to file its annual report in violation of Section 10 of this Act, or fails to otherwise comply with the requirements of this Act, the Comptroller shall impose a penalty as provided for by rule for each and every day the licensee remains delinquent in submitting the annual report. Such report shall be made under oath and shall be in a form determined by the Comptroller.
Sec. 62.
Injunctive action; cease and desist order.
(a) If any person violates the provisions of this Act, the Comptroller, in the name of the People of the State of Illinois, through the Attorney General or the State's Attorney of the county in which the violation is alleged to have occurred, may petition for an order enjoining the violation or for an order enforcing compliance with this Act. Upon the filing of a verified petition, the court with appropriate jurisdiction may issue a temporary restraining order, without notice or bond, and may preliminarily and permanently enjoin the violation. If it is established that the person has violated or is violating the injunction, the court may punish the offender for contempt of court. Proceedings under this Section are in addition to, and not in lieu of, all other remedies and penalties provided by this Act.
(b) Whenever, in the opinion of the Comptroller, a person violates any provision of this Act, the Comptroller may issue a rule to show cause why an order to cease and desist should not be entered against that person. The rule shall clearly set forth the grounds relied upon by the Comptroller and shall allow at least 7 days from the date of the rule to file an answer satisfactory to the Comptroller. Failure to answer to the satisfaction of the Comptroller shall cause an order to cease and desist to be issued.
Sec. 62.5.
Service of notice.
Service by the Comptroller of any notice requiring a person to file a statement or report under this Act shall be made: (1) personally by delivery of a duly executed copy of the notice to the person to be served or, if that person is not a natural person, in the manner provided in the Civil Practice Law when a complaint is filed; or (2) by mailing by certified mail a duly executed copy of the notice to the person at his or her address of record.
Sec. 62.10.
Investigations; notice and hearing.
The Comptroller may at any time investigate the actions of any applicant or of any person, persons, or entity rendering or offering to render cremation services or any person or entity holding or claiming to hold a license as a licensed crematory. The Comptroller shall, before revoking, suspending, placing on probation, reprimanding, or taking any other disciplinary action under Section 11 of this Act, at least 30 days before the date set for the hearing, (i) notify the accused in writing of the charges made and the time and place for the hearing on the charges, (ii) direct the accused applicant or licensee to file a written answer to the charges with the Comptroller under oath within 20 days after the service on him or her of the notice, and (iii) inform the accused that, if he or she fails to answer, default will be taken against him or her or that his or her license may be suspended, revoked, placed on probationary status, or other disciplinary action taken with regard to the license, including limiting the scope, nature, or extent of his or her practice, as the Comptroller may consider proper.
At the time and place fixed in the notice, the Comptroller shall proceed to hear the charges and the parties or their counsel shall be accorded ample opportunity to present any pertinent statements, testimony, evidence, and arguments. The Comptroller shall have the authority to appoint an attorney duly licensed to practice law in the State of Illinois to serve as the hearing officer in any disciplinary action with regard to a license. The hearing officer shall have full authority to conduct the hearing. The Comptroller may continue the hearing from time to time. In case the person, after receiving the notice, fails to file an answer, his or her license may, in the discretion of the Comptroller, be suspended, revoked, placed on probationary status, or the Comptroller may take whatever disciplinary action considered proper, including limiting the scope, nature, or extent of the person's practice or the imposition of a fine, without a hearing, if the act or acts charged constitute sufficient grounds for that action under this Act. The written notice may be served by personal delivery or by certified mail to the address specified by the accused in his or her last notification with the Comptroller.
Sec. 62.15.
Compelling testimony.
Any circuit court, upon application of the Comptroller or designated hearing officer may enter an order requiring the attendance of witnesses and their testimony, and the production of documents, papers, files, books, and records in connection with any hearing or investigation. The court may compel obedience to its order by proceedings for contempt.
Sec. 62.20.
Administrative review; venue; certification of record; costs.
(a) All final administrative decisions of the Comptroller are subject to judicial review under the Administrative Review Law and its rules. The term "administrative decision" is defined as in Section 3-101 of the Code of Civil Procedure.
(b) Proceedings for judicial review shall be commenced in the circuit court of the county in which the party applying for review resides, but if the party is not a resident of Illinois, the venue shall be in Sangamon County.
(c) The Comptroller shall not be required to certify any record of the court, file an answer in court, or to otherwise appear in any court in a judicial review proceeding unless and until the Comptroller has received from the plaintiff payment of the costs of furnishing and certifying the record, which costs shall be determined by the Comptroller. Failure on the part of the plaintiff to make such payment to the Comptroller is grounds for dismissal of the action.
Sec. 65.
Pre-need cremation arrangements.
(a) Any person, or anyone who has legal authority to act on behalf of a person, on a pre-need basis, may authorize his or her own cremation and the final disposition of his or her cremated remains by executing, as the authorizing agent, a cremation authorization form on a pre-need basis. A copy of this form shall be provided to the person. Any person shall have the right to transfer or cancel this authorization at any time prior to death by destroying the executed cremation authorization form and providing written notice to the crematory authority.
(b) Any cremation authorization form that is being executed by an individual as his or her own authorizing agent on a pre-need basis shall contain the following disclosure, which shall be completed by the authorizing agent:
"( ) I do not wish to allow any of my survivors the
option of cancelling my cremation and selecting alternative arrangements, regardless of whether my survivors deem a change to be appropriate.
( ) I wish to allow only the survivors whom I have
designated below the option of cancelling my cremation and selecting alternative arrangements, if they deem a change to be appropriate:............"
