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Gompf's ID Pearls 3.0 A Learning Tool about Pestilence & Contagion, for the Infectious Diseases Fellow… & Anyone Else with a Morbid Interest in the Peculiar By Sandra Gonzalez Gompf, MD Contributing Editors: John F. Toney, MD Elvis Castillo, MD Laura Blood, MD Christian Perez, MD GOMPF'S ID PEARLS 3.0 – 3rd Edition Copyright В© 2004, 2007, 2011, 2014 by Sandra G. Gompf All rights reserved. No part of this publication, or the logo, may be reproduced or transmitted in any form or by any means, electronic or mechanical, including photocopy, recording, or any information storage and retrieval system, without permission in writing from the publisher. Electronic or print versions of this publication or logo, whole or in part, regardless of the means by which they are acquired, remain the intellectual property of the author and publisher, and may not be reproduced, transmitted, or distributed for personal gain, subject to federal Copyright Law. Made in the United States of America. Contents FRONTMATTER ACKNOWLEGEMENTS & IN MEMORIAM THE INFECTOLOGIST'S DICTUM ANTIBIOTICS BACTERIA VIRUSES FUNGI PARASITES FEVER & SEPSIS BONE GASTROENTERIC GYNECOLOGIC & UROLOGIC EYE HEAD & NECK CARDIAC LUNG OBSTETRICAL & NEONATAL SKIN & SOFT TISSUE SEXUALLY TRANSMITTED DISEASES (STDs) CLUES TO NON-INFECTIOUS & INFLAMMATORY CONDITIONS IMMUNODEFICIENCY & CANCER HUMAN IMMUNODEFICIENCY VIRUS (HIV) GENOMICS & INFECTION TRAVEL & GEOGRAPHICALLY-ASSOCIATED ILLNESS BY SYNDROME MISCELLANY IMAGES REFERENCES FRONTMATTER THE LOGO: the blue lotus - Perfection, knowledge, wisdom, eternal rebirth, perseverance the pearls - Droplets of wisdom, or perhaps, chains of cocci! the arrangement of the pearls - evokes the "gesture of discussion", or the Vitarka mudra, a hand gesture wherein the right thumb and forefinger are brought together, with the other fingers straightened. It signifies discussion and teaching in Buddhist traditions. a "g" in "American Typewriter" font - In honor of the original typed pages of the "ID pearls". HOW TO USE THIS DOCUMENT: This document was initiated several years ago as a 20-page handout of teaching points by Dr. John T. Sinnott. Around 2000, I picked it up, transcribed it into electronic form, and began attaching more pearls and board-relevant information, along with bits of knowledge gleaned from the literature that I have found to be of clinical use. It is meant to be a tool for study and review. On occasion, I use it on rounds as a reference. The Pearls is by no means an exhaustive overview of the subjects it covers, nor is it meant to be. It is "peer-reviewed" by my (brilliant) ID fellows and colleagues. I have tried to provide the evidence behind the Pearls as much as possible in the References. Some of it is just plain attending experience that you won't find in a textbook (the true "pearl" and the Art of medicine). This tool is a "living document", so if you should find an error, your comments will be most appreciated. Please include any relevant references to back you up. Any suggestions as to format and organization are also welcome. ACKNOWLEGEMENTS & IN MEMORIAM Philip T. Gompf Memorial Fund: http:/hsc.usf.edu/medicine/internalmedicine/infectious/news/ Foundatio n_Gompf.htm I offer my humble appreciation to Dr. John T. Sinnott, who has been my dear friend and mentor for many years, and to Drs. John Toney, Richard Oehler, John Greene and Frederick Heinzel. All have played roles in starting and/or perpetuating this teaching tool, as well acting as my ongoing sources of wisdom (both personal and clinical). To my contributing editors, Dr. Elvis Castillo, and medical students Laura Blood and Christian Perez, I offer my gratitude, as well as my admiration for your intellectual curiosity and generous desire to share knowledge with others. The obligation and joy of the doctor (from the verb "docere" in Latin), is to teach the Art, after all. I offer humble gratitude for my middle child, Philip T. Gompf, who battled fulminant infection and lost. My beautiful, brilliant boy died of amoebic meningitis in 2009, at the age of 10, after tubing in a central Florida lake in summer. May my life and work and every breath that I take honor Life in your name, my cherished son, and your dear siblings, who deeply miss you. You are always present in my days. I offer deepest gratitude for my husband, Dr. Timothy Gompf, a man of singular integrity, sensitivity, and remarkable patience. He is my anchor and my harbor from every storm we have ever faced. Sandra Gonzalez Gompf, MD, FACP, FIDSA Associate Professor, Division of Infectious Diseases and International Medicine, University of South Florida College of Medicine THE INFECTOLOGIST'S DICTUM Seek and you will find it. That which goes unsought will go undetected. Sophocles 496-406 BC ANTIBIOTICS What is the First Law of Antimicrobial Use? Antibiotics are not antipyretics. If you wish to treat a fever, use something else. – Larry Lutwick, MD, Dr. Schmeckman's Ten Commandments of Antimicrobial Use Four considerations when choosing an antibiotic: TASC Toxicity Activity Spectrum Cost Causes of antibiotic-related acute renal insufficiency: • • • • Aminoglycosides--acute tubular necrosis (ATN), nonoliguric renal failure Amphotericin B--distal renal tubular acidosis, microischemia, medullary necrosis - hypocalcemia, hypomagnesemia Acyclovir/sulfas-intratubular obstruction by crystalsHYDRATE patients first Nafcillin/oxacillin-acute interstitial nephritis • • • Trimethoprim-artifactual, reduced creatinine excretionCr elevation/high K+ Vancomycin - non-oliguric renal failure (uncommon unless peak levels > 50) Colistimethate (colistin) - oliguric renal failure What is the mechanism of action, microbial spectrum, and resistance mechanism of povidone-iodine? • • • • • Mechanism of action: Iodophors release negatively charged free iodine. Free iodine electrophilically binds to enzymes in the respiratory metabolic chain and cell wall proteins in bacteria and fungi (direct killing); it binds hemaglutinins in viruses (prevents binding and infection of cells). More specifically, free iodine substitutes covalently for hydrogen in any available – OH, -SH, -NH, and –CH moieties. Kills most pathogens within 15 seconds to 3 minutes of continuous contact. Drying of the solution on skin permits extended microbicidal action. It may be used in wounds, however, iodine toxicity may occur with extensive area of coverage. Microbial spectrum: Broad—many bacteria, fungi, protozoa, Mycobacteria, Nocardia, and viruses. Includes Clostridia, but requires several hours of contact to kill these pathogens. Resistance mechanism: None known, as the mechanism of action is not specific to a single metabolic action, and even low concentrations of free iodine are microbicidal. Note: Free iodine may react with many substrates, and the presence of protein, sulfur compounds (e.g. silver sulfadiazine in a wound), and chlorhexidine may interfere with the effectiveness of povidone iodine. A patient in the postoperative/recovery unit is difficult to extubate. Which antibiotic is most likely to blame? • • Gentamicin/aminoglycoside - impairs Ca++ release at myoneural junction, thus may cause neuromuscular blockade either alone or in combination with neuromuscular blocking agents like succinyl choline o give Ca++ intravenous to reverse Colistimethate/colistin, erythromycin, and clindamycin can do the same. Which antibiotics may exacerbate myasthenia gravis? • • • • • Aminoglycosides Flouroquinolones (inhibit GABA receptor interactions) Colistimethate/colistin Erythromycin Clindamycin Which antibiotics produce otoxicity? What is the mechanism and manifestation? • • • Vancomycin Aminoglycosides Macrolides Irreversible cytotoxicity to sensory hair cells of the cochlea and vestibular apparatus. The initial manifestation is high frequency hearing loss or tinnitus, progressing to complete hearing loss unless drug is discontinued early. Imbalance is also common. Risk factors include advancing age, renal impairment, and high dosage, but damage may occur at therapeutic drug levels. As drug accumulates in the cochlear fluid, ototoxicity may manifest up to 6 months after discontinuation. [Williams JD. Int J Antimicrob Agents 2001;18:Suppl 1:S77-S81; Rubinstein E. Int J Antimicrob Agents 2001;18:Suppl 1:S71-S7; Selimoglu E. Curr Pharm Des. 2007;13(1):119-26; Forouzesh A, et al. Antimicrob. Agents Chemother. 2009;53(2): 483-486.] Your patient is receiving daptomycin for MRSA osteomyelitis, currently in week 4, as well as fluconazole that he started last week for thrush. He comes into clinic complaining of shortness of breath and fever the last 2 days. What adverse effect might he be having, and what is the culprit? Eosinophilic pneumonitis. Daptomycin is associated with an eosinophilic pneumonitis that may develop 2 or more weeks into therapy. Symptoms include dyspnea, fever, and pulmonary infiltrates that have a diffuse appearance like pulmonary edema. Diagnosis may be made by finding high serum IgE, or eosinophils in BAL fluid, lung biopsy, or even pleural effusion. Treatment is discontinuation of Daptomycin and a steroid taper. Pulmonary fibrosis may develop but the syndrome is mostly reversible. When do you use clindamycin vs. metronidazole in covering anaerobic infections? The old rule of thumb that clinda = "above the diaphragm" and metro ="below the diaphragm" is still helpful. • • Clindamycin covers both Gram + anaerobes such as Peptostreptococcus, Fusobacterium, Prevotella, Actinomyces, and Clostridial spp other than Clostridium difficile, as well as Gram – anaerobes such as Bacteroides spp. (may not cover in up to 25% of casesor strains with MIC >/= 8 mcg/mL) Metronidazole covers Gram – anaerobes such as Bacteroides fragilis and all Clostridia; it should not be used as monotherapy in aspiration pneumonia --failure rate of about 50 percent--& not in serious head & neck infections. It will cover gut anaerobes. What are the most common side effects of linezolid? • • • Thrombocytopenia after 1 week (neutropenia possible) Polyneuropathy Optic neuritis Which class of medications should be monitored closely while using linezolid and why? Serotonin reuptake inhibitor antidepressants (SSRIs). Linezolid is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI), like aged cheeses, red wine, beer, fermented foods, etcetera. MAOIs may interact with foods containing high levels of tyramine and increase biologic amines such as serotonin—i.e. due to serotonin syndrome. This may produce 1. hypertensive crisis (with possible myocardial infarction or stroke), or 2. delirium. May interfere with increase the levels of commonly prescribed serotonin reuptake inhibitors and induce serotonin syndrome. Which vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus is intrinsically resistant to quinipristin-dalfopristin? Enterococcus faecalis. When considering the use of dapsone on a patient, which test is recommended, who is at risk, and why? • • G6PD level G6PD deficiency is the commonest human mutation in the world and affects those of Mediterranean, South Asian, and African descent. Fava or broad beans have been known to trigger hemolysis (favism) in certain individuals since ancient times. Aside from dapsone, what else is known to induce hemolysis in G6PD-deficient individuals? • • • Infections Primaquine Fava beans, with or without a nice chianti :) How are inhaled aminoglycosides & colistin (colistimethate) dosed? • • • • Tobramycin 320mg IV solution nebulized Q8 hours Amikacin 500mg IV solution nebulized Q12 hours Colistin 75-150mg IV solution nebulized Q12 hours Monitor serum levels in renal insufficiency or if concomitant IV use. How are once-daily aminoglycosides dosed? • • • • Amikacin or Streptomycin 15 mg/kg IV Q24H Gentamicin or Tobramycin 5 mg/kg IV Q24H Above dose is for normal creatinine clearance over 80 cc/min; adjustments are needed for lower creatinine clearance. Trough level is checked after 1st does, it should be~ zero. How are intravenous colistin and polymixin dosed? • • IV colistin 2.5-5mg/kg/day Г· Q6-12 hours IV polymixin B 1.5-2.5mg/kg/day Г· Q6-12 hours How is trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole dosed intravenously and orally, and what doses are used for which conditions? Dosing IV dosing is based on the trimethoprim component: TMP/SMX IV solution = 16 mg TMP/mL(5 ml ≈ 50 mg) • DS TMP/SMX = 160 mg TMP/800 mg SMX • SS TMP/SMX = 80 mg TMP/400 mg SMX • • • UTI, mild skin & soft tissue infection (SSTI) o 5mg/kg/day IV TMP Г· Q6-8 hours ≈ TMP/SMX 10mL (100 mg) IV Q8 hours o = DS 1 tablet (or 20mL suspension, 160 mg) PO BID Moderate SSTI, nodular lymphangitis o 10mg/kg/day IV TMP Г· Q6-8 hours ≈ TMP/SMX 15mL (150 mg) IV Q8 hours o = DS 2 tabs (or 40mL susp, 320 mg) PO BID Pneumocystis jirovici pneumonia, pulmonary Nocardia o 15mg/kg/day IV TMP Г· Q6-8 hours ≈ TMP/SMX 20mL (200 mg) IV Q8 hours o = DS 2 tabs (or 40mL susp, 320 mg PO TID o = Pneumocystis jirovici pneumonia (21 days) o = Pulmonary Nocardia (4 wks then 15mL IV Q8 hours or DS 2 tabs PO TID x 6 months; serum sulfonamide levels need to be 100- 150 microG/mL 2 hrs after DS tabs dose) BACTERIA What's in a Gram stain and what does each reagent do? A Gram stain, developed by Hans Christian Gram in the 1800s, is a serial staining method differentiating types of bacteria under the microscope. "Gram positive" bacteria have higher peptidoglycan and lower lipid content in the cell wall than "Gram negative" bacteria, therefore taking up various reagents differently and permitting them to be easily distinguished when viewed under microscope. • • • • Crystal violet – purple – binds peptidoglycans Iodine – mordant forms crystal violet-iodine complex to prevent the stain being washed away with the solvent step, next Acetone/ethanol – decolorizes/removes excess crystal violet, fixes it to the Gram + cells (they dehydrate & shrink), & washes it out of Gram – cells, & removes Gram –вЂ�s lipids, which opens them up to take up the next dye. Safranin (or fuschin) – pink – taken up by the nowporous Gram –вЂ�, which can now be seen under the microscope What does it mean when Microbiology reports a "Gram variable" bacterium to you, what causes this stain pattern, and which bacteria should you cover? • Bacteria may inherently take up less crystal violet, or • • • undergo membrane changes with age that may change their uptake. Or you have overdecolorized your specimen (techs usually repeat to make sure). Anaerobes are often Gram "variable". Characteristically Gram +/variable organismsBacillus, Corynebacterium – often contaminants Some Gram – organisms – Acinetobacter (coccobacillus), less often Enterobacter/Klebsiella (patients on antibiotics) In CSF, consider Listeria that has been overdecolorized. Which Gram negative bacilli may poorly take up safranin on Gram stain? • • • Legionella Hemophilus Fuschin may stain these better. What is the HACEK (or HACEK, B.C.) group? Gram negative bacteria which are uncommon causes of intravascular infection and are difficult to culture (hold cxs 2 weeksminimum). Hemophilus spp Actinobacillus acetomycetamcomitans Cardiobacterium Eikenella Kingella Brucella Coxiella burnetti (Q fever) What is the ESKAPE group? The group of bacteriae that increasingly "escape" antibiotic therapy due to rising antimicrobial resistance, and which produce serious hospital- associated infections such as pneumonia, bacteremia, and urinary tract infections. New preventive and therapeutic approaches are necessary against these pathogens. Enterococcus faecium Staphylococcus aureus Klebsiella pneumonia Acinetobacter baumanii Pseudomonas aeruginosa Enterobacter species (E. cloacae or E. aerogenes are perhaps the most common) For which human pathogens are humans the only existing reservoir outside the lab? • • • • • • • • • • • • Mycobacterium tuberculosis Polio Malaria Syphilis Gonorrhea Meningococcus HIV Varicella zoster virus Herpes simplex Measles Mumps (And before it was eradicated in the wild, Smallpox) What are the SPICE/SPACEK organisms & why are they significant? What is the preferred treatment for them? SPACEK Serratia Pseudomonas/indole + Proteus Acinetobacter Citrobacter Enterobacter/E. coli Klebsiella • • • These organisms may all demonstrate resistance to beta lactams and may require carbapenem treatment. The SPACE organisms may produce inducible chromosome-based broad-spectrum beta lactamases as part of the Enterobacteriacae group, and resistance/failure may be induced during beta lactam treatment, even though they initially test susceptible. Preferred treatment in serious infection is a carbapenem (Primaxin/Merrem). E. coli and Klebsiella are the most common extended spectrum beta lactamase (ESBL) producers, so many labs screen those isolates if MIC for ceftazidime is >/= 2 microG/mL. Just remember that most Enterobacteriaceae should be suspect for ESBLs, & may require carbapenem treatment. Remember that Klebsiella also has a constitutive (or inherent) chromosome-based beta lactamase that confers resistance to ampicillin/ticarcillin, so these drugs are never a good choice for this bacterium. What is important to know about Acinetobacter baumanii complex bacteria? What is/are the antibiotics of choice? • In addition to being one of the inducible betalactamase producting "SPACEK" group above, • • Acinetobacter is intrinsically resistant to many antibiotics, especially all beta lactams and macrolides. Acinetobacter exists in soil and water, as well as healthcare facilities. Multi-drug resistant strains have been commonly isolated from military causualties in Iraq and Afghanistan; some isolates have been susceptible to meropenem, but not to imipenem. Antibiotics most often effective: o Meropenem o Colistin/Polymyxin B o Amikacin o Rifampin o Minocycline o Tigecycline Which bacteria are typically gas producers? • • • Anaerobes / Clostridia E. coli Klebsiella What organisms do you think of with waterborne infection? • • • • • • Yersinia (untreated drinking water) Aeromonas (trauma, reptile bites) Vibrio (salt water) Pseudomonas (hot tub folliculitis) Legionella (aerosols from air conditioning units, sources of standing water in institutions) Leptospirosis (hunting trips, swimming in lakes/rivers, • • • • • • • • Hawaii) Atypical mycobacteria (pneumonia due to aerosols from hot tubs, shower heads, faucets) Streptococcus iniae (cellulitis from whole tilapia fish) Naegleria fowleri (warm fresh water lakes, rivers, hot springs, tap water/neti pots/plumbing) Balamuthia mandrillaris (soil, still water, Hispanic ethnicity) Acanthamoeba (contact lens solution, lakes) Cryptosporidiosis (untreated drinking water) Cercarial dermatitis (avian schistosomes/allergic reaction) Schistosomiasis/bilharzia (Puerto Rico/Caribbean) What are the 2 commonest pathogens in the Nocardia genus & drug of choice? • Nocardia asteroides (lung/brain) o trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole o imipenem • Nocardia brasiliensis (lymphangitis/madura foot) o trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole o resistant to imipenem Which pathogens cause significant recreational water illness in the U.S., and which is tolerant to chlorine treatment? • Cryptosporidium (chlorine-tolerant, may live for days even in • • • • • properly chlorinated pools, commonest cause of diarrheal illness related to water recreation, 200% rise from 2004-2008) Norovirus (resistant to alcohol-based disinfectants; killed by 10% minimum sodium hypochlorite [bleach] solution). E. coli 0157:H7 Giardia (chlorine-tolerant, requires longer contact with chlorine than commoner pathogens) Shigella (preschool ages) Naegleria fowleri (chlorine-tolerant, requires longer contact with chlorine than commoner pathogens; rare but may be underdiagnosed, rapidly fatal, 100% mortality) Name the diseases caused by Listeria monocytogenes, common sources, and drug of choice. • • • • Gastroenteritis Meningoencephalitis Granulomatosis infantisepticum (spontaneous abortion/stillbirth due to disseminated Listeria; widespread micro abscesses/granulomas in the liver and spleen; abundant bacteria on Gram stain of meconium) Neonatal sepsis/meningitis - transplacental infection from maternal enteritis/bacteremia • From unpasteurized dairy products, soft cheeses, cold cuts/hot dogs/sausages-heat until steaming. • Treatment: Ampicillin, trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole Stenotrophomonas is resistant to which antibiotics, and what are the resistance mechanisms? Resistant to most antibiotics: • Carbapenems - intrinsic resistance due to impermeability of outer membrane; imipenem resistance is due to zinc-containing penicillinase • Beta-lactams/Monobactam - inducible L1 & L2 beta lactamases, intrinsically impermeable outer membrane • Quinolones - induced reduced permeability & efflux pumps • Aminoglycosides, Tetracyclines (not doxycycline, tigecycline) - unclear What antibiotics are most reliable for Stenotrophomonas infections? • Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole • Tigecycline/doxycycline • Ticarcillin-clavulanate (Ceftazidime, minocycline, quinolones sometimes) Name clinically important members of Enterobacteriaceae. Which are lactose fermenters? KEEP Klebsiella E. Coli Enterobacter Proteus All these are lactose fermenters. The Micro lab calls you to tell you that a blood culture you ordered yesterday is positive and the Gram stain reveals a "non-lactose fermenting, oxidase positive, Gram negative bacillus". Which pathogen should you make sure you are covering with your antibiotics, pending final identification? Pseudomonas. Can you name the gene cluster associated with vancomycin resistance in Enterococcus and S. aureus? The vanA gene cluster. Can you name the gene cluster associated with oxacillin (methicillin) resistance for methicillin-resistant S. aureus (MRSA)? MecA confers methicillin resistance. Which gene is related to S. aureus toxin-associated virulence? Panton-Valentine leukocidin or PVL gene. Your patient has endocarditis with methicillin-resistant S. aureus (MRSA). He is persistently bacteremic and/or febrile after 3 days IV vancomycin. What could be causing his failure to improve? • • An undrained focus of infection o Valve ring abscess o Septic emboli to lungs, spleen, joints, brain may organize into abscesses early or a few weeks into therapy o Infected vascular devices (i.e. pacer wires) Vancomycin "creep" (see next question) Describe "vancomycin creep" and when to suspect it. Vancomycin has served humanity for over 20 years (!) in the battle against resistant Gram positive organisms. However, there is evidence that serious MRSA infections may not respond to treatment as expected when MIC is at the higher end of the accepted susceptible range of up to 2.0 mcg/mL. Optimal antistaphylococcal activity of vancomycin requires an area under the curve (AUC)/MIC of at least 400 in S. aureus pneumonia and blood stream infections, and this concentration may not be safely achievable at MIC of 2.0 or greater. "Vancomycin creep" refers to a gradual small increase in automated culture systems MICs to vancomycin in S. aureus strains. The clinical failure may be more significant than this small increment might suggest. Suspect "vancomycin creep" if: • • MRSA MIC to vancomycin = 2.0 mcg/mL or greater (or even 1.0 if c) Persistent bacteremia, fever, or other signs of delayed control of MRSA infection, especially in the absence of undrained foci What can you do to confirm "vancomycin creep" and help guide antibiotic treatment? Ask the Microbiology lab to perform Epsilometer test (E-test) for vancomycin. Generally, E-test MIC = 1 dilution higher than Vitek/automated MIC; .i.e., E-test vancomycin MIC 2.0 = automated vancomycin MIC 1.0 mcg.mL = susceptible Pneumococcal meningitis is associated with what risk factors? • • • • • Sinusitis Otitis media Skull fractures / Facial fractures CSF leaks/post neurosurgery Cochlear implants Who is at risk for invasive pneumococcal disease (ENT, CNS or lung)? • • • • • • Sickle cell Hyposplenia (including polysplenia) Hypogammaglobulinemia Multiple myeloma Diabetics Alcoholics/cirrhotics What are the hypervirulent strains of Clostridium difficile and why are they important? North American pulsed-field type 1 (NAP1) - the first strain to appear in 2004 in Canada; so named because it is typed by pulsed-gel electrophoresis. Other NAP types and strains have been identified by researchers. These strains produce more severe colitis with higher morbidity and mortality than commoner strains and are spreading across North America and Europe. Commercial assays for C. difficile do not distinguish between hypervirulent and less virulent strains, thus treatment guidelines increasingly suggest hypervigilance and more aggressive treatment early into suspected colitis. The Hallmarks of Whipple's disease: (Tropheryma whippelii) Remember Mr. Whipple and his unfortunate compulsion? In case you are too young to recall, watch this. All Active Americans Mush Charmin Adenopathy Abdominal pain Arthritis Malabsorption - anemia, weight loss, diarrhea Confusion - cognitive dysfunction, oculomasticatory & oculofacial-skeletal myorhythmia are pathognomonic Treatment: Initially Ceftriaxone + Streptomycin, then trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole x 1 year. How is Whipple's disease diagnosed? What other infectious agent is it related to? • • • Histopathologically, by observing Periodic Acid Schiff (PAS) stained material (the bacilli themselves) in the lamina propria of small bowel/duodenum. CSF cytology (& if available, PCR) should be performed if neurologic symptoms. (PCR of saliva & stool, though not sensitive for localized Whipple's infection, is available in Europe & in research settings.) It is in the same Family as Actinomyces. General guidelines for managing Staphylococcus aureus bacteremia: Try to find removable/drainable focus: • CT abdomen/pelvis • 2D Echocardiogram/Transesophageal Echocardiogram • Remove intravenous catheters & culture tips • Look for prosthetic devices • Look for recent (non-epithelialized) vascular grafts • Is there a removable focus? • NO: 4-6 weeks antibiotics • YES, is there a murmur (some would add prosthetic devices & vascular grafts)? o NO: 2 weeks intravenous antibiotics o YES: 4-6 weeks intravenous antibiotics What are classic features associated with Staphylococcus aureus infections? • • • • Golden yellow pus (aureus = "gold") Desquamation of palms and soles Toxic shock / severe illness Predilection for seeding o Lines o Devices o Valves o Joints & abnormal bone (arthritis, scar) – & it may occasionally coexist in bone with TB/atypical mycobacteria!) Which Gram + organisms are intrinsically resistant to Vancomycin? • • • Leuconostoc Lactobacillus Propionobacterium • • • • Pediococcus Non-difficile Clostridia Erysipelothrix VREnterococcus, VRStaphylococcus aureus What is characteristic about the manifestations of tuberculosis (TB)/Mycobacteria? • • • Chronic presentations Cold abscesses/painless pus (monocytic, granulomatous inflammation, not neutrophils) Sterile pyuria (TB) Most of the non-tuberculous mycobacteria are resistant to which anti-tubercular agent? Pyrazinamide (PZA) Can you name the Mycobacterium species that are "rapid growers"? • • • M. fortuitum M. abscessus M. chelonae Cultures may be positive within 2 weeks. What is BCG & why is it important? • • • • • BCG (Bacille-Calmette-Guerin) bacillus is used to immunize infants/young children in developing countries to prevent TB meningitis. It does not protect against TB infection, and latent infection with TB will occur regardless of BCG status. But for 5-10 yrs after vaccination, the PPD is + & there is much confusion about what it means. Prior BCG vaccination does not cause a PPD > 20mm—that is very likely latent TB. A + PPD in the setting of prior BCG vaccination must be treated as if the patient never had a BCG (i.e., BCG status is irrelevant) because you cannot rule out latent TB infection. What are the manifestations of extrapulmonary TB? CNS • ENT • • • Chest • GI GU meningitis (basilar meningitis, CN palsy, chronic process) laryngeal (HIGHLY contagious!) chronic/painless otitis adenopathy: cervical/SC/axillary adenitis (Scrofula) • fibrosing mediastinitis/SVC syndrome (mimics Histoplasmosis) constrictive pericarditis • • • enteritis peritonitis mesenteric adenitis (mimics Crohn's, Yersinia) • • • Bone • • Skin • • sterile pyuria/renal prostatitis uterine osteomyelitis/septic arthritis vertebral osteo (Pott's disease) erythema induratum (Bazin's disease-back of leg) prosector's wart How many organisms must be present on a sputum specimen for the acid fast bacillus (AFB) smear to be +? 10,000/cc sputum How many TB organisms must be inhaled for infection to occur? 10-100 A patient with negative sputum AFB smears whose AFB cultures later grow TB is infectious. True/False? False. Three consecutively negative AFB smears generally is accepted as indicating that a patient is not coughing up enough AFB to be infectious & can come out of isolation. What are the standard first-line anti-tubercular agents and which are available intravenously (IV)? • • • • • Isoniazid (INH) - IV Rifampin - IV Ethambutol Pyrazinamide Streptomycin – IV What are the second-line anti-tubercular agents, IV availability, and unique features? • • • • • • • • Rifabutin – similar to Rifampin with longer half-life, less interaction with antiretrovirals & cyclosporine Cycloserine –bacteriostatic, central nervous system toxicity /seizures limits use Ethionamide – bacteriostatic Para-aminosalicylic Acid (PAS) – inhibits folic acid pathway/bacteriostatic large oral dose, poor GI tolerance Clofazamine – bacteriostatic – fatty tissue deposition/orange skin Quinolones – inhibits DNA gyrase/replication, IV or oral, risk of arthropathy/tendon rupture & poor absorption with concurrent calcium intake/antacids Other aminoglycosides (kanamycin, capreomycin) – IV only, nephrotoxicity Linezolid What are the mechanisms of action, phase of activity, and possible delivery mechanisms of the anti-tubercular drugs: rifampin, isoniazid (INH), ethambutol, and pyrazinamide (PZA)? • • • • • Isoniazid (INH) – inhibits mycolic acid/cell wall synthesis – active replication phase- bacteriCIDAL Rifampin – inhibits DNA-dependent RNA polymerase/RNA synthesis – slow or intermittent replication phase – bacteriCIDAL Ethambutol – inhibits glucose incorporation/cell wall synthesis – replication phase – bacterioSTATIC, prevents resistance when given with INH and Rifampin Pyrazinamide – inhibits ribosomal protein S1 (RpsA), which acts during ribosome-sparing protein – translation, i.e. permits killing of intracelluliar organisms that are not actively replicating & in acidic environment – early replication phase/nonreplicating phase - bacteriCIDAL Streptomycin – aminoglycoside, inhibits protein synthesis – active replication in EXTRAcellular organisms – bacteriCIDAL What must you NEVER do when considering changes to an anti- tubercular regimen that is clinically failing? • • NEVER add a single agent to a failing regimen (selects for resistance). NEVER fail to address adherence to therapy—the patient should receive directly observed therapy (DOT), which may require unusual accomodations to make this possible, while allowing the patient to work, etc, so that other factors contributing to TB infection do not worsen (such as money for food, housing, etc) VIRUSES Can you name the mutation involved in acyclovir resistance in herpes simplex? Thymidine kinase-deficiency. Name 5 CNS-related varicella zoster complications. • • • • • Ramsey Hunt syndrome (zoster of the geniculate ganglion presenting as vesicles in the internal or external ear or palate or tongue associated with cranial nerve VII palsy) Transverse myelitis Encephalitis Small vessel disease encephalitis (HIV infected patients) Large vessel vasculitis (granulomatous arteritis; acute stroke weeks or months after zoster ophthalmicus) What is the difference between encephalitis and meningitis (pathologically and clinically)? Meningitis – inflammation of meninges; fever, headache, photophobia (esp viral) • Nuchal rigidity or opisthotonus • Brudzinsky sign = • Kernig's sign = • Fever with stiff neck = rule out meningitis! Encephalitis – inflammation of cerebral parenchyma • Fever • Delirium/mental status change • Focal neurologic (stroke-like) findings on exam • i.e. fever with stroke-like symptoms = rule out encephalitis! Both are medical emergencies and require prompt empiric treatment for suspected pathogens, regardless of whether lumbar puncture is performed Name 1 antiviral agent indicated for the treatment of novel Influenza virus H1N1. oseltamivir Which virus loves the temporal lobes? Herpes simplex virus 2 Which virus causes Mollaret's recurrent aseptic meningitis? Herpes simplex virus 1 and 2 Which virus is notorious for causing persistent arthralgias or arthritis weeks or even month after infection? • • Chikungunya virus Mimics dengue virus in early stages Can you name two disease associated with HHV-8? • • Kaposis sarcoma Primary effusion cell lymphoma What childhood vaccination (other than varicella) is important to update (give a booster) in adults? • Measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) vaccine o In adults born after 1957 or who may have received an ineffective killed vaccine between 1963 and 1967 and never got another booster. o The latter group is at risk for atypical measles infection. o Adults born before 1957 are presumed to have been exposed to measles and have long-term immunity. o Give 2 doses of MMR to  Women of childbearing age  Healthcare workers  Travelers who don't have proof of immunization after 1967 • Update Tetanus-diptheria every 10 years o Update all adults: TdaP once What is atypical measles? A syndrome of hypersensitivity polyserositis as a result of the formation of non-protective measles antibodies in adults born after 1957 who received ineffective killed MMR vaccine What are the complicatiosn of measles and how often do they occur? 30% of measles cases develop one or more complications: • Ear infections - 1 in 10 measles cases, permanent loss of hearing may occur. • Pneumonia -1 in 20 children, often cause of death • Encephalitis – 1 in 1000 children (siezures, deafness, brain damage) • Death – 1-2 in 1000 children • Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) o 4-11 cases of SSPE per 100,000 (U.S. outbreak 1989-1991); risk correlates with younger ages of measles o Progressively fatal, degenerative neurologic disease o Begins 1 month – 27 years after infection (average 7 years) o Average survival 1-2 years o Brain tissue of SSPE patients + wild-type measles virus. There is no evidence that measles vaccine can cause SSPE. What noninfectious diseases are associated with HTLV-1 infections? • • • • • Adult T cell leukemia/lymphoma Tropical spastic paraparesis or HAM (HTLV-1 associated myelopathy) SjГ¶grens Polymyositis Uveitis What infectious diseases are associated with HTLV-1 infections? • • • • Crusted (Norwegian) scabies Strongyloides hyperinfection Tuberculosis Extensive tinea corporis Lab test to diagnose HTLV-1 infections: • • HTLV-1 Ab Western blot with RIPA How is HTLV-1 transmitted & where is it endemic? It's a retrovirus like HIV, endemic to SE Asia • Blood products • Sexual contact • Vertical transmission (breast milk) Manifestations of tropical spastic paraparesis: • • • • • Lower extremity weakness Ataxia Bladder dysfunction Spasticity of lower extremities Increased knee & ankle reflexes What 6 diseases does Adenovirus produce? • • • • • Pharyngoconjunctival fever (pools) Epidemic conjunctivitis/keratitis (pools) Acute respiratory disease (severe, epidemic URI-boot camp) Acute hemorrhagic cystitis (boys < 15 years old, selflimited) Gastroenteritis/?associated with intussusception Adenoviral infection/FUO in transplant patients What physical finding is pathognomonic of Adenoviral conjunctivitis/pharyngoconjunctival fever" Pre-auricular lymphadenopathy (Gonococcal/chlamydial conjunctivitis do this also, but less common & associated with sexual activity) With what active infections may adenovirus also be cultured? • • Epstein Barr Virus infection in immunocompromised individuals Bordetella pertussis (whooping cough) Significance of the association is unclear, but co-infection might contribute to hemorrhagic features in gastroenteritis. Which viruses produce hemorrhagic cystitis? • • Adenovirus (commonest in healthy boys, self-limited) BK virus (post-transplant) For which conditions does Yellow Fever Virus pose a serious risk? • • • • Thymus-related disorders o Myasthenia gravis o DiGeorge syndrome o Thymoma o Thymectomy HIV disease, symptomatic OR CD4 <200/mm3 or <15% o If travel to a yellow fever–endemic area cannot be avoided by a person, a medical waiver should be given, and the patient counseled on protective measures against mosquito bites. Primary immunodeficiencies Secondary immunodeficiency due to medications or immunomodulatory treatment • • Malignancy Solid organ or hematologic transplantation What 6 diseases does Parvovirus B-19 cause? • • • • • • Erythema infectiosum/Fifth disease Abortion, fetal hydrops Chronic infection in the immunosuppressed Arthropathy (commonest manifestation in adults) Anemia in Sickle Cell disease Possibly chronic fatigue/FUO (+blood PCR) Diagnosis: IgM, 4x rise in IgG drawn 2 weeks apart; giant pronormoblasts on Bone Marrow biopsy What diseases does HHV-6 cause? • • Exanthem subitum or Roseola infantum - high fevers in a generally comfortable child, followed by defervescence and a rash Fever in post-bone marrow transplant patients What does JC virus cause and what are the typical findings that suggests it? • Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML) in AIDS (progressive dementia, neurologic decline, death within 1 year) • • • • • HIV disease with absolute CD4 < 100 cells/mL Focal parieto-occipital signs, insidious over weeks & progressive, similar to stroke gait abnormalities aphasia diplopia What disease processes is Epstein-Barr virus associated with? • • • • Acute infectious mononucleosis (primary EBV infection; fevers, exudative pharyngitis, splenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, hepatitis, profound fatigue-which may be the most salient symptom in adults, resolves in several weeks) X-linked Lymphoproliferative Syndrome (fatal mono in genetically predisposed boys) Oral hairy leukoplakia (in AIDS) Exceedingly rare: "Chronic" EBV infection (usually immunosuppressed) [EBV does not cause chronic fatigue syndrome.] What malignancies are associated with EBV? • • • • • • • B-cell lymphoblastic lymphomas Burkitt's lymphoma AIDS-related B cell lymphoma Nasopharyngeal carcinoma Post-transplant lymphomas (esp after OKT3, antilymphocyte therapies) Some T-cell lymphomas ? Hodgkin's lymphoma Is acyclovir or other antivirals useful in EBV-associated diseases? NO. Because disease manifestations of EBV, including acute mono, are related to immune activation (B-cell and T-cell activation). By the time symptoms begin, much of viral replication has resolved. What virus causes rabies, how is it transmitted, and what tissue finding is diagnostic? • • • • Viruses of the genus Lyssavirus. Contamination of wounds or mucosa by the saliva of a rabid (encephalitic) animal. The "Negri body", or viral inclusion of rabies, is seen in the cytoplasm of neurons on brain biopsy. Rabies virus antibody appears in blood within approximately 2 weeks of infection. What species are most likely to transmit rabies in the United States? Elsewhere in the world? . • • Wild - Bats, raccoons, skunks, foxes Domestic – unvaccinated cats and dogs • World: Unvaccinated dogs, foxes What symptom heralds rabies while it is still treatable, before the onset of rabies encephalitis? • • • NONE. Rabies is almost 100% fatal at the first symptom, pain or paresthesias at the original site of inoculation. Prior to symptoms, however, it is almost 100% curable by vaccination and immune globulin. It is never too late to vaccinate and give immune globulin, unless symptoms have begun, in which case treatment may worsen outcome. Rabies may incubate without symptoms for months to a year typically, but cases have documented 6 years, rarely up to 20 years. How is rabies prevented? • • Pre-exposure prophylaxis with rabies vaccine. Post-exposure prophylaxis with rabies vaccine and rabies immune globulin. Who should receive rabies vaccine pre-exposure? • • • • Veterinary or animal care professionals and students Spelunkers Laboratory workers who may work with rabies virus Travelers from the U.S. to areas where rabies is endemic, especially if visiting areas where exposure is likely, or if staying 30 days or more How is rabies post-exposure prophylaxis determined? • • • • WASH VIGOROUSLY with soap & water, to reduce the inoculum If never vaccinated o Primary rabies vaccine series (refer to manufacturer recommendations for the vaccine formulation) o Human Rabies IG (as much as possible at and around the bite/exposure site) If prior vaccine BUT no booster in past 2 years o Booster series (refer to vaccine formulation) If prior vaccine & regular boosters every 2 years o None necessary, continue boosters as scheduled What animal bite poses a low risk for rabies? • • • • No mammalian bite is risk-free. However, squirrels are not associated with rabies transmission. And opossums are relatively immune to rabies, because their body temperature is too low for the virus to replicate. Non- mammals are not infected by and thus cannot transmit rabies. If an animal bite is provoked, then the risk of rabies is probably low. True or false? • • False! A human being is not a good judge of what is provocative to a wild animal, or even a domestic animal to whom the human is a stranger. Further a rabid wild animal may often be quite tame and docile at times, and is more likely to enter human habitats in its confusion than a healthy wild animal. Healthy wild animals do their best to avoid human activity. A fox, raccoon, skunk, or bat that is roaming human habitats in daylight should be considered rabid. A bat only transmits rabies if it bites. True or false? • • Not clear. Several cases of documented rabies have occurred with only a history of exposure to a bat without a recalled or visible bite. An encephalitic bat may land on a sleeping human and bite painlessly, because bat teeth are exceedingly small and sharp. A bat bite may never be noticed. There is also data to support aerosolization of rabies in caves and experimentally. A history of a bat discovered in a room with a sleeping person should be considered a rabies exposure regardless of a recalled bite. What is tetanus? • • Tetanus is a toxin-mediated disease due to toxinproducing Clostridium tetani contaminating a wound. It is characterized by severe and painful tetanic spasms of skeletal muscles of the entire body, unfortunately with a clear sensorium. Spasms begin in the masseter muscles of the jaw ("lockjaw"), and may progress to be so severe as to cause opisthotonus, tear muscles, or break bones. Drooling and loss of bowel and bladder • • • continence is common. Unless reversed by treatment, death occurs by anoxic brain damage due to asphyxia/airway obstruction during prolonged spasms, pneumonia/sepsis due to aspiration, and cardiac failure. Tetanus is an agonizing disease that kills 25% of its victims, more in the setting of infancy. Tetanospasmin enters the neuromuscular junction via blood and lymphatics, and reaches the central nervous system by retrograde axonal transport. It blocks release of gamma butyric acid (GABA) at the synapse, such that there is no inhibition of neuronal reflexes and spasm occurs unimpeded with even minimal stimulus. Which wounds are at risk for tetanus? Last tetanus vaccine over 5 years ago AND • Burns • Bites • Frostbite • Irregular wounds, such as blunt object, crush, blast, tear or avulsion • Wounds contaminated with foreign matter, especially soil • Wounds over 6 hours old • Wounds deeper than 1 cm In the developing world, where mothers are not vaccinated, neonatal tetanus is caused by contamination of the umbilical stump, especially with cutting of the cord with unsterile instruments; neonatal mortality is 14% due to tetanus. How is tetanus prevented? • • • • Pre-exposure prophylaxis is given as part of childhood primary vaccinations in the U.S., and is followed every 10 years with booster vaccine throughout adulthood. If a tetanus-prone wound occurs (see above), and over 5 years has passed since last vaccine, tetanus booster vaccine is given. If primary series was never received (there is a disturbing trend toward non-vaccination in developed countries where these scourges are not in the public consciousness), then tetanus IG should be given, as well as primary vaccination series. Neonatal tetanus is unknown in developed countries because mothers are vaccinated/immune, and because of attention to aseptic and sterile techniques at delivery. How are tetanus and rabies similar? • • • • • Drooling Generally clear sensorium in quiet periods Violent episodes—"furious" phase in rabies, tetanic spasm in tetanus Incubation may last weeks or several months from the time of exposure, which may not be recalled Preventable by post-exposure prophylaxis before onset of illness May be associated with bites FUNGI What fungal organisms are associated with iron overload states, & desferoxamine use? Mucormycosis (Rhizopus) -ALSO associated with diabetes Describe the microscopic appearance of Blastomyces (Blastomycosis) and name 4 organ systems it most often affects. • • • • • Micro - Broad-based budding yeast forms in tissue specimens. Lungs Skin GU-prostate, epididymis, testes Bone Describe the microscopic appearance of Coccidiomycosis. • • • Spherules containing many spores in tissue (yeast form). "Barrel shaped" beads in filamentous chains in culture (mold form) Severe biohazard in culture, handle only under appropriate hood! Describe the microscopic appearance of Histoplasmosis. Grouped clusters of yeasts that appear nucleated, often in a histiocyte or macrophage, in tissue. Describe the microscopic appearance of Cryptococcus. Individual yeasts, occasional pinched buds, with a fat capsule, in tissue or fluid smears. Describe the microscopic appearance of Sporothrix. "Cigar-shaped" yeasts in tissue. Describe the microscopic appearance of Paracoccidiodes. Large yeast with multiple buds off one central cell ("mariner's wheel") in tissue. Describe the microscopic appearance of Aspergillus. Acutely branching (45 degree angle) septate hyphae in tissue. Describe the microscopic appearance of Mucor. Broad asepstate hyphae branching at 90 degree angle in tissue. Describe the microscopic appearance of phaeohyphomycoses (dematiaceous fungi - produce black lesions.) Hyphae that look like fat beads strung together, or look pinched at intervals in tissue. What is characteristic for fungal endocarditis? • • Large vegetations Large arterial emboli (e.g. cold pulseless foot in an intravenous drug user) Fungal endocarditis is an absolute indication for valve replacement. Treat with intravenous amphotericin B and surgery ASAP. Who is at risk for fungal endocarditis? • • • • Intravenous drug user (20% of IVDU endocarditis is fungal) – Candida parapsilosis Immunosuppression - Aspergillus Post cardiac surgery – Candida species Burn patients What are the most serious complications of Candida bacteremia? • • Endophthalmitis (watch for visual loss, examine for retinal "cotton balls"- consult Ophthalmology STAT) Endocarditis/emboli What fungal complication may occur soon after resolution of neutropenia related to chemotherapy, especially for hematologic malignancy? Hepatosplenic candidiasis (a manifestation of immune reconstitution syndrome) Name 3 body sites were Candida lives as a colonizer without causing obvious infection? • • • Sputum/oropharynx Urine Stool Describe the microscopic appearance of Fusarium. Septate, non-pigmented (hyaline) hyphae and sickle- / bananashaped macroconidia with 3-5 internal segments. What should you suspect in a patient with AIDS and a history of travel to the Mid West/Ohio River Valley or Mississippi River Valley & how do you diagnose it? • • • • HistoplasmosisLymphadenopathy Hepatosplenomegaly Oral ulcers Toxic, septic • • • Also travel to/living in Caribbean, S. America Diagnosis: Histoplasma urinary or serum antigen Treatment: intravenous amphotericin B for 2 weeks then itraconazole oral Note: in normal hosts, Histo may also produce chronic indolent cavitary disease, lung nodules. Which fungi cause the true systemic mycoses (not necessarily opportunists), what is their US geographic preference/association, & drug of choice? • • • Histoplasmosis-bat guano/caves/pigeons; Ohio River & Mississippi River Valleys-Amphotericin B Coccidioidomycosis-soil/SW USfluconazole/itraconazole, Amphotericin B Blastomycosis-moist soil?/Midwest US/SE USitraconazole • Paracoccidioidomycosis-soil?/usually Latin America ("South American blastomycosis")-itraconazole Which fungi cause infection in patients who are ironoverloaded or have diabetes? Mucor/Rhizopus species. If ferritin level is high without other explanation (remember that ferritin is an acute phase reactant, rule out inflammatory causes), this may indicate a risk for these fungi. What are the antifungals and what organisms do they cover? • • • • • Fluconazole = yeasts, Crypto, NOT C. krusei/glabrata Itraconazole = yeasts, Histo, Crypto, Aspergillus Voriconazole = yeasts, Histo, Crypto, Aspergillus, Fusarium, NOT Mucor/Rhizopus Posaconazole = like vori + Mucor/Rhizopus Caspofungin/Micafungin/Anidulafungin = yeasts, Aspergillus, NOT Crypto/Fusarium/Mucor/Rhizopus Amphotericin = all, +/- Fusarium, NOT C. lusitaniae/guillermondi Which azole antifungals are antagonistic when combined with amphotericin? • • Itraconazole Ketoconazole What drugs do azole antifungals interact with? MANY. High risk include several anti-rejection drugs, statins, and antiarrhythmics. Develop a habit of using drug interaction software tools, mobile application, or textbook, if you do not have access to an electronic ordering system that automates this process. CAUTION especially in pro-arrhythmic states, QTc prolongation, heart disease. If prolonged treatment, may wish to consider baseline EKG for QTc interval & repeat every 2 weeks. Hold if QTc >/= 490 mm2. What formulations of amphotericin B are available and how are they dosed? • • • Conventional amphotericin B 1 mg/kg/day Liposomal amphotericin B 3-5 mg/kg/day IV o Treat rigors with meperidine 25-50mg IV x 1 o Hydrate w/ 500mg NS before & after, if creatinine rising Conventional amphotericin B bladder irrigations: o 5 mg/100mL D5W given via bladder irrigation catheter at 42mL/hour x 48 hours o Nebulized liposomal amphotericin B solution (50mg in 12mL sterile water, stable for 7 days), given as 25mg via jet nebulizer every 27 days depending on condition being treated; few instances of lipid accumulation/lipoidal pneumonitis; liposomal formulation yields higher and more persistent levels in bronchiolar secretions, up to 14 days. PARASITES Malaria is a "FAST" disease. Name its 4 hallmarks. Fever Anemia Splenomegaly Travel within past year to endemic area Black water fever refers to black/dark urine occurring during hemolysis periods of P. falciparum, esp with quinine/quinidine. Which Plasmodium is the worst to have? P. falciparum causes "malignant" malaria; banana-shaped gametocyte; parasitizes >4% of the RBC's (that's a lot!!). o >1 trophozoite per oil immersion field on a thick blood smear suggests 10% parasitemia-that's P. falciparum! o Multiply parasitized RBCs-that's P. falciparum! Peripheral or surface trophozoites-P. falciparum! No Schuffner's dots-P. falciparum! Treatment: Chloroquine or mefloquine (usually P. falciparum is chloroquine resistant except in Haiti); atovaquone/proguanil (Malarone) also approved for prophylaxis/treatment of P. falciparum. How does P. falciparum cause death? Hyperparasitemia (>250,000 RBCs parasitized/microL of blood on a thick smear) occurs, esp in travelers who have never been exposed to malaria. People who live in endemic areas are "semi-immune" & less likely to have hyperparasitemia/serious complications. This, along with the inherent stickiness/"knobbiness" of the trophozoites, causes sludging in arterioles/capillaries/massive hemolysis---diffuse cerebral ischemia is most life-threatening; watch for severe anemia, hypoglycemia, lactic acidosis (trophozoites use anaerobic glycolysis, which produces lactate; quinine derivatives stimulate islet cell insulin also), renal failure, hypoxia, also get diarrhea, late pulmonary edema/cardiac ischemia, etc. What are the complications of P. vivax/ovale? o o Severe anemia. These trophozoites aren't sticky & only parasitize young RBCs, so they don't produce the other complications of P. falciparum, they reproduce every 48 hours (thus fever occurs every 48 hrs as disease progresses, & they reproduce at a lower rate). Splenic rupture 2-3+ months after resolution (even with palpation on abdominal exam—be gentle). What are the complications of P. malariae? Immune complex glomerulonephritis. This is a low level parasitemia with few acute complications that may not be picked up for many years. Immune complexes are anti-parasite antibodies & P. malariae antigens. Which group of semi-immune individuals is at a similar risk of complications as non-immune individuals? Primagravidas. How do you estimate the level of parasitemia (parasite density)? Parasite density per microL = [Count # parasites/200 WBC in smear] X [Total WBC from CBC/200] o Estimate is done on a thick blood smear, which is viewed under oil immersion. o Blood smear should be spread just thin enough to read newsprint through it. o It takes 20 minutes to adequately review blood smears! P. falciparum = >250K parasites/microL o Parasitizes all ages of RBCs P. vivax/ovale = < 50K/microL o Parasitizes younger RBCs P. malariae = < 10K/microL o Parasitizes older RBCs In general, >1 trophozoite per oil immersion field = P. falciparum. How else do you tell the Plasmodiae apart? • • • P. falciparum-banana shaped gametocytes P. vivax/ovale-red Schuffner's dots in RBCs P. malariae-band-like gametocytes that stretch across the RBC How does sickle cell trait protect against P. falciparum? Malaria in the African continent is the predominant reason that sickle cell trait has persisted in humans, as an evolutionary advantage. The parasitized RBCs are sequestered in peripheral circulation and sickling there produces low oxygen, which inhibits P. falciparum growth. [Sickle cell trait also protects against Burkitt's lymphoma, which is endemic to equatorial Africa, in that chronic malaria also predisposes to Epstein Barr Virus infection. Brilliant!] Which Plasmodia may relapse up to 5 years after infection and why? P. vivax/ovale may manifest malaria several months after initial infection, due to a persistent hepatic cycle (non-replicating dormant stage—hypnozoite) after inadequate treatment during the initial phase. Primaquine is added to other therapy in order to cure the hepatic phase, otherwise it may persist for up to 30 years despite treatment. What are the vector, the manifestations, diagnostic tests, and treatment of leishmaniasis? • • • • Phlebotomine sandflies (Texas S. Asia/Middle East/Latin America) Cutaneous leishmaniasis - raised, pizza-like (red base, yellow exudates) lesions-destruction of central face (espundia, Latin America, L. brasiliensis) o Biopsy the border for amastigotes. Visceral leishmaniasis (kala azar) - incubation period 38 months, fever/massive hepatosplenomegaly/wasting o Biopsy the liver/spleen/BM for amastigotes Treatment: o Amphotericin B for cutaneous o If mucosal involvement/face, intravenous pentavalent antimony/stibogluconate; fluconazole 8 mg/kg/day demonstrated 100% cure of 28 patients at 4-6 weeks (Sousa AQ. CID 2011;53) What is Chaga's disease, the vector, diagnostic tests, and treatment? • Chaga's