(c) Except as provided in subsection (b) of this Section, at the time of the death of a person who has executed, as the authorizing agent, a cremation authorization form on a pre-need basis, any person in possession of an executed form and any person charged with making arrangements for the final disposition of the decedent who has knowledge of the existence of an executed form, shall use their best efforts to ensure that the decedent is cremated and that the final disposition of the cremated remains is in accordance with the instructions contained on the cremation authorization form. If a crematory authority (i) is in possession of a completed cremation authorization form that was executed on a pre-need basis, (ii) is in possession of the designated human remains, and (iii) has received payment for the cremation of the human remains and the final disposition of the cremated remains or is otherwise assured of payment, then the crematory authority shall be required to cremate the human remains and dispose of the cremated remains according to the instructions contained on the cremation authorization form, and may do so without any liability.
(d) Any pre-need contract sold by, or pre-need arrangements made with, a cemetery, funeral establishment, crematory authority, or any other party that includes a cremation shall specify the final disposition of the cremated remains, in accordance with Section 40. In the event that no different or inconsistent instructions are provided to the crematory authority by the authorizing agent at the time of death, the crematory authority shall be authorized to release or dispose of the cremated remains as indicated in the pre-need agreement. Upon compliance with the terms of the pre-need agreement, the crematory authority shall be discharged from any legal obligation concerning the cremated remains. The pre-need agreement shall be kept as a permanent record by the crematory authority.
(e) This Section shall not apply to any cremation authorization form or pre-need contract executed prior to the effective date of this Act. Any cemetery, funeral establishment, crematory authority, or other party, however, with the written approval of the authorizing agent or person who executed the pre-need contract, may designate that the cremation authorization form or pre-need contract shall be subject to this Act.
Sec. 70.
Employment of funeral director by crematory authority.
(a) A crematory authority shall be permitted to enter into a contract with a funeral director or funeral business for the purpose of arranging cremations on an at-need basis with the general public, transporting human remains to the crematory, and processing all necessary paperwork.
(b) No aspect of this Act shall be construed to require a licensed funeral director to perform any functions not otherwise required by law to be performed by a licensed funeral director.
Sec. 75.
Scope of Act.
This Act shall be construed and interpreted as a comprehensive cremation statute, and the provisions of this Act shall take precedence over any existing laws containing provisions applicable to cremation, but that do not specifically or comprehensively address cremation.
Sec. 80.
Record of proceedings; transcript.
The Comptroller, at its expense, shall preserve a record of all proceedings at the formal hearing of any case. Any notice of hearing, complaint, all other documents in the nature of pleadings, written motions filed in the proceedings, the transcripts of testimony, the report of the hearing officer, and orders of the Comptroller shall be in the record of the proceeding. The Comptroller shall furnish a transcript of such record to any person interested in such hearing upon payment of a reasonable fee.
Sec. 85.
Subpoenas; depositions; oaths.
The Comptroller has the power to subpoena documents, books, records or other materials and to bring before it any person and to take testimony either orally or by deposition, or both, with the same fees and mileage and in the same manner as prescribed in civil cases in the courts of this State. The Comptroller, the designated hearing officer, or any qualified person the Comptroller may designate has the power to administer oaths to witnesses at any hearing that the Comptroller is authorized to conduct, and any other oaths authorized in any Act administered by the Comptroller.
Every person having taken an oath or affirmation in any proceeding or matter wherein an oath is required by this Act, who shall swear willfully, corruptly and falsely in a matter material to the issue or point in question, or shall suborn any other person to swear as aforesaid, shall be guilty of perjury or subornation of perjury, as the case may be and shall be punished as provided by State law relative to perjury and subornation of perjury.
Sec. 87.
Findings and recommendations.
At the conclusion of the hearing, the hearing officer shall present to the Comptroller a written report of its findings of fact, conclusions of law, and recommendations. The report shall contain a finding whether or not the accused person violated this Act or its rules or failed to comply with the conditions required in this Act or its rules. The hearing officer shall specify the nature of any violations or failure to comply and shall make recommendations to the Comptroller. In making recommendations for any disciplinary actions, the hearing officer may take into consideration all facts and circumstances bearing upon the reasonableness of the conduct of the accused and the potential for future harm to the public, including but not limited to, previous discipline of the accused by the Comptroller, intent, degree of harm to the public and likelihood of harm in the future, any restitution made by the accused, and whether the incident or incidents contained in the complaint appear to be isolated or represent a continuing pattern of conduct. In making its recommendations for discipline, the hearing officer shall endeavor to ensure that the severity of the discipline recommended is reasonably related to the severity of the violation. The report of findings of fact, conclusions of law, and recommendation of the hearing officer shall be the basis for the Comptroller's order refusing to issue, restore, place on probation, fine, suspend, revoke a license, or otherwise disciplining a licensee. If the Comptroller disagrees with the recommendations of the hearing officer, the Comptroller may issue an order in contravention of the hearing officer's recommendations. The finding is not admissible in evidence against the person in a criminal prosecution brought for a violation of this Act, but the hearing and finding are not a bar to a criminal prosecution brought for a violation of this Act.
Sec. 88.
At the conclusion of the hearing, a copy of the hearing officer's report shall be served upon the applicant or licensee by the Comptroller, either personally or as provided in this Act. Within 20 days after service, the applicant or licensee may present to the Comptroller a motion in writing for a rehearing, which shall specify the particular grounds for rehearing. The Comptroller may respond to the motion for rehearing within 20 days after its service on the Comptroller. If no motion for rehearing is filed, then upon the expiration of the time specified for filing such a motion, or if a motion for rehearing is denied, then upon denial, the Comptroller may enter an order in accordance with recommendations of the hearing officer except as provided in Section 89 of this Act.
If the applicant or licensee orders from the reporting service and pays for a transcript of the record within the time for filing a motion for rehearing, the 20-day period within which a motion may be filed shall commence upon the delivery of the transcript to the applicant or licensee.
(Source: P.A. 97-679, eff. 2-6-12; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13
Sec. 89.
Comptroller; rehearing.
Whenever the Comptroller believes that substantial justice has not been done in the revocation, suspension, or refusal to issue or restore a license or other discipline of an applicant or licensee, he or she may order a rehearing by the same or other hearing officers.
Sec. 90.
Order or certified copy; prima facie proof.
An order or certified copy thereof, over the seal of the Comptroller and purporting to be signed by the Comptroller, is prima facie proof that:
(a) the signature is the genuine signature of the
(b) the Comptroller is duly appointed and qualified;
(c) the hearing officer is qualified to act.
Sec. 91.
Civil action and civil penalties.
In addition to the other penalties and remedies provided in this Act, the Comptroller may bring a civil action in the county of residence of the licensee or any other person to enjoin any violation or threatened violation of this Act. In addition to any other penalty provided by law, any person who violates this Act shall forfeit and pay a civil penalty to the Comptroller in an amount not to exceed $5,000 for each violation as determined by the Comptroller. The civil penalty shall be assessed by the Comptroller in accordance with the provisions of this Act.
Any civil penalty shall be paid within 60 days after the effective date of the order imposing the civil penalty. The order shall constitute a judgment and may be filed and execution had thereon in the same manner as any judgment from any court of record. All moneys collected under this Section shall be deposited with the Comptroller.
Sec. 92.
Consent order.
At any point in any investigation or disciplinary proceedings as provided in this Act, both parties may agree to a negotiated consent order. The consent order shall be final upon signature of the Comptroller.
Sec. 93.
Illinois Administrative Procedure Act; application.
The Illinois Administrative Procedure Act is expressly adopted and incorporated in this Act as if all of the provisions of that Act were included in this Act, except that the provision of paragraph (d) of Section 10-65 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, which provides that at hearings the licensee has the right to show compliance with all lawful requirements for retention or continuation of the license, is specifically excluded. For the purpose of this Act, the notice required under Section 10-25 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act is considered sufficient when mailed to the address of record.
(Source: P.A. 96-863, eff. 3-1-12
Sec. 94.
Summary suspension of a license.
The Comptroller may summarily suspend a license of a licensed crematory without a hearing, simultaneously with the institution of proceedings for a hearing provided for in this Act, if the Comptroller finds that evidence in the Comptroller's possession indicates that the licensee's continued practice would constitute an imminent danger to the public. In the event that the Comptroller summarily suspends the license of a licensed crematory without a hearing, a hearing must be commenced within 30 days after the suspension has occurred and concluded as expeditiously as practical. In the event of a summary suspension, the county coroner or medical examiner responsible for the area where the crematory is located shall make arrangements to dispose of any bodies in the suspended licensee's possession after consulting with the authorizing agents for those bodies.
Sec. 95.
Home rule.
The regulation of crematories and crematory authorities as set forth in this Act is an exclusive power and function of the State. A home rule unit may not regulate crematories or crematory authorities. This Section is a denial and limitation of home rule powers and functions under subsection (h) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution.
Sec. 100.
Effective date.
This Act takes effect January 1, 1993.


text:
I know this may seem an odd thing to say about an eatery in New Albany, but it's true: A visit to Louis Le Français comes surprisingly close to dining in France.
How authentic is it? Here's how: I decided to give my limited language skills a workout by ordering a dish in French.
"I'll have the Crêpes aux Epinards, please," I chirped, properly gargling my Rs and liasoning the preposition so it came out something like "Khwehpp O'Zehpeenagghh." I beamed, anticipating high praise for my tourist-French accent.
"Spinach crepes," the friendly Francophone server chirped right back, restoring the conversation to English.
Funny, this always happens to me in Paris, too.
But you'll never need to worry about Parisian snootiness at Louis Le Français, where the staff – French-bred and Hoosier-born alike – is courteous and as friendly as you'd expect at a dining room in an Indiana town.
Louis Le Français simply means "Louie the Frenchman," and you'll find the namesake owner-chef, Louis Retailleau, turning out delicious country French fare in a bright, sunny-color venue where both the food and the mood come strikingly close to matching his native Provençe.
Louis Le Français is open for lunch and dinner Tuesdays through Saturdays and brunch on Sundays. The lunch menu keeps things simple with a short list of soup or salad ($) and four Plats Principaux ("main dishes") from $8 for the sandwich du jour to $10 for Ragout de Boeuf, a French beef and vegetable stew, plus desserts. I want to go over soon for Sunday brunch, which is served from a menu, not a buffet, and includes about a dozen choices, with everything under $10 except Louis's house cured pork belly bacon and eggs ($13) or Michel's crêpe ($10).The dinner menu, with main courses from $17 to $27, is revised frequently. On the summery evening of our visit, we started out cool with a bowl of chilled gazpacho ($4), a summer soup of gently spicy pureed tomatoes, bell peppers and other good things. the aforementioned Crêpes aux Epinards ($4) was a pair of small, tender crêpes wrapped like ravioli around finely chopped spinach and sauced with a light velouté scented with herbes de Provençe. Lengths of crusty baguette with butter curls were served alongside.