disease (Trypanosoma cruzi) • • • • C-shaped trypomastigotes in blood o acutely: RomaГ±a's sign (periorbital edema), fever, myocarditis o chronically: fever, hepatosplenomegaly, achalasia/megacolon, cardiomyopathy Vector: Reduviid (triatomid) bugs (Latin America/Texas) Diagnosis: acute (blood smear for trypomastigotes), chronic (ELISA) Drug of choice: Nifurtimox, benznidazole What are the 2 forms of African sleeping sickness, vector, diagnosis, and treatment? • • • • • Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense (East African form)EMERGENCY o Days to weeks: sudden high fever, myalgia, HA/somnolence/chorea, painless chancre at bite, coma/death without prompt treatment; increasing in travelers/safari vacations T. brucei gambiense (West African form) o Indolent o Weeks-months; somnolence/chorea/Parkinson's-like, prominent post cervical nodes (Winterbottom's sign), hepatosplenomegaly Vector: Tse tse fly (African safari) Diagnosis: thick & thin blood smear for trypomastigotes Drug of choice: Suramin, pentamidine (arsenic agents: melarsoprol/tryparsamide if CNS-get from CDC) What is important about Strongyloides infections? • S. stercoralis may persist in the host for decades via an autoinfection cycle where larvae that hatch in the intestine can reenter the bloodstream- enter lungs, are coughed up & swallowed, mature in GI tract, lay eggs, hatch larvae-and repeat cycle; interestingly, the larvae may also be excreted & have a fully independent life cycle in soil. • In the normal host, usually asymptomatic intestinal infection with peripheral eosinophilia. If heavy burden, wheezing/pneumonia (Loeffler's syndrome) may occur, as well as diarrhea, malabsorption, urticaria. • In immunocompromised hosts, hyperinfection syndrome occurs: o diffuse lung infiltrates o abdominal pain o meningitis o Gram negative sepsis (from gut penetration with larvae) o NO eosinophilia o Diagnosis: Think of this in the patient who is immunosuppressed, has features of the above, & has lived in the rural South or tropics. In hyperinfection syndrome, organism is found in blood, CSF, sputum/BAL, urine. Otherwise, stool O&P X 3 or Enterotest. o Treatment: thiabendazole x 2 d (2-3 weeks if hyperinfection). Best treatment for hyperinfection is avoidance by treating it before immunosuppression. Describe the 3 major nematodes acquired by fecal-oral ingestion. • Ascaris: (1 foot long pig roundworm), rural US/SE, malabsorption/steatorrhea, likes to obstruct biliary tree/small bowel; easy to see on O&P-large egg with • • rough coat; mebendazole 100mg oral BID x 3-5 days, repeat in 4 weeks x 3d Trichuris: (whipworm), rural SE US/Puerto Rico, iron deficiency, bloody diarrhea/rectal prolapse; O&Pfootball-shaped with plugged ends; mebendazole 100mg oral BID x 3-5 days, repeat in 4 weeks x 3d Enterobius: (pinworm) common in all social classes/children, extremely hardy in environment/sheets/dust, nocturnal perianal itching/nightmares; use clear tape on perianal area at night-small thready worms & oval eggs; treat entire family with mebendazole 100mg once a week x 2 weeks Which parasite can be carried by the above nematodes and cause concurrent infection with diarrhea, bloating, and abdominal pain? Dientamoeba fragilis. This amoeba was considered a commensal for some time. It is now clear that it requires a co-pathogen or symbiont to successfully infect. It is easily treated, however, it may cause unexplained relapses, because it will not clear until the underlying nematode infection is treated first. Check 3 stools for ova & parasites x 3 consecutive days. • If no travel & no + diagnosis, give mebendazole as for pinworm first (see preceding question). • If a traveler, give longer course mebendazole (see preceding question). • Treatment for D. fragilis: metronidazole 500mg PO TID x 10 days or iodoquinol 650mg PO TID x 20 days What are the hookworms & what do they cause? • • Necator americanus & Ancylostoma duodenale. Penetrate skin of feet ("ground itch"), enter lungs/trachea, are swallowed, attach to small intestine where they suck (a lot of ) blood/lay eggs. Major cause of iron deficiency worldwide. Easy diagnosis by stool O&P. Treatment with mebendazole x 3 days. Which roundworm/nematode causes periorbital edema & myalgias? • • • Trichinella spiralis, ingested as a cyst from undercooked (still pink) pork, bear, walrus; cougar jerky. Diarrhea, vomiting, abdominal pain, then o Orbital myalgia/periorbital edema/conjunctivitis o Myalgias, myocarditis-prolonged muscle weakness. o Eosinophilia/high CPK/low ESR Treatment with thiabendazole/mebendazole/albendazole (kills gut worms, not in muscle), otherwise supportive. What are the cestodes/tapeworms of major clinical significance & why? o Echinococcus (liver echinococcosis); sheepdogs in SW US/worldwide; surgical resection (do not spill cyst contents-anaphylaxis; in liver, cyst contents may be aspirated & ethanol injected to kill daughter cysts) o Taenia solium (neurocysticercosis); CNS lesions/seizures/paraplegia; diagnosis by MRI/serology; treatment with surgical resection, +/praziquantel, antiepileptics What are the flukes/trematodes of major clinical significance? • • • • Avian schistosomiasis-"swimmer's itch" in Great Lakes, self-limited Schistosoma (spp. mansoni/hematobium/japonicum) Cercaria in water enter skin, blood/liver/lung-larvae migrate to o Small bowel/superior mesenteric veins (S. japonicum) o Large bowel/inferior mesenteric veins (S. mansoni)-"bilharzia"  Fever, stool eggs, hepatosplenomegaly, non-cirrhotic portal hypertension  Tissue biopsy, serology o Bladder/bladder vein plexus (S. hematobium);  +eosinophilia, fever, urine/bladder wall eggs, hematuria, hydronephrosis, UTIs, painful ejaculation, bladder cancer Treatment with praziquantel x 1 day. Which nematode can cause sudden severe abdominal pain after a meal of undercooked fish or sushi? Anasakis. It can be removed via upper endoscopy. FEVER & SEPSIS Dr. John T. Sinnott's mnemonic for formulating a differential diagnosis in fevers (or almost anything in medicine!): Congenital Infection Neoplastic Endocrine Metabolic Autoimmune Toxic Vascular List 8 common sources of fever in an ICU patient: • • • • • • • • • Lines Lung (infection, atelectasis) Wounds Urine Urine (aka Wound, Water, Wind, Walk) Sinuses Prostate Candidemia Drugs 4 non-infectious causes of fever in an ICU patient: DAMP Drugs Addison's Myocardial infarction Pulmonary embolus • • • • • • What clues shout "Danger!" in the setting of fever? Petechiae/purpurae – think meningococcemia in the young—never ignore this! Headache – think meningitis Traveler – think malaria, east African trypanosomiasis (game park safaris) Rigors – think bacteremia/sepsis Asplenia – think overwhelming postsplenectomy sepsis—JUMP on this! Hypogammaglobulinemia – r/o sepsis What's the differential diagnosis for petechiae? • • • • • • • Coagulation disorder Platelet disorder (e.g. TTP. ITP, chemo-related) Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (23% mortality if treatment delayed > 5 days; other rickettsiae can cause petechiae, too) Meningococcemia/pneumococcal meningitis (high mortality) Endocarditis (acute/rapidly progressive Staphylococcus aureus can be deadly) Fat/cholesterol emboli Common causes of fever in burn patients: CPPP Suppurative chondritis Suppurative parotitis Prostatitis Phlebitis Endogenous pyrogens are soluble factors that induce fevers. Name 4 of these pyrogens. • • • • • Cachectin (tumor necrosis factor) Interleukin-1 Interferon-alpha MIP (Macrophage inflammatory protein) Prostaglandins are used as secondary mediators by these pyrogens and can be inhibited by PG inhibitors. Define "Fever of unknown origin" (FUO). List common causes with frequency of occurrence. • • • • • FUO = Temperature of 101 degrees Fahrenheit for 3 weeks with no diagnosis after 1 week intense evaluation. Infection (especially TB) - 30% Neoplasia (esp. leukemias and lymphomas) - 20% Misc. (drug fevers, PE, inflammatory bowel disease, temporal arthritis, Polymyalgia rheumatica, collagen vascular) 20% Undiagnosed - 15% Causes of a relative bradycardia (pulse-temperature deficit or Faget's sign (failure to increase pulse appropriately in the setting of fever -10 bpm/1 degree F above 98.6F): Classically: • Typhoid Fever (enteric fever, caused by Salmonella) • Legionellosis • Brucellosis • Leptospirosis • Psittacosis • Drug fever Also conduction disturbances with: • Beta blockers • Acute rheumatic fever • Lyme disease • Viral myocarditis • Infective endocarditis Common & overlooked causes of drug fever Anticonvulsants (Dilantin, Tegretol) Minocycline Other antibiotics (beta-lactams, sulfonamides and nitrofurantoin) Allopurinol Colace Heparin What is Dr. John T. Sinnott's differential diagnosis of sepsis syndrome? Tamponade Adult respiratory distress syndrome Myocardial infarction Pulmonary embolus Abdominal compartment syndrome When do you see abdominal compartment syndrome & why? • Increased pressure in a closed anatomic space threatens the viability of surrounding tissue and causes organ dysfunction. Failure to recognize the presence of intra-abdominal hypertension before ACS develops leads to hypo perfusion, multisystem organ failure, and mortality rates 40 - 100 %. • Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure and central venous pressure increase with rising intra-abdominal pressure (IAP), despite reduced venous return and cardiac output. • Abdominal compartment syndrome is seen with: • Massive volume resuscitation • Bowel obstruction • Pancreatitis • Massive ascites • Peritonitis • Intraperitoneal blood • Bowel distension or third spacing of fluids How do you measure IAP? • 50 mL of sterile saline is instilled into the bladder via the aspiration port of a Foley catheter with the drainage tube clamped. An 18-gauge needle attached to a pressure transducer is then inserted in the aspiration port, and the pressure is measured. • ACS is not present with a pressure < 10 mmHg and usually present with a pressure > 25 mmHg. What are the "great imitator" diseases in infectious diseases? • • • TB Syphilis HIV What are the causes of aseptic meningitis & their clues? Common: • HIV (early infection, before HIV antibody + check viral load or p24 antigen; test for HIV) • Enteroviruses (summer/fall) HSV (recurrent=Mollaret's) • Partially treated bacterial meningitis (prior oral/intravenous antibiotics) Less common: • Chickenpox (active disease) • TB (TB exposure/+PPD) • Brucella (goats/hooved mammals) • Lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus (hamsters, rodents) • Syphilis (STDs) • Lyme/human monocytic ehrlichiosis (ticks in endemic areas) What are the causes of recurrent aseptic meningitis? • • • • Mollaret's meningitis (classic, caused by HSV) Vogt-Koyanagi-Harada syndrome (aseptic meningitis, uveitis, 8th cranial nerve deficits) NSAIDS (especially in young women with lupus) Behcet's syndrome A black/necrotic lesion may be seen in: • • • • • • • Mold infections Ecthyma gangrenosa (Pseudomonas sepsis in neutropenics) Cutaneous anthrax (surrounded by gelatinous edema) Rickettsia conorii (tache noire) Meningococcemia/severe pneumococcal sepsis Herpetic/zoster infections Cholesterol emboli What organisms should you suspect with an exudative pharyngitis? • • • Group A streptococcus (very common) Epstein Barr Virus (infectious mononucleosis) – Group A Streptococcus can co-infect with mononucleosis Diphtheria (exudates grow together into a membrane that must be peeled off) -call health dept if suspected! What organisms should prompt a search for an underlying GI neoplasm? • • Streptococcus gallolyticus (formerly S. bovis) (bacteremia/endocarditis) Clostridium septicum (crepitant cellulitis without an entry point) General principles of using vaccines and IG: • • • • • IG and non-live vaccines should not be given together in the same site or syringe because the IG interferes with mounting of antibody response. Rabies vaccine & Rabies IG, Tetanus vaccine & Tetanus IG, Hepatitis B vaccine & Hepatitis B IG, Smallpox vaccine & Vaccinia IG are given simultaneously postexposure IG and LIVE vaccines should not be given together at all: o MMR & varicella may be given > 3 months after IG. IG may be given 2-3 weeks after MMR or varicella. o Cholera & Yellow Fever vaccines must be given 3 weeks apart. 2 or > live vaccines should be given simultaneously OR 4 weeks apart, except oral polio, oral typhoid, and Yellow Fever can be given at any time. Varicella IG is no longer given post-exposure unless an individual is non- immune & immunocompromised or pregnant. Vaccine is then offered postpartum or if /when immunosuppression resolves. • IG (aka, immune serum globulin, gamma globulin) contains specific amounts of antibody to measles, diptheria, and polio, variable amounts of hepatitis A & B, varicella, RSV, others. • Specific IGs include: Hepatitis B IG, Varicella zoster IG, rabies IG, and tetanus IG, and Vaccinia IG. BONE List the 3 basic types of osteomyelitis, their common bacterial etiology and cure rate: • • • Hematogenous - Staphylococcus - 90% cure Contiguous - 50% cure gram negatives and Staphylococcus (Staphylococcus aureus: 50-60%) Neurovascular - Anaerobes - 10% cure List 4 complications of osteomyelitis: • • • • • • Amyloidosis A-V fistulas Non-union of fractures (pseudo-carthorses) Squamous cell cancer in sinus tracts persisting over 20 years Limb shortening Gait disturbances What infection is most often associated with gouty arthritis flare? • • Staphylococcus aureus septic arthritis, as well as septic bursitis, especially with tophaceaous gout. Remember: Presence of crystals in joint fluid does NOT exclude bacterial arthritis! And not treating septic arthritis leads to permanent joint destruction, especially if caused by S. aureus! Both gouty flare and infection cause fever, leukocytosis, and elevated sedimentation rate because monosodium urate crystals intensely activate neutrophils to produce inflammatory cytokines such as interleukin-1 (IL-1). Tap the joint! [Yu KH, Luo SF, Liou LB, Wu YJ, Tsai WP, Chen JY, Ho HH. Concomitant septic and gouty arthritis--an analysis of 30 cases. Rheumatology 2003;42(9):1062-6; So A. [New knowledge on the pathophysiology and therapy of gout]. Z Rheumatol 2007;66(7):562, 564-7] What are possible infectious complications of compound (open) fractures? • • Gas gangrene (Clostridium perfringens spores from soil/gravel contamination) Acute (& often chronic) osteomyelitis Define discitis, the most likely pathogen, and drug of choice: • • • Discitis = inflammation or infection of an intervertebral disc space. Pathogen = Staphylococcus aureus in adults & children. Treatment = oxacillin/nafcillin. List physical findings as an epidural abscess enlarges: • • • • Localized pain/percussion tenderness Distal weakness/sensory aberrations-saddle anesthesia Urinary retention/bowel incontinence, later overflow incontinence Paralysis What organisms are fond of areas of bone trauma? • • TB Staphylococcus aureus GASTROENTERIC List 5 bacterial agents causing GI disease by toxin production, and give drug of choice for each. • • • • • Campylobacter fetus spp jejuni (Erythromycin/Quinolone) Clostridium difficile (metronidazole) Shigella (Quinolone) Salmonella typhi (Quinolone/ceftriaxone) Escherichia coli 0157:H7 (NO ANTIBIOTICS- may increase toxin production & risk of Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome!) List 3 invasive bacterial pathogens and the drug of choice for each. • • • Yersinia enterocolitica (Quinolone, Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole) Vibrio parahemolyticus (Quinolone-probably won't change course of illness) Vibrio vulnificus (cellulitis) (doxycycline & ceftazidime/cefepime) List 3 physical findings of enteric fever, agent responsible, and drug of choice for each. • • • • • Enteric fever with Salmonella typhi = typhoid fever. Pulse rate lower than expected for degree of fever (Faget's sign) Rose spots on thorax Splenomegaly Agent: Salmonella typhi, less commonly S. paratyphi or S. choleraesuis Treatment: Quinolone/Ceftriaxone. If shock, give Dexamethasone x 8 doses, starting before antibiotics to decrease mortality. An elderly patient presents to the urgent care clinic with watery stool for 4 days. He has not eaten any new foods, eats only thoroughly cooked meats and fish, no cold cuts, no travel recently. He admits to having "bronchitis" a month ago, for which he took 3 days of amoxicillin that he had "left over" at home. He feels weak but denies abdominal pain. What blood test may be helpful to you in determining what to do with him right now? • • • Serum leukocytes. Suspect Clostridium difficileAssociated Diarrhea (CDAD) in all cases of unexplained diarrhea and leukocytosis, especially severe Clostridium difficile if WBC over 20,000 or trending upward. The severity of today's Clostridium difficile may be under-appreciated even by ID clinicians. This risk is especially in patients who cannot communicate discomfort, such as those with spinal cord injury or very elderly. Clostridium difficile has become a very virulent pathogen and causes many cases of rapidly progressive, life-threatening Clostridium difficile in our center. Keep a high level of suspicion. Clostridium difficile should be considered in all cases where patients have received antibiotics within the • • prior 6 months. Empiric treatment with metronidazole 500mg PO TID before test results are available is very appropriate in suspected Clostridium difficile. Response to treatment may lag beyond 7 days, however keep a low threshold for escalation of treatment to begin IV therapy in suspected Clostridium difficile. Monitor patients for 7 days or until the patient is improving clinically. What clinical sign warrants escalating treatment from oral to IV in Clostridium difficile, and what is the treatment? • • • Abdominal tenderness (full-thickness colitis from the gut lumen to the visceral surface). Diarrhea may actually seem to resolve with progression to ileus.