Main dishes were fine, too: Two slices of tender, very mild lamb ($27) were served with its jus
and a ration of herb-sprinkled rice. The ratatouille ($17) was an excellent rendition, chunks of eggplant, zucchini and tomato long-simmered with herbs until the flavors swam together, placed in a circle around a modest mound of rice.
Getting mighty full, we still gave in to dessert and were glad we did: Crème Brûlée ($7) was made in classic fashion, with a crackling caramelized surface over a thin layer of creamy custard studded with deep melted chocolate surprises.
A full dinner with apps, mains, a shared dessert, a good value bottle of Bouchard Pinot Noir ($26) and coffee ($2) came to $95.23, a toll that wouldn't be out of line at a bistro on Bardstown Road – or in Provençe. First-rate service in both French and English earned a $20 tip.
Coming event: According to a recent post on the restaurant's Facebook page, Louis has big plans for a day-long event to mark Bastille Day (July 14, which happily falls on a Saturday this year) with French fare and entertainment for all! Keep an eye on Facebook (link below) for more details.
Louis Le Français
(812) 944-1222
133 E. Market St.
New Albany, Ind.
Web: LouisLeFrancais.com
Facebook: link

subset: commoncrawl


text:
In the Loop
ITC enters national arena
The UTSA Institute of Texan Cultures moved toward national prominence when it was accepted into the Smithsonian Affiliations program in January.
As a Smithsonian Affiliate, the ITC has access to artifacts, performing arts programs, expert speakers, teacher workshops and other resources from the national institution.
"The Smithsonian has a long and proud relationship with the ITC, going back to 1972 during the first Texas Folklife Festival and continuing right up to the present," said Harold Closter, director of Smithsonian Affiliations. "We are confident that the affiliate relationship will enhance the work that both of our organizations are doing to understand, interpret and display the wonderful and diverse traditions of the American people."
This summer, staff members from the institute will attend the Smithsonian Affiliations National Conference in Washington, D.C. It will be an opportunity to review traveling exhibits and artifacts available to bring to San Antonio. At any given time, there are about 1,000 Smithsonian artifacts on display at affiliate museums. There are 168 Smithsonian Affiliates in 41 states, the District of Columbia, Panama and Puerto Rico.
"As UTSA moves toward becoming a national research university, this affiliation helps propel the Institute of Texan Cultures onto the national stage as well," said UTSA President Ricardo Romo. "With the opportunity to host traveling Smithsonian exhibits, the institute will make the rich Smithsonian cultural experience available to many people who otherwise may never have the opportunity to travel to Washington, D.C."
The Smithsonian Affiliations program shares the knowledge of the Smithsonian Institution with a broader audience. The program aspires to create experiences and opportunities to broaden perspectives on science, history, world cultures and the arts.
"I had the good fortune of establishing Smithsonian Affiliations at the Virginia Museum of Natural History and the Dallas Museum of Natural History," said Tim Gette, ITC executive director. "The partnership impacted both museums in a very positive way."
—James Benavides


text:
Frequently Asked Questions
What are the deadlines?
We do two grant reviews per year, one with an April 15th deadline and one with an October 15th deadline. Decisions may take as long as eight weeks. Applications can be submitted at any time, but will not be considered until after those deadlines.
Who is eligible to apply for a grant?
Any 501( c )(3) organization in the state of Maine is eligible. No applications will be considered from any organization without 501(c)(3) status, unless the applicant is a town, fire or emergency aid department or school system with tax-exempt status.
What is the size of a typical grant?
Grants range from $500 to $50,000. Requests should not exceed $50,000. Endowment grants are rare, as are matching or challenge grants.
Does the King Foundation make multi-year commitments?
We do, occasionally, at our discretion. However, our preference is to award one-time grants that improve the capacity or function of an organization.
How often can an organization apply?
We request that you only apply once per calendar year, and if you receive funding to wait two years before applying again.
Does the King Foundation award discretionary grants?
The Stephen & Tabitha King Foundation reserves the right to make grants at the discretion of its board members. Organizations that receive funding are selected by the board, and letters of inquiry are not accepted for such funding.
Will the King Foundation support ongoing projects or only new projects?
We have done both, but prefer short-term projects with clearly defined goals and measurable results. Future support should never be assumed once a grant has been awarded. It is not the goal of the Foundation to provide annual support to any organization, nor are we interested in providing grants to correct funding gaps, whatever the reason might be for them.
Will the King Foundation make emergency grants?
No. The Foundation has no emergency funds to distribute. We work within our grant cycles.
Who will review our proposal?
The administrator and the trustees will review all requests. All materials are handled confidentially.
How strict is your policy on application deadlines?
Because we aim for a quick turn-around, we must be very strict on the deadlines. Applying well before the deadline is appreciated. All applications should be postmarked before the deadline; they do not have to be received before the deadline, but they must arrive within seven days of the deadline. No special services for mailing should be required.
How will I know if my application has been received and is complete?
All applicants receive a letter or electronic acknowledgement, and the administrator will contact you if there are questions.
How can I receive information about the fund's assets and previous grants?
This information is available for review in person at the offices of CBiz Marks Paneth, 685 Third Avenue, New York, NY 10017. Go to Links; you will find our 990 posted on Guidestar.
Can I set up a meeting before my request is considered?
The trustees do not grant interviews to prospective grantees, nor do they normally make site visits, except when they consider it necessary, at which time they would request your cooperation.
If we receive funding, do we need to submit a grant report?
Organizations receiving a grant will be expected to keep the Foundation informed as to the progress of their project; this may be done through letters, newsletters, photos, or other pertinent materials. In special circumstances, applicants might be asked to submit a formal grant report upon completion of a project.
If we receive funding, may we publicize the grant and/or use the King Foundation name in advertising or solicitations?
If you are awarded a grant, you should ask for permission to publicize the award in anything other than a newsletter or organizational report. We prefer that it be publicized only locally. It is not a requirement that it be publicized.
I am having formatting problems. Should I be concerned?
Occasionally applicants have trouble with formatting during the online process. Do not be concerned. Submit it anyway. It comes through without any problems.
What is the best way to contact you?
Please contact us by email at firstname.lastname@example.com first. Phone messages can be left at 207-990-2910. Keep in mind that calls from cell phones can be unreliable given spotty service in some parts of Maine! Many times we receive phone messages that are incomplete or difficult to understand.


text:
I took some time out this afternoon to hang out in Oxford University Parks with Brian Selznick's The Invention of Hugo Cabret, which I'd been given for Christmas but hadn't a chance to read yet. It's a children's book, and one whose 526 pages were whizzed through in a couple of hours, leaving a kind of screen burn on the way I look at the world. It's probably the most beautiful hardback I've ever owned, but more than that, it pushes the boundaries of what's possible with a traditionally printed and bound story. Prose gives way to graphic novel, and then to cinema stills, all becoming part of a visceral patchwork that adds texture to its plot and subtexts. It overtly promotes thinking outside predetermined structures, which is an important lesson for any kid (even a big one in his thirties), and dares the reader to imagine what they could achieve, even going so far as to equate creativity with magic. I loved it.
It's also a good reminder that people, particularly in crunch times like that one we're now in, will always try and constrain things to the categories that make sense to them. The people who are really successful, and who changed the world for the better, all managed to take the skills they'd learned and built up over their lifetimes and turn them to breaking through the barriers other people had put in their way. They weren't afraid to be themselves, think the way they think, and push the boat out that little bit further.
What can you imagine? Why aren't you doing it?
Flying by Francisco-PortoNortePortugal, released under an Attribution-Noncommercial 2.0 Generic license.


text:
Fujifilm has released the FinePix REAL 3D V3 viewer for still images and movies. In a first for Fujifilm, it uses a lenticular system for glasses-free 3D viewing, and includes an HDMI input for connection to 3D-enabled devices such as Fujifilm's own FinePix REAL 3D W3 camera, as well as an SDHC card slot. The company also claims that 7.2" 2.88 million dot screen is substantially brighter than its predecessor. The unit can also function as a conventional 2D display, includes built-in stereo speakers, and comes with a remote control.
Press release:
FinePix REAL 3D V3 - 3D Digital Viewer - Brighter, glasses-free!
Fujifilm continues to stay at the forefront of 3D imaging technology with the introduction of the new FinePix REAL 3D V3. FinePix REAL 3D V3 sports some exciting new functionality that takes your viewing of 3D still photos and movies to the next level.
Key improvements have been made to the screen, which is substantially brighter than its predecessor and now uses a lenticular system for glasses-free 3D viewing, plus the V3 Viewer also supports High Definition 3D still photos and movie playback as well as compatibility to other 3D devices via HDMI input: a world's first in a 3D Digital Viewer*.
Glasses-free LCD monitor
The FinePix REAL 3D V3 Viewer is the first from Fujifilm to use a lenticular system for viewing images. The "no-glasses required" system makes for crystal clear 3D images, and don't suffer from any on-screen flickering.
Images are viewed through a series of lenses aligned on a sheet at left and right angles. As a result, the left and right eyes view different images with the parallax difference between the two eyes creating the 3D effect. With 2.88 million dots and LED backlighting, you will be able to see images with amazing sharpness and clarity.
Naturally, the V3 Viewer doesn't only support 3D still photos and movies, standard 2D still photos and movies can also be viewed at a maximum resolution to 10,000 x 10,000 pixels. The full colour display offers an impressive 16.77 million colours to provide superb colour accuracy and has a wide viewing angle of up to 160° horizontally and 140° vertically.
HDMI compatibility - a world's first
With the range of 3D products expanding, Fujifilm has become the first company to incorporate an HDMI input on a 3D viewer, which extends its compatibility and versatility. 3D images can be viewed by connecting HDMI-enabled 3D devices including FinePix REAL 3D W3 digital camera, Blu-ray disc players, video camcorders and gaming machines to the FinePix REAL 3D V3 Digital Viewer.
Bring your 3D High Definition movies to life on the new V3 viewer
Users capturing 3D movies can view them in 720p High Definition on the FinePix REAL 3D V3 Digital Viewer, a substantial improvement over the VGA-only offering from the V1 Viewer. What's more, the V3 Viewer's built-in stereo speakers offer high quality sound to enhance the movie viewing experience.
Additional functionality for greater versatility
The FinePix REAL 3D V3 Digital Viewer offers a range of viewing options to ensure the still photos and movies are seen at their very best. Its black frame emphasises the 3D effect while the supplied stand can be adjusted in eight steps so you're always assured of seeing the perfect 3D image. In addition the V3 Viewer can be mounted on a pocket tripod and finely adjusted to display optimum 3D images.
Additional built in features include a slideshow function, calendar, clock and timer displays, plus the compatibility to play WAV audio files in slideshow mode and support SD and SDHC memory cards. A remote control is also provided for hands-free operation.