* IV metronidazole + PO vancomycin until WBC declining and abdominal tenderness resolves, then stop IV metronidazole and continue PO vancomycin tapering schedule for 6 weeks (See "Bakken protocol" below). Consider adding PO rifaximin x 2 weeks, IV immunoglobulin, or tigecycline if very severe illness. *Presence of a colostomy may delay consideration of Clostridium difficile. I find that many clinicians assume "the colon is gone", so Clostridium difficile isn't possible. Clostridium difficile often occurs in residual colon and rectum, as well as small bowel. The abdominal pain of colitis may be absent, & the output of an ostomy may not be recognized as "diarrhea". What is the difference between Clostridium difficile EIA toxin assays and Clostridium difficile Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) assays? What are the uses and advantages of each? Clostridium difficile EIA toxin assays • Detects active toxin A or A+B production in virulent Clostridium difficile strains • ~30-80% sensitive (variable), ~95% specific; if A only, will miss the 30% of cases caused by B toxin production • If toxin detected, useful for confirming toxin production where there is a question of whether Clostridium difficile in a culture or PCR is actually causing disease • Cheaper Clostridium difficile PCR • ~98-100% sensitive and specific • High negative predictive value: if it's negative, it's not Clostridium difficile. • Most efficient tool for screening suspected cases • More expensive, more automated (less man-hours to pay for) Your patient above has a leukocytosis of 17,000. Since he is not having orthostatic hypotension and is able to drink fluids, you send him home with 10 days empiric metronidazole orally. The next day, the laboratory reports that his Clostridium difficile toxin assay is negative. Do you stop the metronidazole? No. This question illustrates the difference between Clostridium difficile EIA toxin assays and Clostridium difficile Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR You may choose to repeat the assay or order a C.difficile PCR assay, if those options are feasible, or simply complete the course without further laboratory confirmation if he is doing well and improving. Your patient above returns to you for the 3rd time with watery diarrhea, confirmed last time as Clostridium difficile by PCR. What are your treatment options for recurrent/refractory ? It's wise to consult the Infectious Diseases Society of America at www.idosciety.org (or other national ID expert recommendations available in your area) for the most recent evidence-based recommendations. There is variability in the literature. Regimens I find useful in my practice: Vancomycin 250mg PO QID + rifaxamin 400mg PO BID x 14 days. Concurrent kefir 4-6 oz with meals TID + ad lib x 16 weeks. Kefir is a dairy product available in manyost major grocery chains. It offers ~15 live probiotic strains + Saccharomyces, vs. yogurts/probiotic supplements, which offer 1-3 at most. If the patient is lactose intolerant/cannot take dairy, consider Florastor (Saccharomyces boulardii) 1-2X daily x 3-4 months. Florastor is distributed without prescription at Walgreens U.S. drugstores at the pharmacy window, as well as online at Walgreens.com, CVS.com, Drugstore.com, & other online merchants. In the event of recurrence (+Clostridium difficile toxin + watery stools) after the above, consider one of the following: OR Bakken's tapering combination therapy + kefir (dispense #80 PO vancomycin 125mg & #80 PO metronidazole 250mg): • 4-6 oz kefir with meals TID + ad lib x 16 weeks • • Week 1 & 2: PO metro 250mg QID + PO vanco 125mg QID, then Week 3 & 4: PO metro 750mg Q3D + vanco 375mg Q3D (12 caps), then • • • Week 5 & 6: PO metro 500mg Q3D + vanco 250mg Q3D, then Week 7 & 8: PO metro 250mg Q3D + vanco 125mg Q3D, then STOP OR Vancomycin taper: (dispense #84) o 125mg QID x 2 weeks 125mg BID x 1 week 125mg QD x 1 week 125mg on MWF x 1 week 125mg Q3D x 15 days. [Kelly CP et al. NEJM 2008;359:1932-40; Cohen SH et al. Inf Cont Hosp Epid. 2010;31(5); Johnson S et al. CID 2007;44:846; Bakken JS. Minnesota Med 2009:38-40; personal communications with Bakken JS.] Other thoughts include fecal bacteriotherapy, or longterm suppression with vancomycin 125mg PO daily in the rare patient with recurrence that will not remit. What is scromboid and how do you diagnose it? Histamine intoxication that includes flushing, itching, urticaria, angioedema, wheezing, vomiting, diarrhea (anaphylactoid reaction). Bacteria on the surface of improperly cooled fish degrade histidine to histamine. Usually tuna, mackerel, mahi, bonito, & kingfish, but also others. The fish may taste "peppery". 100 mg histamine/100g fish = scromboid (Usually clinical findings + history of fish ingestion are diagnostic) Treat with antihistamines & H2 blockers, epinephrine SC if severe. What is ciguatera? • • Neurotoxin related to ingesting reef fish, such as barracuda, grouper, snapper, jack. 1-6 hours after eating, abdominal pain, vomiting diarrhea with characteristic neurologic symptoms: o Reversal of hot & cold sensation o Perioral paresthesias o Paresthesias, intense itching o Vertigo o Headache o Hypotension Treatment with mannitol 1g/kg intravenous, may be helpful; otherwise supportive care. What are the major neurotoxic shellfish poisonings? Paralytic shellfish poisoning • clams, mussels, shellfish • Alaska, Maine, Pacific Northwest Neurotoxic shellfish poisoning • brevetoxin /red tides • Florida, Gulf, mid-Atlantic coasts What organisms are associated with chronic alcohol abuse or liver disease, & what are likely sources? Think "liver": LYVA Listeria (unpasteurized dairy products, cold cuts/hot dogs/processed meats) Yersinia (fresh water, diary, meats) Vibrio vulnificus (sea water, seafood) Aeromonas (fresh water) Name 8 viral causes of hepatitis: • • • • • • • • Hepatitis A Hepatitis B Delta virus in (coinfection with Hepatitis B is required) Hepatitis C Hepatitis E (esp fulminant hepatitis in pregnant women) CMV Epstein Barr (EBV) Yellow fever What is the significance of Hepatitis G (HGC or HGV) in HIV? It may slow the progression of HIV. The data does not demonstrate improvement of mortality in HGV-HIV coinfection. What are the risk factors for Hepatitis E (HEV)? • • Travel to endemic areas (Africa, Afghanistan) Contaminated water/lack of water treatment Not person-person/sexually transmitted. What condition predisposes to severe HEV? Pregnancy increases risk of symptomatic hepatitis ~10X (2пѓ 20%), esp 3rd trimester—fulminant hepatitis Name 3 non-infectious causes of hepatitis in pregnancy. • • HELLP syndrome (hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, low platelets) Hyperemesis gravidarum - early in Pregnancy Acute fatty liver of pregnancy - late in pregnancy What is the clinical significance of core promoter mutation (pre- core mutation) in HBV infection? • • • Chronic HBV infection usually produces HBeAg, which has been used for following response to treatment. HeAg + also heralds increased infectivity. However, pre-core mutant HBV cannot produce HBeAg & is HBeAb-negative. And mutant HBV is more severe, more progressive, & less responsive to therapy. Fortunately, mutant HBV is still not very common in the US, but the possibility should be borne in mind for the patient who may relapse after treatment or have severe disease, despite a negative HeAg. What are the characteristics of the patient with pre-core mutant HBV? • • • • • Residence outside US Associated with genotypes other than A (HBV Genotype A is prevalent in US) Older at acquisition More severe, progressive hepatitis Lower response to treatment пѓ may require lifelong suppression How does Hepatitis D (HDV) differ in U.S. from elsewhere? • • Mostly occurs in intravenous drug users, blood transfusion Rare here, common in Amazon What should you know about Hepatitis C Genotype 4? • Same as Genotype 1 for treatment purposes (do not treat as a "non-1" genotype) • • • Very low % in US, but does occur Keep in mind that many HCV studies in 1990s compared treatments between "genotype 1" vs. "non1", with "non-1" assumed to be genotypes 2 or 3. This is because 4 is not as common in the West as elsewhere, but do not let those terms confuse you. For all practical purposes, 1=4. In what way is HCV similar to HIV? Both are RNA viruses Both are characterized by "antigenic variability", so that despite producing antibody, it is not protective. Billions of antibodies are produced in response to billions of virions produced daily with different protein coats. Antibody production simply fails to catch up. The body recognizes them each as different strains, or "quasispecies". This is why HIV and HCV vaccine production has failed. List 5 bacterial causes of hepatitis: • • • • • Leptospirosis Gonorrhea Syphilis Salmonella Coxiella burnetti Protozoan cause of hepatitis: Toxoplasmosis List the 3 types of infectious diarrhea, area affected, agents associated. • • • Non-inflammatory: proximal small bowel; watery diarrhea; no neutrophils o Vibrio cholera, Escherichia coli, Giardia Inflammatory: colon; dysentery; + stool neutrophils o Shigella, Vibrio parahemolyticus, Clostridium difficile Penetrating: distal small bowel; enteric fever; +/- 's o Yersinia enterocolitica, Salmonella typhi, Entamoeba histolytica o Clostridium difficile colitis True or false: Diarrhea is always present in a person with hepatic amebiasis. False. Liver abscess may occur without diarrhea or the presence of the amoeba in the stool. Fever, RUQ pain, and weight loss is most common. The organism enters the portal veins from the bowel to infect the liver. Diagnosis is usually by Entamoeba histolytica titers, occasionally by liver aspirate: "anchovy paste" pus. True or false: Amebic abscess can be treated with one drug. False. Asymptomatic cyst carriage may be treated with a luminal agent, such as diloxanide, paromomycin, or iodoquinol. Amebic colitis and liver abscesses must be treated with a trophozoite agent (metronidazole) AND a luminal agent x 10 days. What are characteristics of amoebic colitis? • • • Bloody (or heme +) stool & fever in a traveler to the developing world. Flask shaped ulcers in the colon (biopsy the edge for trophozoites) Stool ova & parasite exam x 3 should be done to look for cysts and trophozoites containing ingested RBCs. What are 3 causes of mesenteric adenitis? • • • Crohn's disease Yersinia pseudotuberculosis ("pseudo-appendicitis", also mucosal ulcers in terminal ileum) TB What are the sources of Yersinia enterocolitica infection? • Raw pork intestines ("chitterlings") - pigs are major reservoir • Raw poultry • Raw dairy What extraintestinal disease may follow Yersinia enterocolitica infection? • • Erythema nodosum Reactive arthritis/Reiter's syndrome What are the sources of exposure for Campylobacter? • • • • • • • All poultry, raw eggs (majority of U.S. cases) New ill puppies (classic scenario) Child day-care centers (outbreaks) Raw dairy (outbreaks) Anogenital intercourse Untreated/contaminated water (outbreaks) Usually NOT non-sexual, person-to-person contact What may cause recurrent Campylobacter, esp C. fetus? • • • • HIV infection Immunoglobulin deficiency Cell-mediated immune deficiency Peptic acid reduction (proton pump inhibitors, H2 blockers) - reduced acid may extend colonization with infective organisms beyond 3 weeks; consider extended duration of antibiotics What is the pathophysiology of Campylobacter gastroenteritis? • • • Toxin mediated watery or bloody/inflammatory diarrhea Immune-complex vasculitis with bloody diarrhea/pseudomembranes + leukocytes in stool What extraintestinal disease may follow Campylobacter jejuni infection? • • Guillain-Barre syndrome (40% U.S. cases may be due to Campylobacter) Reiter's syndrome What adjunctive treatment is best avoided with PO Vancomycin in the treatment of Clostridium difficile colitis? Oral cholestyramine or colestipol. They bind the oral vancomycin. Otherwise these resins are a useful adjunct to oral metronidazole in binding the toxin that causes the diarrhea & pseudomembranes. Probiotics such as lactobacillus preparations may help repopulate the bowel with more "normal" flora that out-compete Clostridium difficile. These are usually not "human" Lactobacillus species & the bowel will eventually repopulate with normal flora once antibiotic pressure is removed. Any diarrheal problem may be treated with anti-spasmodic agents such as loperamide (ImmodiumВ®). True or False? CAUTION! If the cause of diarrhea is likely to be severe infectious or toxin-related, AVOID anti-spasmodic agents. If watery stool is severe, try oral re-hydration and "water/toxin binders" such as colestipol or even psyllium, instead. Remember that one function of diarrhea is to rid the bowel of the offending agent or toxin. If you slow this process down in the setting of severe Clostridium difficile or an invasive pathogen such as Shigella, you may precipitate the disaster of toxic megacolon (or toxic colitis without megacolon), which may require urgent resection of the entire colon. Studies recently support that antispasmodics may be safely used in mild to moderate infectious colitis such as Clostridium difficile. Other drugs that may precipitate toxic colitis include anticholinergics, opioids, and antidepressants. What infectious agents may be associated with toxic colitis? The inflammatory and/or invasive pathogens. Signs may include + fecal leukocytes, small bloody stools (dysentery), fever, leukocytosis: • Clostridium difficile • • • Salmonella, Shigella, Yersinia, Campylobacter Entamoeba histolytica Cytomegalovirus What are the clinical picture of E. coli H7:0157, sources of infection, associated complications, growth media, and treatment? • • • • • Afebrile watery, then bloody diarrhea Undercooked (pink) hamburger meat, unpasteurized apple cider Hemolytic uremic syndrome (triad of acute renal failure, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, and thrombocytopenia; children 5-10 & the elderly) Sorbitol-MacConkey (SMAC) agar (it is "sorbitolnegative"/requires sorbitol to grow) Supportive (antibiotics may increase toxin-production, increase risk of HUS) What are the usual sources of a psoas abscess? Local: • • Gut: diverticulitis, Crohn's disease (polymicrobial) GU: perinephric abscess (S. aureus, Gram negative bacillus) Hematogenous: • Blood: bacteremia from another focus (S. aureus) • Bone: vertebral TB (Pott's disease) was once the commonest cause GYNECOLOGIC & UROLOGIC What is asymptomatic bacteriuria? • • Growth at least 100,000 colony forming units/mL of bacteria in a urine culture in the absence of symptoms. It is not a UTI. What is a UTI? • • • Symptoms of GU infection + growth of at least 100,000 colony forming units/mL of bacteria in a urine culture. No symptoms = no UTI Symptoms most suggestive of UTI include: o Fever (may be absent in advanced age or steroids) or rigors o Burning on urination o Frequent urination o Hesitancy on urination or perceived difficulty with voiding due to spasm Pelvic discomfort o With ascending infection: costovertebral angle tenderness, flank pain, nausea/vomiting How do you interpret pyuria in adults? • Pyuria or the extent of pyuria has not been shown to correlate with the presence of symptomatic UTI, incidence or onset of symptomatic UTI, or with morbidity/mortality associated with pyuria itself or • • symptomatic UTI. Pyuria is common with advancing age in both genders. It does not indicate or warrant antibiotic treatment in itself. Its utility is in the high negative predictive value of its absence: If your patient suspected of having an infection has no pyuria, look for an alternative source of fever! How is simple cystitis treated in a woman? • • Oral trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (or nitrofurantoin if 20% resistance to TMP-SMX in the local community) for 3 days. If ascending infection is initially suspected but nausea is not severe enough to preclude oral therapy, treatment may be extended to 7 days. When does urinary tract infection (UTI) require further evaluation and perhaps longer treatment? • • UTI in a male. Men have fewer UTIs due to a long distance between the urethral meatus & the bladder. If a man presents with bacteriuria AND symptoms of UTI, 1-2 weeks of antibiotics should be given and evaluation for possible urologic impediments to flow, or stones, is warranted. Recurrent UTI in a male may also be associated with unrecognized chronic prostatitis that is undertreated by a course of antibiotics that would be sufficient for UTI. • • The prostate is not well-vascularized and requires 6-8 weeks of antibiotic therapy for resolution of infection. Check for a boggy, tender prostate on examination. Chronic prostatitis may require other urologic investigations and is best referred to a urologist. Acute prostatitis is more obvious & associated with bacteremia; if you suspect this, do NOT examine the prostate, due to risk of septicemia). Causes of UTI in men include: • • • • • Benign prostatic hypertrophy Nephrolithiasis Chronic prostatitis Instrumentation/catheterization Congenital/anatomical abnormalities of the urinary tract What are causes of recurrent UTIs? • • • • Inadequate antibiotic therapy/resistant organisms Congenital/anatomical abnormalities of the urinary tract Stones (urea-splitting Proteus/Klebsiella spp may produce large staghorn calculi; must eliminate colonized stones to clear infection, usually via lithotripsy) Uremia/azotemia/papillary necrosis (poor renal function does not allow adequate antibiotics into the kidney/urine) • • Perivesical abscess or colonic disease (cancer, Crohn's disease) with fistulas to bladder Benign prostatic hypertrophy/prostatitis What do you do with asymptomatic bacteriuria and + urine culture in a woman? • • If she is not pregnant, nothing. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnancy is a cause of pyelonephritis, miscarriage, and preterm labor and warrants immediate treatment with antibiotics. What do you do with asymptomatic bacteriuria in a male? • • • If the patient is about to undergo a urologic procedure that is expected to cause mucosal bleeding, then 1 preoperative dose of antibiotics should be given. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in this setting is associated with urosepsis, and preOP antibiotics is beneficial. Advancing age, obstruction (BPH, other), bladder catheterization, and spinal cord injury are associated with asymptomatic bacteriuria. No antibiotic treatment is warranted. However, this is a good opportunity to assess for fixable obstructions to urinary flow--enlarged prostate, stones, ureteral reflux--and get them fixed. Symptomatic infections do lead to pyelonephritis and urosepsis in obstruction to flow and warrant antibiotics (remember: correct the flow). What do you do with asymptomatic bacteriuria in a patient with a bladder catheter > 2 weeks? • • • • Nothing. Change the catheter only when there is obstruction to flow or if there is a symptomatic infection (esp yeast). Bladder or catheter bag irrigations with peroxide, topical antibiotics to the urethral meatus, or routine catheter changes do not reduce infections. Breaks in the closed catheter system are KNOWN to produce infection. List 4 common infectious causes of UTI. Which is associated with renal stones? • • • • Escherichia coli Enterococci (Group D streptococcus) Staphylococcus saprophyticus Proteus mirabilis (indole-negative) - associated with struvite renal stones (staghorn calculi) The nurse in the long-term care facility calls to report that Mrs. X has been having strong-smelling or cloudy urine, and requests an order for antibiotics. What questions do you have for her? Is Mrs. X having symptoms of UTI (see above)? If she is chronically unable to express herself due to dementia, does she have signs of UTI (fever, chills, suprapubic tenderness)? Does she have other signs of infection in the elderly, especially new delirium, new lethargy, or anorexia? UTI is a common cause of infection in the elderly who develop new mental status changes, but also keep in mind constipation, new medications, dehydration from poor thirst mechanisms, etc. Changes in color, odor, concentration, or clarity DO NOT correlate with the presence of UTI. But it seems a common misconception among the lay public, nursing, and allied health professions, and often leads to unnecessary antibiotics. Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is an infection. True or false? No. It is an imbalance of the vaginal flora from the usual predominance of Lactobacillus species to a polymicrobial mix of anaerobes and gram negative bacilli, including Gardnerella vaginalis, Bacteroides, viridans streptococci, Fusobacterium, Veillonella, Eubacterium, and Mobiluncus species. Mycoplasma hominis, Ureaplasma urealyticum, and Atopobium vaginae are also associated with BV. While mechanisms remain unclear, the organisms are felt to grow synergistically to outnumber the Lactobacilli. G. vaginalis also produces a biofilm in the vagina that may facilitate colonization by other organisms and resist metronidazole. Low pH tends to retard growth of many bacteria, thus I speculate that once the pH rises, the environment progressively shifts to one that is friendlier to nonlactobacilli and promotes a cycle of bacterial overgrowth. Normal vaginal pH is maintained in the range of 3.5 to 4.5 by peroxide- and lactic acid-producing Lactobacilli. When other species overgrow, the pH rises above 5. BV may occur in virginal individuals, however, it is highly associated with lifetime number of sexual partners, a new sexual partner, and male urethral colonization with Gardnerella. I speculate that sexual partners may simply introduce a greater variety of potentially colonizing flora into the vagina or perineum. Condoms may reduce the incidence. It seems feasible that hormonal shifts occurring throughout the lifetime may also alter vaginal chemistry. [Verstraelen H. Cutting edge: the vaginal microflora and bacterial vaginosis. Verh K Acad Geneeskd Belg. 2008;70(3):147-74. PMID: 18669158] Other than annoyance, what is the importance of BV? BV in pregnancy is associated with a higher rate of miscarriage, early (preterm) delivery, and post-partum/post-abortion endometritis, so it is important for pregnant women to be tested and treated for bacterial vaginosis, even if asymptomatic. What are the symptoms and clinical findings of BV? • • • • • Thin, homogenous, white to grey discharge that coats the vaginal wall (biofilm?) and is annoying to the patient. Disagreeable fish-like odor, especially after intercourse. Vaginal fluid pH over 4.5 (highly sensitive) – use a pH strip. Positive "whiff test" (highly specific): Add a drop of 10% KOH solution to vaginal secretions on a slide. Sniff—a fishy odor indicates release of amines related to anaerobic products. Pathognomonic "clue cells" on a saline wet mount of vaginal secretions: Mix secretions with a drop of saline on a slide, add a coverslip, and view under a microscope. Epithelial cells covered with adherent bacteria (biofilm effect?) are the "clue". Treatment of bacterial vaginosis: According to the textbooks & board exams: • Metronidazole 500mg PO BID x 7 days • Metronidazole intravaginal gel 1 applicator-ful QHS x 5 days (Increasing resistance to metronidazole may be a problem, esp. Atopobium species) • Clindamycin 300mg PO BID x 7 days • Clindamycin 2% vaginal cream 5g intravaginally QHS x 5 days Clindamycin ovules 100mg intravaginally QHS x 3 days • Tinidazole 2G PO once According to Gompf: Peroxide 3% 10 cc intravaginally via bulb syringe daily x 5 days (may also dilute 50:50 with water, preferably distilled but tap is OK). Cheap, over-the-counter, not vulnerable to resistance. Minimal to no side effects, no need to stop sexual activity (the extra fluid will run back out in the commode; it may help to fully reach all areas if the patient lies flat for a couple of minutes after instilling the fluid.) (Cardone A, et al. Utilization of hydrogen peroxide in the treatment of recurrent bacterial vaginosis. Minerva Ginecol. 2003 Dec;55(6):483-92. Review. PMID: 14676737.) Follow up with plain Stoneyfield or Dannon brand yogurt, or any brand of kefir (reliably acidic and consistently have active cultures—I have no financial relationship to disclose but I'm a pretty good yogurt & kefir maker!): 2-3 tablespoons (watered down with distilled water or saline if consistency is too thick) applied intravaginally QHS x 6 days Also cheap, over-the-counter, no adverse effects, no resistance, no need to stop sexual activity. Repopulation by lactobacilli may be facilitated by peroxide pre-treatment by restoring an environment favorable to them. You will be a star to the woman who comes to you with her umpteenth BV episode fed up with antibiotics. In case of recurrence, which will be less often, just do it again. CAUTION: NEVER EVER put peroxide into a closed cavity or a space that does not easily drain, or inject into tissue or into or adjacent to a vessel. Don't apply it to inflamed or granulating, healing tissue. Peroxide is toxic to living cells other than unbroken mucosa. It also may release gas with unexpected force, and has been documented to produce lethal air embolism when instilled into abscess cavities, or adjacent to a blood vessel, for example. EYE What are the infectious causes of retinal vasculitis, any pathognomonic signs/associations, & diagnostics? • • • • • • • Cytomegalovirus (CMV) – advanced HIV or other immunodeficiency with absolute CD4 <75 Toxoplasmosis – immunocompetent; white focal lesions & severe vitreous inflammation Tuberculosis – primary active/miliary TB clinically and by chest X-ray, +PPD or interferon gamma release assay (IGRA, e.g. Quantiferon) Syphilis - + specific Treponemal test, e.g. FTA-Ab, Treponemal IGG (regardless of RPR or VDRL), may be the only other finding; HIV raises suspicion & likelihood; may or may not have Argyll-Robertson pupil or other manifestations neurosyphilis (eye is part of central nervous system!) Herpes simplex & zoster– chemotherapy-induced immunosuppression; white retinal infiltrates; zoster usually involves ocular division dermatome of trigeminal nerve Whipple's disease – All Active Americans Mush Charmin (abdominal pain/adenopathy/arthritis/gut malabsorption/confusion; PAS-positive macrophages on small bowel biopsy, +CSF PCR Lyme disease, late disseminated stage – months to years untreated, large joint intermittent pain/swelling, peripheral neuropathy, cognitive dysfunction; treat as for late disseminated Lyme; granulomatous iritis and vitreitis, neuroretinitis reported What are the manifestations of ocular herpes? What complications are associated? Best treatment? • • • • Dendritic keratitis – commonest seen in primary care offices, superficial cornea epithelial viral replication; classic branching appearance; may resolve spontaneously without sequela, but topical triflouridine or oral acyclovir is recommended o Best managed by an ophthalmologist with topical, oral +/- corticosteroids Geographic ulcer – dendritic lesion that has enlarged, takes longer to heal, may scar Stromal keratitis – uncommon, more likely with recurrent disease; deeper infiltrates due to antigenantibody complexes most often, less often necrotizing with active infection similar to progressive bacterial keratitis, risk of perforation Uveitis, endothelitis, corneal perforation with recurrent disease Oral acyclovir 400mg BID or oral valacyclovir 500mg daily x 1 year for suppressive therapy should be considered in recurrent disease or disease more severe than dentritic ulcer. HEAD & NECK Which cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) exam is underappreciated (& underutilized) but as useful as the Gram stain in determining the presence of bacterial vs. aseptic meningitis? The CSF lactic acid level. CSF lactic acid < 3 mmol = aseptic meningitis, 10 mmol = bacterial meningitis. 3-10 mmol usually is partially treated bacterial meningitis. Unfortunately, few laboratories perform it despite several studies that support its reduction of costs and antibiotic overuse. Bacterial meningitis initiates at the following sites in the following pathogens: • • • • • Listeria - mild or asymptomatic gastrointestinal infection Pneumococcus - pneumonia/otitis media/sinusitis Hemophilus -otitis media Staphylococcus aureus - endocarditis Meningococcus - pharyngitis Other than covering for pneumococcus and meningococcus, what organisms do you cover for in patients who are over 50 or pregnant? What do you add to the initial regimen? Listeria (ampicillin or trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole) If the lab calls you about "diphtheroids" in your CSF sample, what do you think? Listeria, Listeria, Listeria! It's a Gram + rod, like Bacillus & Corynebacteria, & may be mistaken for these skin contaminants. What organism is important in causing meningitis in patients with neurosurgery, CSF leaks (clear rhinorrhea) or basilar skull fracture? • • • Pneumococcus S. aureus Pseudomonas/Gram negative bacilli What infectious agents may be associated with chorea or dystonia? Classic: Group A streptococcus (post-streptococcal infection Syndenham's chorea) Less often: Mycoplasma pneumoniae Legionella pneumophila Others: Streptococcus viridans, Streptococcus pneumoniae Herpes simplex Borrelia burgdorferi ECHO virus Syphilis HIV Haemophilus Neisseria meningitidis Toxoplasma gondii TB Cryptococcus neoformans Describe NDMAR encephalitis. Autoimmune N-methyl-D-aspartate receptor (NDMAR) antibody, which is produced by ovarian teratomas, is commoner than herpes, West Nile, varicella, etc. NDMAR encephalitis mimics infectious causes (especially rabies) and neuroleptic malignant syndrome, with fever, delirium, seizures, and autonomic instability. Mild CSF pleiocytosis and mild CSF protein elevation may occur; CSF glucose is normal. Diagnosis: + Anti-NMDAR titer CT chest/abdomen/pelvis for teratoma Treatment: Resect the tumor List infectious causes of encephalitis. Viral: • • • • • • • Herpes simplex 1 or 2 Varicella zoster Powassan (ticks) West Nile Virus St. Louis LaCrosse Equine Bacterial: • Lyme Protozoan: • Naegleria • Acanthamoeba • Balamuthia List non-infectious causes of encephalitis. • • • • • NDMAR encephalitis Behcet's Vasculitides Drugs/neuroleptic malignant syndrome Chemotherapy West Nile encephalitis often presents with an ascending paralysis. How might you differentiate West Nile encephalitis from Guillain-Barre syndrome? West Nile Virus: • Confusion • CSF pleiocytosis • Elderly • Fever Guillain-Barre: • Clear sensorium • Normal CSF Classical bacterial causes of pharyngitis and drug of choice for each. • • • • Group A streptococcus (penicillin/clarithromycin x 10d-there is increasing macrolide resistance) Arcanobacterium haemolyticus (penicillin/macrolide) Mycoplasma pneumonia (doxycycline/macrolide/quinolone) Corynebacterium diphtheriae (erythromycin + antitoxin from Centers for Disease Control) What causes epiglottitis? Children < 5: • Hemophilus (disappearing due to HiB vaccine), increasingly Group A streptococcus Children > 5: • Adults: • Group A streptococcus Almost always Group A streptococcus; Hemophilus (in older adults) What organism causes isolated uvulitis (inflammation of the uvula)? Group A streptococcus What else is in the differential diagnosis of uvular swelling? • • Trauma (intubation, aggressive suctioning during procedures Angioedema/allergic reactions (pale uvula) What are the immunologic sequelae of Group A streptococcal infections & how might they be prevented? Acute rheumatic fever/rheumatic heart disease • Streptococcus throat only • Penicillin is preventive, thus we always treat Strep throat to prevent rheumatic fever!! Acute post-infectious glomerulonephritis • Streptococcus throat & impetigo • Penicillin does not prevent What symptoms/complications are associated with sinusitis of which sinuses? • • Frontal - epidural/subdural abscess-Pott's puffy tumor Maxillary - mild facial numbness (2nd branch of cranial nerve V/Trigeminal), tooth pain Ethmoid - watering eye, cavernous sinus thrombosis Sphenoid - retro-orbital/occipital headache, orbital cellulitis How do you differentiate orbital cellulitis from cavernous sinus thrombosis? Cavernous sinus thrombosis signs include papilledema, bilateral eye involvement, abnormal LP, Vth cranial nerve/Trigeminal palsy What are the causes of acute otitis media? • • • • • • • Streptococcus pneumonia Hemophilus influenza Moraxella catarrhalis Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A streptococcus) Sometimes Chlamydia pneumoniae Rarely Staphylococcus aureus, Pseudomonas Predisposers but not primary pathogens: Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), influenza What causes acute bullous myringitis (painful vesicles on the tympanic membrane)? • • • • Acute otitis media: Streptococcus pneumonia o Influenza o Mycoplasma pneumonia* Shingles, or herpes zoster oticus Reactivation of Varicella zoster along the auditory branch of the facial nerve. (See Ramsay Hunt syndrome) *If the patient also has a sore throat, Mycoplasma may be more likely. What are the complications of chronic otitis media? • • • • • • Cholesteatoma Mastoiditis/mastoid osteitis Vth facial nerve paralysis (requires urgent myringotomy) Meningitis Epidural abscess Subdural empyema Bezold abscess, an abscess in the neck from mastoiditis What is Ramsay Hunt syndrome? Reactivation of shingles/Varicella/Herpes zoster along the auditory branch of the facial nerve. Vesicles appear in the auditory canal, on the tympanic membrane, and around the external ear. Along with pain, nausea and vertigo may occur and may persist for weeks. List the 10 leading causes of a chronic draining ear. • • • • • • • • • • Mastoiditis Foreign body Cholesteatoma Cancer - Histiocytosis X Syphilis (treat as neurosyphilis) TB Munchhausen's Pseudo-Munchhausen's Malignant otitis externa CSF leak What are the classic associations and findings with malignant otitis externa? • • • • Otalgia, otorrhea, and granulation tissue in external canal in diabetic Facial nerve palsy Complications include temporal bone osteomyelitis (check temporal bone CT), requires debridement Organism is Pseudomonas 3 bacterial causes of meningitis and DRUG OF CHOICE: • • • • Hemophilus influenzae - ceftriaxone Neisseria meningitidis - penicillin Listeria monocytogenes – ampicillin + gentamicin Pneumococcus – ceftriaxone (+ vancomycin if resistance suspected) Differentiate between CNS Toxoplasma, Cryptococcus, Herpes, and TB: • • • • Toxoplasmosis - multiple lesions in brain parenchyma, focal neurologic signs. Cryptococcus - indolent, non-purulent meningitis, increased intracranial pressure, AIDS. Herpes - delirium/behavioral change/focal neurologic signs (encephalitis), hemorrhagic CSF & hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF glucose), temporal lobe enhancement on MRI. TB - CSF lymphocytosis with hypoglycorrhachia, basilar meningeal enhancement on MRI, increased intracranial pressure (needs steroids) What are risk factors for meningitis and for which pathogen? • • • • • CSF leak after head trauma/fracture of cribriform plate—pneumococcus Skull/sinus fractures, even distant—pneumococcus Unpasteurized cheese/soft cheeses/cold cuts—Listeria Hamsters/rodents—Lymphochoriomeningitis virus (may cause fetal loss in pregnancy also) Warm fresh water lakes—Naegleria fowleri Soil/Stagnant water/Hispanic ethnicity—Balamuthia mandrillaris Contact lenses/warm fresh water lakes/HIV—Acanthamoeba How do you tell if nasal fluid is cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) or not at the bedside, if CSF leak is suspected? Check a drop of CSF with a glucose meter. If it's + for glucose, it's CSF. What is known as the Meningitis Belt? The equatorial region of Africa is so known. Meningococcus is spread easily on hot dry winds. Travelers to the area should receive meningococcal vaccine. What is the differential diagnosis for necrotizing lymphadenitis? • Hodgkin's & non-Hodgkin's lymphoma • • TB (scrofula)/atypical mycobacteria (history of exposure to TB, gardening, etc) Toxoplasmosis (history of cat exposure) Sarcoidosis Name 4 infections causing paralysis or weakness that must be distinguished from Guillain Barre. And their agents. • • • Encephalitis due to West Nile virus Botulism (Clostridium botulinum) Tetanus (Clostridium tetanus) Tropical Spastic Paralysis (HTLV I) Name 3 noninfectious causes of paralysis or weakness. • • • Tick paralysis (toxin, removal of the tick is curative) Guillain-Barre Myasthenia gravis What are 3 organisms often on the Infectious Disease board examinations as a cause of eosinophilic meningitis? • • • Angiostrongylus Baylisascaris Gnathostomiasis Head and neck infection syndromes: • • • • • Ludwig's – infection spreading from a periapical abscess around the molar tooth extending into the sublingual space. May spread to mediastinum. Vincent's angina - Necrotizing Gingivitis Lemierre's syndrome – Jugular vein septic thrombophlebitis after sore throat -; septic pulmonary emboli may occur, as well as distant abscesses "Bull Neck" – Diphtheria infection of the posterior pharynx with white plaques over the tonsils, posterior oropharynx, uvula and contiguous structures. Lumpy jaw – cervico-facial actinomycosis CARDIAC List 4 common causes of infectious pericarditis: • • • • Viral - enterovirus, usually Coxsackie A and B, influenza A & B Bacterial - Meningococcus, S. aureus, Hemophilus influenzae in children TB - constrictive pericarditis Fungal - Histoplasmosis, Aspergillus Name predisposing factors for infective endocarditis: • • • • Previous endocarditis Damaged native valve*- congenital or rheumatic Prosthetic valves Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis/Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy Ventricular Septal Defect *S. aureus (& S. lugdunensis) can infect pristine native valves. Name 2 types of noninfectious endocarditis: • • Liebmann-Sacks - associated with SLE (no infection, no emboli, no antibiotic) Marantic- associated with malignancy