Fujifilm FinePix REAL 3D V3 Viewer key features:
- 7.2-inch 3D lenticular display for glasses-free viewing
- 2.88 million dots
- Wide viewing angle (160° horizontally, 140° vertically) in the 2D images played mode
- Can be playback the High Definition 3D still photo and movies via HDMI interface (High-speed type)
- 720p HD movie compatible
- Built-in stereo speakers
- 512MB internal memory
- SD/SDHC card compatible
* Correct October 2011


text:
As we noted earlier, the weekend's silliest headline came courtesy of hair product Jon Bon Jovi, who ranted to the Sunday Times of London that "Steve Jobs is personally responsible for killing the music business."
This statement is astoundingly ignorant. The iTunes Music Store is easily the most popular record store in the history of the world, having sold more than 10 billion songs in its eight years of existence. One can decry the very notion of digital distribution. It's impossible to argue with business that big.
Moreover, when iTMS hit the scene in April 2003, it was a godsend to record labels. After all, Apple didn't invent digital distribution of music. They invented legitimate digital distribution. Napster had hit the scene a full four years previous, making it possible for college students across the country (myself included, briefly) to readily share reasonably high-quality music files with one another over the Internet in simple fashion. As soon as Shawn Fanning flipped the switch in 1999, the music business needed to change itself or disappear.
For years, it chose to disappear, waging costly legal battles with Napster and its near-relatives Audiogalaxy, MP3.com, Gnutella, Kazaa, Morpheus, and LimeWire. Hilariously, the Recording Industry Association of America's belief that they could sue file sharing out of existence did little but spur its growth and, more critically, its innovation. BitTorrent, the radically distributed and difficult-to-trace open file sharing protocol, hit in 2001, arguably a few years before it would have arrived had the record companies reached a deal to distribute music legally through Napster. Also, Metallica.
It was into this mix that Steve Jobs arrived. And with him, the record industry finally changed. A little. They finally signed on with a legitimate way to purchase music over the Internet, for just 99 cents a song. And it was revolutionary, driving unprecedented volumes and moving a lot of iPods in the process. But, like Bon Jovi, the record industry has a short memory, and immediately began demanding to sell songs for more money on iTunes, as well as demanding a higher percentage of revenue from each tune, even though, at 70:30, they were already doing better than a typical margin at a record store.
Anyway, they got what they wanted again, but still they rant and whine about devaluing music or killing the romance of the art form. Generally, they resent that the vast iTunes library has allowed indie bands to get more attention than they ever were when major labels controlled distribution. And those indie labels are doing great now (see what Merge Records has accomplished with Arcade Fire and Spoon), as are some of the independent record stores that thrive off of their albums.
Honestly, at the end of the day, the Web's arrival in the early 1990s was a sign that all media would eventually be delivered differently than it previously had. It was obvious that early. But the entrenched media covered their eyes and their ears and hoped things could remain the same. And now that an inevitable reality of digital music, video, books, and periodicals have arrived, everyone wants to get mad at the one company that's actually helped figure out how to make record labels some money in the last decade. Whether they like it or not.
In short, JonBon: "This Left Feels Right" killed music. Steve Jobs is the one who helped you profit from that murder.
The Sunday Times Magazine: LITD: Jon Bon Jovi, 48, rockstar (paywall)


text:
The Israeli military has told residents of several neighborhoods in Gaza that they may return home, seeming to indicate that the operation to destroy infiltration tunnels has ended in these parts of the enclave. However, most Gazans say they do not believe they will be safe.
Late morning in Beit Lahiya, north of Gaza City. Although it is a work day, this is a ghost town. Most residents fled during the Israeli military incursion here.
The purpose of the incursion was to eliminate tunnels and rocket sites of the Hamas group that controls Gaza.
Residents were warned ahead-of-time to leave the area for their safety. But some chose to stay. Hassan Gabayen was one of them.
"We are staying in our homes for our land and our God. We're trying to protect our people here. We're not going to leave. We will only leave as martyrs," says Gabayen.
He says some families came back after the Israeli announcement. But most just took a few belongings and left again.
Many of them took refuge at facilities like a U.N.-run school in Gaza City. It is now a village of 2,100 inhabitants. Officials say no one is leaving. Eman al-Kahlot, who stays here with her extended family of 18, explains why.
"We don't believe in what Israel says because yesterday (Saturday) a family from here went back. They bombarded and the family died. So the Israelis say one thing and do something else," says al-Kahlot.
Residents say the facilities are strained but there is enough help to survive. Yet, even here they are not safe. Several U.N. schools have been hit recently. Dozens of people were killed.
"For me there is no future. I hope in the future our children will have their rights, have their freedom as in other countries. Because the life we have here is nothing," says al-Kahlot.
Back in Beit Lahiya, Mahmoud al-Atar expresses a similar despair.
"I don't know what's going to happen. We're staying here. Maybe we'll die. I don't know, but it will be an honor. We're not going to a U.N. school because people are dying there, too. We prefer to die in our homes."
Some residents no longer have homes to return to. For the others, any cease-fire will only announce more hard times, of reconstruction and rehabilitation.


text:
The 2013 APS April Meeting will take place at the Sheraton Denver Downtown Hotel in Denver, Colorado from April 13 through 16.
The annual meeting is expected to attract about 1,200 attendees and will feature 72 invited sessions, more than 120 contributed sessions, three plenary sessions, poster sessions and an outreach event.
The meeting highlights the latest research from the APS Divisions of Particles and Fields, Astrophysics, Nuclear Physics, and Beam Physics, as well as the Topical Group on Gravitation and General Relativity. In addition, the Forums on Education, Graduate Student Affairs, History of Physics, International Physics, and Physics and Society will be participating, along with the Topical Groups on Energy Research and Applications, Few-Body Systems, Gravitation, Hadronic Physics, and Precision Measurements & Fundamental Constants.
Plenary sessions throughout the meeting will highlight some of the latest developments in research, as well as some recently revealed history.
The Kavli Foundation Keynote Plenary session is titled "Recent advances in physics at the CERN Large Hadron Collider, neutrino physics, and the study of the cosmic microwave background." Lloyd Knox from the University of California, Davis will talk about his work using data from NASA's Planck satellite to glean insights into the standard cosmological model. Florencia Canelli from ETH Zurich will highlight the recent discovery of the Higgs boson at the Large Hadron Collider at CERN. Sam Zeller from Fermilab will also focus on high energy physics, highlighting new experiments and developments in determining the value of the neutrino mixing angle, and the search for charge parity violation.
A second plenary session will be about "The quantum in 1913, 2013, and the future." John Heilbron from University of California, Berkeley will look back on the personal life of Niels Bohr through recently uncovered letters and correspondence before and while formulating his model of the atom. Deborah Jin at the University of Colorado and JILA will discuss her work on ultracold atoms and Bose-Einstein condensates. John Preskill of Caltech will highlight the promises and challenges of building a workable quantum computer.
Geoffrey West from the Santa Fe Institute will speak at an evening symposium titled, "Universal Scaling Laws from Cells to Cities; A Physicist's Search for Quantitative, Unified Theories of Biological and Social Structure and Dynamics." His talk will focus on how complex biological, sociological and economic systems seem to follow similar, almost universal scaling laws. West's work indicates that physics can offer new insights into the structure, dynamics and organization of these kinds of systems.
Lisa Randall, Harvard physicist and author of several popular physics books, will give a public talk at a session organized by the American Institute of Physics. She will be speaking about her career and the future of science.
The recipients of many of APS's prestigious prizes and awards will be honored at a special ceremonial session on Sunday evening.
Students attending the meeting have a variety of events just for them. On Friday, APS will host a career panel focused on non-academic careers students can pursue. Also during the meeting will be a panel where graduate students will share their experiences and answer questions about graduate school.
The Society for Physics Students will be holding a series of special sessions at the meeting for undergraduate research presentations. Students will share their research through posters and lectures. Following the sessions, awards will be given out to the top presenters in each category.
Exhibitors from a range of publishers and other vendors will have booths set up around the hotel to display their products.
Meeting attendees will have the chance to stop by the APS Contact Congress booth to send letters to their elected officials about the importance of continued Congressional support for scientific research.
APS encourages the redistribution of the materials included in this newspaper provided that attribution to the source is noted and the materials are not truncated or changed.


text:
Monday, January 29, begins Catholic Schools Week. It's a time to honor the unique value of Catholic education. Here in the Archdiocese of Philadelphia, we have a long record of dedicated service by the women and men who teach in our classrooms and run the "business" of Catholic schools. That record includes the legacy of thousands of women and men religious and diocesan clergy. In the single academic year of 1963-64, more than 4,100 religious and 1,600 laypersons taught more than 263,000 students enrolled in our schools. Today, scores of our pastors make extraordinary commitments of parish funds to keep our schools open and excellent.
Unfortunately, schools run on resources, not simply good will and heroic service. Our schools can no longer count on unlimited Church support. The resources simply don't exist. Many of our parishes are financially strained. The archdiocese itself faces serious financial and organizational challenges that have been developing for many years and cannot be ignored.
So where does that leave us? We can honor Catholic Schools Week this year by actually doing something about the fiscal problems hurting our schools. We need to press our lawmakers, respectfully but vigorously, to pass school choice.
First, we need some clarity: School vouchers do not mean "government support for religious schools." That argument is flatly false. No vouchers go to any school, religious or otherwise. Vouchers do, however, return the power of educational choice to parents, where it belongs. In doing so, vouchers make all schools more accountable for the quality of education they deliver. Parents get the voucher. Parents choose the school. This makes perfect sense. And if a school offers a poor education for young people, parents will rightly vote with their feet — and their vouchers. Of course, most Catholic schools do the opposite: They offer a strong education, in a safe environment, with a focus on developing good moral character. That's why parents are so upset when they close.
Some people argue that school choice legislation only helps families in poor areas. Helping the poor is obviously vital, and vouchers would accomplish that. But vouchers would also assist many more families than the poor. If vouchers are approved, they will free up what's known as EITC funds — Educational Improvement Tax Credit funds — along with other grant and scholarship monies for many thousands of other school families. In effect, the positive impact of vouchers translates to millions of dollars of additional educational resources potentially available to a wide range of school families each year — including Catholic school families.
Now here's an unhappy fact: In 2011, the bishops of Pennsylvania made the passage of vouchers one of their priority legislative issues. People like Bob O'Hara in our statewide Catholic bishops' conference and Jason Budd in our archdiocesan Office of Catholic Education worked hard to mobilize Catholic support. Their efforts failed — and not because they didn't try, but because too few people in the pews listened. Very few Catholics called or wrote their state senators and representatives. Even fewer visited their offices to lobby as citizens. Despite this, vouchers passed in the state senate, before stalling in the house. One non-Catholic school choice activist — who has poured years of his time and millions of dollars of his own resources into fighting for vouchers as a social justice issue — was baffled at the inability of Catholics to mobilize around an issue so obviously vital to the public interest and so clearly helpful to the survival of their own schools.