List 7 peripheral stigmata of endocarditis: • • • • • • Petechiae (mucous membranes) Roth spots (retinal hemorrhages) Clubbing Splinter hemorrhages (nail beds) Janeway lesions (flat, painless lesions on palms/soles) Osler's nodes (palpable, painful "nodes" on fingertips) Splenomegaly NOTE: In antibiotic era, these occur in ~15%. Absence does not rule out infective endocarditis. For each special setting in which bacterial endocarditis occurs, list associated pathogens: • • • • Intravenous drug user - Staphylococcus aureus/Candida parapsilosis Prosthetic Valves - Staphylococcus epidermidis, fungal Culture negative - Q-fever (Coxiella burnetti), HACEK group (see Antibiotics section) Colon cancer - Streptococcus gallolyticus (formerly S. bovis) What are the Modified Duke Criteria for diagnosis of infective endocarditis? • • • 2 major criteria, or 1 major criteria + 3 minor criteria, or 5 minor criteria Major Criteria • Continuous bacteremia with typical organisms, without another identifiable source (2 blood cultures + drawn 12 hours apart, or 3 blood cultures + drawn ВЅ-1 hour apart) o Viridans strep, Streptococcus gallinarum (formerly S. bovis) o Enterococcus o HACEK bacteria (see Antibiotics section) o S. aureus • + Echocardiogram: o vegetation perivalvular abscess o new dehiscence of prosthetic valve o new valvular regurgitation • 1 or more blood cultures with Coxiella burnetti • + Q Fever/C. burnetti titer >1:800 Minor Criteria • History of rheumatic heart disease/predisposing condition/intravenous drug use • Oral temperature > 38 Celsius / 100.4 Fahrenheit • Vascular/embolic phenomena (emboli, hemorrhagic CVA, nail hemorrhages, conjunctival hemorrhages) • Immunologic phenomena (Osler's nodes, Roth's spots, glomerulonephritis, +Rheumatoid Factor) • Two + blood cultures with other organisms than the above • Echo suggestive of endocarditis (but no major criteria) List 7 complications of endocarditis: • • • • • • • • CHF Conduction defects (valve ring abscess) Mycotic aneurysms (not fungal, "mushroom-shaped") MI (secondary to coronary emboli) Glomerular nephritis - focal and diffuse Obstruction (valvular) Embolic stroke Embolic abscess/infection: brain/spleen (left-sided), lung (right-sided) What are the usual pathogens in bacterial endocarditis? • • • Streptococci 70% (Streptococcus viridians >> Group D Enterococci) S. aureus 20% Miscellaneous (Hemophilus influenzae, Pseudomonas, Gram negative bacilli, pneumococci) What are 2 signs to alert one to the presence of infective endocarditis? • • Fever Murmur (85%) Peripheral stigmata of endocarditis appear in only 1% cases in antibiotic era. Treatment of infective endocarditis: According to the sensitivities of blood culture isolates. What is characteristic for fungal endocarditis? • • Large vegetations Large arterial emboli (e.g. cold pulseless foot in an intravenous drug user) Fungal endocarditis is an ABSOLUTE indication for valve replacement. Treat with intravenous amphotericin B and surgery ASAP. Who is at risk for fungal endocarditis? • • Intravenous drug users (20% of IVDU endocarditis is fungal) Immunosuppression Post cardiac surgery What fungi are associated with endocarditis in which individuals? • • IV drug use-Candida parapsilosis ImmunosuppressionAspergillus Post cardiac surgery-Candida spp. According to the American Heart Association, what are the ONLY cardiac conditions that warrant endocarditis prophylaxis & why? • • • • • • • Prosthetic valve Prior infective endocarditis Congenital cyanotic heart disease Unrepaired cyanotic Repaired congenital heart disease with prosthetic material, during first 6 months after surgery Repaired congenital heart disease with residual defects adjacent to prosthetic material Post cardiac transplantation with development of valvular disease Research demonstrates that bacteremia from regular activities such as chewing and dental hygiene far exceed dental procedures as a cause of bacteremia (up to 70%!). The highest risk of endocarditis results from valvular abnormality, not bacteremia. Antibiotics have not demonstrated significant preventive benefit. LUNG Bacterial causes of atypical pneumonia and drug of choice for each. • • • • Mycoplasma pneumoniae (Macrolide/Quinolone/Doxycycline) Chlamydia pneumoniae (Macrolide/Doxycycline/Quinolone) Legionella pneumophila (Macrolide/Quinolone) Chlamydia psittaci (Doxycycline) Principle viral causes of pneumonia, and treatment for each. • • • Influenza A (Amantadine/neuraminidase inhibitor) Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) (Ribavirin) Adenovirus (None) Name 8 organisms causing pneumonia. • • • • Pneumococcus Hemophilus influenza Klebsiella Mycoplasma • • • • Legionella Chlamydia Pneumocystis jiroveci (PCP, or Pneumocystis pneumonia) Viruses What is CURB65, and how is it useful? CURB65 is a simple severity scoring tool published by the British Medical Society in 2003 for assessing the need for admission and IV antibiotics in patients presenting with community-acquired pneumonia. For each item below , a score of 1 is added. • • • • • Confusion BUN > 19 mg/dL (7 mmol/L) Respiratory Rate ≥ 30 Systolic BP < 90 mmHg or Diastolic BP ≤ 60 mmHg Age ≥ 65 0-1 Predicted 30-day mortality 0-3% - Low risk - May be managed safely as outpatient 2 or greater Predicted 30-day mortality up to 30% - Hospitalize, consider ICU monitoring as score rises [Lim W, M van der Eerden M, Laing R, et al. Defining community acquired pneumonia severity on presentation to hospital: an international derivation and validation study. Thorax. 2003 May; 58(5): 377–382. ] What acute infections are associated with "diffuse ground glass" opacity on pulmonary CT scan? • • Pneumocystis pneumonia Viral pneumonia o Cytomegovirus o Respiratory Syncitial Virus o Herpes simplex o Influenza What are acute non-infectious causes of "diffuse ground glass" opacity on pulmonary CT scan? • • • • Diffuse alveolar hemorrhage (DAH) Pulmonary edema - congestive heart failure or adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS; cytotoxic drugs, viridans streptococci bacteremia) Drug toxicity - cytotoxic drugs (cytarabine, cyclophosphamide, bleomycin, carmustine), amiodarone, gold salts, methotrexate Lymphoma/malignancy What are chronic noninfectious causes of "diffuse ground glass" opacity on pulmonary CT scan? • • Fibrosis Interstitial lung disease • • Sarcoidosis Bronchiolitis obliterans organizing pneumonia (BOOP) What is the differential diagnosis of miliary lung nodules seen on computed tomography? • • • • • • • • Tuberculosis Fungi (Histoplasmosis) Viruses (& post viral changes) Nocardia Malignancy Sarcoidosis Pneumoconiosis Alveolar proteinosis What may cause nodular pneumonia in the immunocompromised and what computed tomography pattern may provide clues? • • • • • • Random, sharp borders Fungal/molds Tuberculosis Metastases Fibrosis/ground glass/peripheral zone Bronchiolitis obliterans organizing pneumonia (BOOP) Which infections common in immunocompromised patients can cause lung infection in immunocompetent patients as well? • • • • • • Aspergillus o Subacute necrotizing Aspergillosis (thinwalled cavities with infiltration into parenchyma over weeks) o Associated with chronic marijuana smoking Fungus ball in empysema cavities ("ball" moves on decubitus films) o Treatment indicated only if rare infiltration into parenchyma is seen o Risk factors for invasion: steroids, diabetes o Hemoptysis suggests bacterial superinfection or erosion—may be severe Nocardia Rhizopus/Mucor Cryptococcus (C. gatti, not C. neoformans) Histoplasmosis Infectious causes of multiple pulmonary nodules: • • • • • Septic emboli/bacteremia Recurrent aspiration with abscesses Fungi o Cryptococcus o Coccidioides o Histoplasma o Blastomyces TB/Atypical mycobacteria Flukes & roundworms o Paragonimus (Asia) o o Toxocara Ascaris What may cause tree-in-bud bronchiolitis appearance on computed tomography of lungs? • • • • • Tuberculosis/atypical mycobacteriae Respiratory Syncytial Virus Adenovirus Mycoplasma Aspergillus in immunocompromised What is the differential diagnosis of a "halo" sign on computed tomography of lungs? • • • A "halo" sign is a nodular consolidation of lung surrounded by a diffuse area radiating out from it. Classic association with Zygomycetes (mucormycosis) in lung. Zygomyces may break through in neutropenic patients receiving extended voriconazole prophylaxis. [Oren I. Breakthrough zygomycosis during empirical voriconazole therapy in febrile patients with neutropenia. Clin Infect Dis. 2005; 40:770-1; Vigouroux S et al. Zygomycosis after prolonged use of voriconazole in immunocompromised patients with hematologic disease: attention required. Clin Infect Dis. 2005; 40:e35-7; Kobayashi K, et al. Breakthrough zygomycosis during voriconazole treatment for invasive aspergillosis. Haematologica. 2004; 89:e42.] What is the differential diagnosis of an "air crescent sign" on computed tomography of lungs? • • • • • • • An air crescent sign refers to the black "crescent" seen around a nodular area inside of a lung cavity. Fungus ball – Aspergillus – patient is asymptomatic– the "ball" changes position on lat decub film, thin walled cavity (under 15mm), fungus ball is a noninvasive ball of hyphae Invasive Aspergillus – typically immunocompromised patient with fever & the air crescent-nodule represent infarcted lung due to angioinvasive fungus Lung abscess with necrotic sequestrum – examples include aspiration in demented patient, Klebsiella/currant jelly sputum in an alcoholic – usually systemically ill patient – the necrotic sequestrum doesn't move, thick walled cavity (over 15mm) TB Lung cancer Pulmonary vasculitides (example, Wegener's granulomatosis) [David M. Hansell, et al. Fleischner Society: Glossary of Terms for Thoracic Imaging Radiology March 2008 246:3 697-722.] What is Bronchiolitis Obliterans Organizing Pneumonia (BOOP), causes, diagnostics, and management? • Nonproductive cough, dyspnea on exertion • • • • • • Flu-like illness Foamy macrophages on open biopsy is gold standard Excessive small airways granulation tissue в†'intraluminal plugs in alveoli/bronchioles Post infectious, drug, CTDz, hypersensitivity Prednisone 1.5mg/k/d QD (solumedrol 125mg Q6H x 3-5 days if rapid progression) x 4-8 wks, taper to 0.5mg/k/d over 4-6 wks, then to zero over 6 mos if stable Cyclophosphamide if no response What is the infectious differential diagnosis for a solitary lung nodule ("coin lesion")? • • • • Endemic fungi (Cryptococcus, Coccidioides, Histoplasmosis) TB & atypical mycobacteria Dirofilaria (dog heartworm) Pneumocystis jiroveci (PCP) What are characteristics of Klebsiella pneumonia, what is the treatment, & who is at risk? • • • "Currant jelly" sputum (hemorrhage/necrosispulmonary gangrene may rarely occurпѓ cavity with dead sequestrum on CT, may look like a "fungus ball" that doesn't move with change in position, or a "crescent cavity" in a patient with K. pneumoniae) Bulging horizontal fissure Lobar infiltrate Treatment: Double Gram negative coverage: • antipseudomonal penicillins (imipenem if severe/ICU)+ quinolone/aminoglycoside (remember: Klebsiella may be ESBL/rapidly becomes resistant) At risk: Alcoholics, Diabetics, COPD Describe aspiration pneumonia, microbes and drug of choice. • • • Patients with seizures and alcoholics aspirate vomited material and get a cavitary abscess in a lower lobe (acid-central lobular necrosis), usually not right away. (Fever, infiltrates with acute aspiration are due to chemical pneumonitis.) Anaerobes are responsible for infection. Treatment: penicillin/clindamycin Name 3 organisms causing micro aspiration pneumonia, characteristic symptoms, and drug of choice. • • • Pneumococcus o Abrupt onset, pleuritic pain, fever, chills and shaking; rust-colored sputum; "normal" patient - lobar pneumonia o ceftriaxone + azithromycin/clarithromycin or quinolone Hemophilus influenza o Associated with bronchitis in patients with chronic lung disease; COPD o ceftriaxone Klebsiella o Alcoholics, drug addicts, DM, COPD, elderly o o in nursing homes "currant jelly" sputum, lung necrosis 3rd or 4th generation cephalosporin, or carbapenem if critically ill (empiric coverage for Extended Spectrum Beta Lactamaseproducing organisms) What diseases are associated with asbestosis and silicosis? • • Asbestosis - cancer - Squamous cell mesothelioma Silicosis - TB What is the Ghon complex? Healed primary TB infection of the lower lobe with associated calcified hilar node. The primary site of pulmonary TB infection. What is Simon's focus? TB infection of upper lobes. This is a secondary site of TB infection via blood/lymphatics from the primary Ghon focus. May cause upper lobe fibrotic changes prior to any active disease. This is the usual reactivation site, with typical TB pneumonia, years after primary infection. OBSTETRICAL & NEONATAL Causes of fever that must not be missed in the postpartum period by time onset: • • • Within 24 hrs: Puerperal sepsis (childbed fever) Group A streptococcus 24-48 hrs: Endometritis - associated with foul-smelling discharge 48-72 hrs: Pelvic thrombophlebitis - associated with septic pulmonary emboli Common causes of postpartum fever in the first 24 hrs: • • • • Breast engorgement Aspiration/atelectasis (after emergent Csections/general anesthesia) UTI Occasionally pelvic deep venous thrombophlebitis List the three periods to be considered in fetal and neonatal infections and the associated viruses: • Congenital o CMV o Rubella • • o HSV o VZV o Vaccinia o Hepatitis B Natal o CMV o HSV o Hepatitis B o Enterovirus Postnatal o CMV o Hepatitis B o Herpes o RSV o Enterovirus List three causes of neonatal conjunctivitis and their times of onset: • • • Gonococcal 3-5 days (heavily purulent) Chemical 0-3 days Chlamydia 5-14 days What is TORCH syndrome? Toxoplasmosis Rubella Cytomegalovirus Herpes simplex 2 (&1) Clinically similar congenital infections caused by Toxoplasma gondii, rubella virus, cytomegalovirus, and herpes simplex virus, types 1 and 2 that are manifested in the neonate by cutaneous manifestations: petechiae, purpurae, jaundice, and dermal erythropoiesis ("blueberry muffin" rash). Risk is greatest if maternal infection acquired in 1st trimester. Name the main antibiotics to avoid in pregnancy: Flagyl QUITS PREGnAnC Flagyl (metronidazole) - 1st trimester QUinolones Interferon Tetracyclines/doxycycline Sulfas*, Streptomycin PZA, Podophyllin Ribavirin Estolate of Erythromycin Griseofulvin Nitrofurantoin* Aminoglycosides n Chloramphenicol *These are now considered to be relatively safe in the 1st trimester if no alternatives available, and safe as first-line agents thereafter in pregnancy. [Sulfonamides, nitrofurantoin, and risk of birth defects. Committee Opinion No. 494. American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists. Obstet Gynecol 2011;117:1484–5.] What do you do if a pregnant woman has a history of genital herpes? • • C-section, only if active lesions or prodrome of herpes outbreak are present at the time of delivery Avoid procedures that may lacerate neonatal skin and introduce HSV Because mothers can shed HSV without active lesions, examination is performed on the newborn delivered vaginally for scalp or oral ulcers; surveillance vaginal HSV culture at delivery &/or culture of neonate's mouth can be done at delivery & at 48 hours. If positive findings, treat neonate for 21 days with acyclovir. Acyclovir given to the laboring mother or empirically to the neonate is not beneficial. What is the risk to newborns born vaginally to a mother with genital herpes? Neonatal disseminated herpes, which can be fatal. What do you do if a mother delivers within 5 days after developing chickenpox (primary varicella), or develops chickenpox up to 2 days after delivery? • • Give the baby Varicella IgG to prevent disseminated neonatal varicella. Women of childbearing age (esp healthcare workers) should receive varicella vaccine prior to pregnancy, if no history of chickenpox. What is the most serious risk of adult chickenpox, highest for women in 3rd trimester pregnancy? • • • Varicella pneumonia. Give Varicella IgG if a non-immune mother is exposed during pregnancy. Give her varicella vaccine after she delivers. A woman in her 1st trimester of pregnancy is exposed to rubella in her college dormitory. She doesn't recall her immunization history. What do you do? This is why preconception vaccination is so important in women of childbearing age (especially at college entry & healthcare fields) & why pre-college physicals should cover this; dorms are a common way to get exposed to vaccine-preventable & other illnesses, since they may be an international "melting pot". • Check Rubella titers; if negative, she has 2 options: o Generally recommended/standard-of-care: If she has been infected with rubella, the risk of severe congenital defects is 30-50%. If the mother will want to have an abortion instead of risking congenital defects, do NOT give IG. Repeat titer in 3 weeks; therapeutic abortion is offered if she seroconverts to + antibody. o If the mother will not want to have an abortion if she is infected, IG may be offered. IG is NOT usually given because it does not prevent fetal rubella infection very well, and will mask whether the mother has seroconverted. It may provide (unreliable) fetal protection. This is why therapeutic abortion is considered safer. SKIN & SOFT TISSUE What types of general skin lesions are there? • • Tumors Rashes What are the types of tumors? • • • • Dermal: nevi, fibromas, polyps, basal cell cancer Epidermal: verruca, seborrheic keratosis, actinic keratosis, squamous cell cancer, keratoacanthoma Papulosquamous (circumscribed): Psoriasis (thick scales), lichen planus (no scales). Polymorphic: papules/lichenification, scales, chronic acute Describe atopic dermatitis and its distribution. • • "The itch that rashes rather than the rash that itches" i.e., small papular lesion resulting in erythema, weeping, and scaling secondary to scratching. Located in flexural areas: neck, antecubital, popliteal folds, eyelids, wrists, behind ears. Describe seborrheic dermatitis and its distribution: • Scaling patches, indistinct margins, mod. erythema, oily, often yellow. • Located on scalp, retro-auricular, eyebrows, eye lids, nasolabial foldsextensor surfaces and distal extremities spared. Describe contact dermatitis and its distribution. • • • • Can be allergic or irritant. Located where the offending substance touched skin. Thousands of causes and morphology possible. Face and hands most common sites. Describe stasis dermatitis and its distribution. • • • Area of cyanotic erythema that is pruritic, painful, and lies over a distended vein that eventually