In the coming week I'll be writing every state senator and representative in the territory of the Archdiocese of Philadelphia to press them to support school vouchers. And I'll continue doing it until vouchers pass. I hope my brother bishops and pastors across the state will do the same. More importantly: Our Catholic people need to do the same. Elected officials do listen, and they act when the noise gets loud enough. If nothing else, the crisis of Philadelphia's Catholic schools is an unpleasant but finally very healthy wake up call. The bill for our failure to pass school choice over the past decade has come due. Now we're paying for it.
When vouchers stalled, yet again, in the Pennsylvania house last fall, a frustrated Catholic school teacher friend of mine said "Catholics are suckers." I don't believe that. But then, I'm new in town. If we Philadelphia Catholics love our Catholic schools, and we obviously do, then the time to get active and focused is now. We need to begin pressing our state lawmakers to pass the school choice legislation — including vouchers and expanded EITC credits — that's currently pending in Harrisburg. And we need to do it this week, today, right now. I plan to do that. I hope you'll join me.
For more information on school choice, and to contact your legislator, please visit: http://tinyurl.com/PASchoolChoice
PREVIOUS: Message from Archbishop Chaput: Amelia Rivera, the disabled and the sanctity of life
NEXT: Special Action Alert: HHS ruling flawed and dangerous; Archbishop Chaput calls on Catholics to pray, act for religious liberty
24 Responses
Thank you, Archbishop Chaput, for you courage. There is nothing in our Catholic Faith that precludes us from being good citizens because as Catholics we recognize that the purpose of our unalienable Right to Life, to Liberty, and to The Pursuit of Happiness, is what God intended.


text:
Create a Website Account - Manage notification subscriptions, save form progress and more.
46.2-1095. Child restraint devices required when transporting certain children; safety belts for other children less than sixteen years old required; penalty.
Show All Answers
The Sheriff always enjoys getting feedback from citizens, especially when an employee has performed in an exceptional manner. If you would like to recognize an officer, or other employee, for a job well done, please feel free to inform the Sheriff in whatever method of correspondence is most convenient. View contact information for the King George County Sheriff's Office, whether you prefer to write a letter, send an email, or call the Sheriff.
If you wish to make a complaint about the actions of a deputy or about any aspect of deputy operations, please:
46.2-1156.1. Transportation of persons less than sixteen years old in pickup truck beds prohibited; exception. No person under sixteen years of age shall be transported in the rear cargo area of any pickup truck on the highways of Virginia. The provisions of this section shall not apply to transportation of persons in the bed of any pickup truck being operated:
46.2-1052. Tinting films, signs, decals, and stickers on windshields, etc.; penalties.
Copies of reportable accidents can be obtained in person, by written request or faxed if the number is local from the Administrative/Records Office. There is no fee for this service.
A local records check of KG Sheriff's Office records only, may be obtained with a picture identification at no charge at the Administrative/Records Office.
Concealed weapon application and fees are handled through the KG County Circuit Court Clerks Office, view the Virginia State Police Forms website.
The Administrative/Records Office is open for business, Monday through Friday, from 8:30 a.m. to 4:30 p.m. The 911 Communications Center is open 24 hours a day, seven days a week. The Sheriff's Office may be contacted at 540-775-2049.
46.2-1054. Suspension of objects or alteration of vehicle so as to obstruct view of driver. It shall be unlawful for any person to drive a motor vehicle on a highway in the Commonwealth with any object or objects, other than a rear view mirror, sun visor, or other equipment of the motor vehicle approved by the Superintendent, suspended from any part of the motor vehicle in such a manner as to obstruct the driver's clear view of the highway through the windshield, the front side windows, or the rear window, or to alter a passenger-carrying vehicle in such a manner as to obstruct the driver's view through the windshield. However, this section shall not apply (i) when the driver's clear view of the highway through the rear window is obstructed if such motor vehicle is equipped with a mirror on each side, so located as to reflect to the driver a view of the highway for at least 200 feet to the rear of such vehicle or (ii) to safety devices installed on the windshields of vehicles owned by private waste haulers or local governments and used to transport solid waste. (1960, c. 122, 46.1-291.1; 1972, cc. 8, 844; 1987, c. 135; 1989, c. 727.)
To obtain a copy of an incident report (burglary, larceny, destruction of property, etc) that happened at your home or business, submit a written request to the Administrative/Records Office containing the incident details (date, time, incident/case number, etc), or request in person with a picture identification at no charge.


text:
Nathan Lyon ('94)
NewsIf you want to learn how to cook a healthy, mouthwatering meal, Nathan Lyon is just the person to help you out. This JMU alum, celebrity chef and TV culinary host has a powerful message. "Great food starts fresh, and the fresher the ingredients, the better the meal," he says, encouraging the audience to make healthier food choices. Since beginning his culinary career in his grandmother's kitchen, Nathan has always appreciated the value of fresh, seasonal ingredients. Classes at JMU in anatomy, physiology and biology brought the realization that "the simple act of eating fresh, unadulterated food is good, preventive medicine. Why not stay healthy in the first place? Certainly pills don't taste as good as seasonal produce," says Nathan. While backpacking through Europe after graduation and seeing firsthand the reverence for fresh, locally produced foods in marketplace after marketplace, he was convinced that great food yields good health. Now, in his dynamic television show, he has the opportunity to help Americans understand that food is not only one of life's pleasures but also a key to better health. Surrounded by the sweet aroma of success, Nathan keeps it simple: "Good health and good food just seemed like the perfect match. Everyone has to eat, I just want people to eat well."
"Buying locally grown, seasonal food not only supports one's community, but the food just tastes better, often costs less, and given the close proximity from which the food is harvested, is even better for the environment."