results in ulceration. Most common initial site is area above medial malleolus. Verrucous changes may occur with prolonged stasis, due to microischemia from hydrostatic pressure in the tissues Describe nummular dermatitis and its distribution. • • • • Characteristic round or ringed lesions that appear quickly, do not change in size, ooze and itch, then crust and scale. Affects older men and younger women Exacerbated by hot water. Often located on extensor surfaces of extremities, posterior trunk, buttocks, and lower legs. What is the mechanism of action, microbial spectrum, and resistance mechanism of povidone-iodine? • • • • Mechanism of action: Iodophors release negatively charged free iodine. Free iodine electrophilically binds to enzymes in the respiratory metabolic chain and cell wall proteins in bacteria and fungi (direct killing); it binds hemaglutinins in viruses (prevents binding and infection of cells). More specifically, free iodine substitutes covalently for hydrogen in any available – OH, -SH, -NH, and –CH moieties. Kills most pathogens within 15 seconds to 3 minutes of continuous contact. Drying of the solution on skin permits extended microbicidal action. It may be used in woundshowever, iodine toxicity may occur with extensive area of coverage. Microbial spectrum: o Broad—many bacteria, fungi, protozoa, Mycobacteria, Nocardia, and viruses. o Includes Clostridia, but requires several hours of contact to kill these pathogens. Resistance mechanism: None known, as the mechanism of action is not specific to a single metabolic action, and even low concentrations of free iodine are microbicidal. Note: Free iodine may react with many substrates, and the presence of protein, sulfur compounds (e.g. silver sulfadiazine in a wound), and chlorhexidine may interfere with the effectiveness of povidone iodine. Name 6 types of skin infections, their bacterial causes, and tissues affected. • • • • Impetigo contagiosum - Group A Streptococcus – epidermis (associated with glomerulonephritis) Erysipelas - Group A Streptococcus - dermis (sharp border; raised peau d'orange edema) Cellulitis - Group A Streptococcus /Staphylococci subcutaneous tissue (diffuse border & edematous) Fasciitis - Mixed flora - fascia Myositis - Clostridia muscle Impetigo Bullosum – S. aureus Describe wound infections caused by Staphylococci, Group A Streptococci and Pseudomonas. Staphylococcus aureus - coagulation of plasma and necrosis of soft tissue; well-localized abscess, especially face, neck, groin, post-operative. • Community-acquired MRSA (new culture of MRSA arising in a person who has not been institutionalized or had surgery within the prior 12 months, with no indwelling bladder catheter or • • device that breaks the skin barrier) is now prevalent in some communities on the order of 60% S. aureus admissions and a rising cause of deaths. Characterized by severe rapidly progressive soft tissue infection, including pyomyositis and necrotizing fasciitis. Virulence factor = Panton- Valentine Leukocidin cytotoxin. A common presenting clue is the patient's report of a "spider bite", even when no arachnid was seen, presumably because of the sudden onset of sharp pain and swelling that may suggest such an occurrence—think CA-MRSA. See Necrotizing fasciitis below. Treatment: trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole or doxycycline/minocycline oral if mild (organism may demonstrate inducible resistance to clindamycin; have lab perform testing before relying on this agent); if systemically ill, tigecycline/vancomycin/daptomycin /linezolid IV or oral are much more expensive options. Group A streptococci (GAS)/S. pyogenes • Virulence factor = M protein; early onset; rapid invasion, rapidly evolving cellulitis; life- threatening bacteremia; "flesh-eating bacteria" • Treatment: penicillin-G + (GAS remains highly susceptible to penicillin- G)/- clindamycin (clindamycin inhibits protein synthesis-stops M protein); consider a carbapenem in cases where polymicrobial necrotizing fasciitis is likely, such as Fournier's gangrene (scrotal infection in diabetic) or post intra-abdominal surgery. Pseudomonas • Usually mixed infections • Burn patients, seriously ill patients, severe septicemia • Large amount of necrotic tissue • Musty sweet/foul odor (Pseudomonas smells like • • grape juice in pure culture), blue-greenish discoloration Virulence factor = Collagenases Treatment: burn wound - topical sulfamylon, silvadene and 0.5% silver nitrate; systemic - piperacillintazobactam + tobramycin/ciprofloxacin Name and describe the 2 forms of crepitant cellulitis, as well as synergistic gangrene. Necrotizing fasciitis • Acute mixed infection – Group A Streptococci, Bacteroides, anaerobic streptococci, Clostridium. Community-acquired-MRSA • Key clinical clues to necrotizing fasciitis. o PAIN (deep & often out of proportion to findings) + FEVER. o "Woody" induration of the painful area o Cutaneous anesthesia over the painful area (cutaneous innervation is picked off as the fascia dies) o Violaceous bullae • **50% of the time, necrotizing fasciitis does not present with clinical signs of infection over the painful area.** • Treatment: Wide excision and extensive decompression; intravenous penicillin + clindamycin. Hyperbaric O2/intravenous IG may be helpful adjuncts. Clostridial gangrene • C. perfringens/C. septicum/C. sordelli sepsis • Fever, severe pain, PLUS o antecedent trauma/open fractures, OR o post-abortion endometritisobstetric infection ("pink lady syndrome"—hemolysis), OR o o o o underlying colon cancer "Bronze cellulitis" or pinkish appearance of skin-massive hemolysis Alpha-toxin mediated 3rd-spacing or anasarca Systemic inflammatory response/sepsis List which Gram negative organisms may cause cellulitis and describe the associated conditions. Gram negative bacilli rarely cause cellulitis of unbroken skin, except in certain settings, especially: • • • • • • • • Any Gram negative bacillus - neutropenic fever (absolute neutrophils < 500/mL), organ or hematologic transplantation, cirrhosis, other immune disorders Vibrio species – cirrhosis, iron over load states – exposure to salt or brackish water Pseudomonas, molds – eschar or trauma Aeromonas – fresh water, mud, "mud run" types of races Pasteurella multocida – cat or dog bite or lick in diabetic Hemophilus influenza – orbital cellulitis, elderly Salmonella – reptiles Clostridium septicum – colon cancer, open fracture/dirty trauma, septic abortion What is Crislip's sign in streptococcal cellulitis? Painful inguinal lymphadenopathy, which often precedes or heralds Group A streptococcal cellulitis in the individual with lower extremity lymphedema. [Mark Crislip, MD, personal observation, Rubor, Dolor, Calor, Tumor blog post, 07:44 June 22, 2012; available at http://blogs.medscape.com/rdct ] What is Meleney's progressive synergistic gangrene? Chronic progressive form of mixed infection, Streptococcus (nonhemolytic, microaerophilic) and Staphylococcus aureus • Starts around wound edges/ostomies • Lesion = pale red cellulitis with purplish center, progressively turning gangrenous; ulceration with purplish, grayish, painful margins that extend. • Treatment: wide excision, penicillin + erythromycin What is pyomyositis? • • Previously found mostly in the tropics, now frequently caused by community-acquired MRSA strains + for Panton Valentine Leukocidin toxin (PVL+). Sudden onset of o Fever o severe muscle pain/deep infection, & o abscesses, which may not always be readily apparent at the surface. Treat with aggressive surgical debridement and intravenous antibiotics to cover community-acquired MRSA (See Describe wound infections caused by Staphylococci, Group A Streptoccus and Pseudomonas earlier in this section). Gas gangrene occurs only with some form of trauma? True or false. False. Clostridial (esp. C. septicum) gangrene may occur spontaneously, esp in patients with bowel cancer or neutropenia. It may also recur (spores may persist in previously infected tissue!!). What is very important to remember when treating susceptible skin/soft tissue infections with cephalexin/1st generation cephalosporin given orally? • • • • It NEEDS stomach acid to be absorbed. Many patients today are on acid reducers (prescribed or OTC). Do not use in patients who are on chronic H2 blockers, proton pump inhibitors, or use antacids frequently. Consider clindamycin or doxycycline in patients who are penicillin-allergic, as an alternative. Causes of soft tissue gas: • • Clostridium perfringens/septicum Anaerobes What are the causes of nodular lymphangitis? • • • • • • Sporotrichosis (rose thorns, sphagnum moss) Nocardia (brasiliensis, esp.) Mycobacterium marinum (fish tank granuloma); also M. chelonei/fortuitum Cutaneous leishmaniasis (Leishmania brasiliensis; tropics Francisella tularensis (ulceroglandular or glandular tularemia Bartonella henselae (cat scratch fever) What is the differential diagnosis for pre-auricular lymphadenopathy? (Parinaud's oculoglandular syndrome?) • • • • • • • • TB dacrocystitis Adenoviral conjunctivitis, pharyngoconjunctival fever Chlamydia trachomatis/GC conjunctivitis Cat scratch disease Oculoglandular tularemia Chaga's disease (Trypanosoma cruzi) Lymphoma Acute obstructive hydrocephalus What are causes of periobital edema? • • • Trichinosis (eosinophilia, elevated CPK, low ESR) Chaga's disease (acute -> RomaГ±a's sign) Dermatomyositis (heliotrope rash) What organisms are known to produce toxic shock syndrome? • • Staphylococcus aureus (endotoxin, TTS-1) Group A Streptococcus (exotoxin, Streptococcus pyrogenic exotoxin A) What is toxic shock syndrome & how might you distinguish Staph from Strep toxic shock? Staphylococcus TTS is characterized by septic shock and diffuse erythematous rash like a sunburn, & is associated with: • • • Wounds (especially post-operative, even if they don't look infected) Highly absorbent vaginal tampons Nasal packing (think, "nasal tampon") for epistaxis (ENT docs usually give prophylactic antibiotics; blood provides a perfect culture medium for Staphylococcus aureus, which normally colonizes the anterior nares) Streptococcus TTS is characterized by septic shock and a deep soft tissue infection, esp. necrotizing fasciitis. Consider IVIG. Name a pathogen causing purple facial cellulitis in elderly. Hemophilus influenza (disappearing in children since HiB vaccine introduced) Name the cause of erysipeloid & its treatment: Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae (raw fish, chicken) - penicillin Name 8 causes of non-healing skin ulcer: • • • • • • • • Pyoderma gangrenosum Foreign body Vasculitis Autoimmune Mycobacteria Syphilitic gumma Carcinoma Munchausen's disease (self - mutilation) Name 3 infectious causes of a red face: • • • Toxic shock: Staphylococcus aureus (toxin) Scarlet fever: Group A strep Fifth disease: Parvovirus B-19 Which ectoparasite is a putative pathogen or co-pathogen in seborrheic disorders, such as rosacea? What is the proposed mechanism? What treatments have been reported successful in improving rosacea and ocular blepharitis? • Demodex folliculorum (and perhaps other species) Support for the putative role of Demodex spp., until recently considered a harmless skin commensal, is increasing. It is believed to cause an inflammatory response in the follicles where it resides, and increase in skin or follicular concentration coincides with the age and onset of rosacea. It is strongly implicated in chronic blepharitis, and may play a role in seborrhea, acne, and even eosinophilic folliculitis in those with advanced HIV disease. Interestingly, Bacillus oleronius colonizes Demodex, and has been shown to produce systemic and local inflammatory responses. • • • Rosacea & blepharitis: Oral ivermectin 0.2 mg/kg weekly x 2 +/- oral metronidazole 250mg TID x 2 weeks Blepharitis: Topical 50:50 tea tree oil:mineral oil eyelid scrub weekly + daily 2.5% tea tree shampoo eyelid scrub Blepharitis: Tobramycin/dexamethasone ocular ointment daily x 7 days Name 8 dermatologic conditions starting with E, associated with an infectious process and the agent responsible: • • • • • • • Erythrasma: Corynebacterium minutissimum - easily confused with fungal skin infection - pink under Wood's lamp. Infection seen in the groin area. o Treatment: Erythromycin Erythema infectiosum: Parvovirus B-19 - "Fifth disease" - "slapped- cheek" appearance to face in kids. Livedo reticularis on lower body. Erythema marginatum: rheumatic fever - Group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus Erythema nodosum: All granulomatous disease located on anterior shin - multifactorial infectious etiologies o OFTEN in HSV, Mycoplasma, Histoplasmosis Erythema nodosum leprosum (ENL): painful nodular lesions on extremities in leprosy; Arthus reaction to leprosy o treat with thalidomide. Erythema multiforme: Hypersensitivity reaction macules, vesicles, on distal extremities; annular lesions on lips. o Associated with HSV, Mycoplasma. Erythema migrans: - "Lyme Disease" - bull's eye appearance - Borrelia burgdorferi Name 4 drugs associated with Stevens-Johnson Syndrome or Erythema multiforme: • • Dilantin Phenobarbital • • Sulfonamides Fansidar (Pyrimethimine/Sulfadoxine) for chloroquine-resistant falciparum malaria. What are the common infectious causes of StevensJohnson Syndrome or Erythema multiforme? • • • • Mycoplasma HSV EBV Measles What are the common infectious causes of Erythema nodosum? • • • • • • • • • • • • HSV Mycoplasma Pneumococcus Group A Streptococcus Histoplasmosis Coccidiomycosis Blastomycosis Enteroviruses BCG (Mycobacterium bovis) M. tuberculosis Enterobacter Smallpox vaccination (cowpox-Vaccinia virus-is used in this vaccine) What are non-infectious causes of Erythema nodosum? Same as Stevens-Johnson: mostly drugs. List 5 characteristics of a tetanus-prone wound: • • • • • Depth at least 1cm Duration at least 6 hrs Dimension - puncture of stellate wound Dirty - contaminated/foreign body Devitalized tissue/burns Easily confused diseases: • • Juvenile Rheumatoid Arthritis + Lyme disease Typhoid fever (Salmonella typhi) + Typhus (Rickettsia prowazekii) What may cause recurrent episodes of cellulitis in cartilagous areas such as the ears and nose? Relapsing polychondritis Name the 3 infectious causes of saddle nose deformity/nasal cartilage perforation. • • • Syphilis Lepromatous leprosy Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis (espundia) Name 3 non-infectious causes of saddle-nose deformity/nasal cartilage perforation: • • • Inhaled cocaine Wegener's granulomatosis/lethal midline granulomatosis Relapsing polychondritis Mono Like Sx with a systemic inflammatory disorder in adults characterized by high spiking fevers, arthritis, and (in most cases) an evanescent rash. Still's disease SEXUALLY TRANSMITTED DISEASES (STDs) List 4 common STDs, causative agent, and drug of choice: • • • NGU (Non-Gonococcal urethritis) (Chlamydia) Azithromycin/Doxycycline Syphilis (Treponema pallidum) (hard chancre-painless) - penicillin Gonorrhea (GC) - Ceftriaxone Chancroid (Hemophilus ducreyi) (soft chancre-painful) - Azithromycin/ceftriaxone Which STDs cause painful ulcers? • • Herpes simplex 2 (or 1) Chancroid (Hemophilus ducreyi) Which STDs cause painless ulcers? • • • Syphilis Granuloma inguinale Lymphogranuloma venereum What is the differential diagnosis of proctocolitis related to receptive anal intercourse? • • • Lymphogranuloma venereum (especially men who have sex with men) Herpes Syphilis Can you name an emerging STD other than Chlamydia or gonorrrhea that may cause mild urethritis, cervicitis, and pelvic inflammatory disease? Mycoplasma genitalum What are ocular manifestations of syphilis? • • Argyll-Robertson pupil: Think "A prostitute accommodates but doesn't react." "Gun barrel" (tunnel) vision: Think "shotgun wedding" What are causes of a false + RPR or FTA? Many (any process that involves a strong humoral immune stimulus), such as chronic infections, recurrent bacteremia, recurrent exposures to antigens (blood transfusions, multiparity), etc. Infectious Cause of a + RPR/negative FTA: • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • Leptospirosis Relapsing fever Leprosy Rat bite fever (Spirillum minor) TB Pneumococcal pneumonia Mycoplasma pneumonia Chickenpox Sub-acute bacterial endocarditis Chancroid Scarlet fever Rickettsial disease Malaria Trypanosomiasis Vaccinia vaccine (live virus) Measles Lymphogranuloma venereum Hepatitis Infectious mononucleosis Early HIV infection Noninfectious Causes of a +Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR)/negative Fluorescent Treponemal Antibody (FTA): • • • • Intravenous drug use Any connective disease disorder Rheumatoid heart disease Systemic lupus erythematosis • • • • Blood transfusions (multiple) Pregnancy (especially multiparous women) "Old age" Chronic liver disease Infectious Cause of a + FTA/negative RPR: Lyme disease What constitutes a syphilitic emergency? • • Ocular syphilis (uveitis, optic atrophy/neuropathy, chorioretinitis) Syphilitic otitis Both may present without other manifestations of neurosyphilis and will progress to blindness/deafness if untreated. In what cases is a + FTA alone sufficient justification for treatment for syphilis with IV PCN-G? • In the case of ocular syphilis (uveitis, optic atrophy/neuropathy, chorioretinitis) and syphilitic otitis, both of which may present without other manifestations of neurosyphilis and will progress to blindness/deafness if untreated. Both are often of longstanding duration and RPR, normally used for • • screening, may be negative. Ophthalmology/ENT literature recommends treating both these syndromes as active neurosyphilis on the basis of a +FTA alone if no other cause is found: intravenous penicillin for 14 days. For otitis, there is some data using steroids & more prolonged therapy. CLUES TO NON-INFECTIOUS & INFLAMMATORY CONDITIONS List infectious and noninfectious causes of high erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) (>100*): • • • • • • • • • • • • Osteomyelitis Giant cell arteritis/Polymyalgia rheumatica Collagen vascular disease Inflammatory bowel diseases Multiple myeloma/Hodgkin's lymphoma Subacute Thyroiditis Tissue infarction/necrosis Acute myocardial infarction/thrombophlebitis/thrombosis Chronic renal failure Malignancy Pregnancy/hormone replacement/birth control pills Drug hypersensitivity reactions *Note: Nephrotic syndrome & end-stage renal disease may be associated with ESR >100 in about 20% cases. Remember that anemia falsely raises ESR. What may cause a low erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)? • Trichinosis – history of myalgias & eating undercooked pork! • • • • Very high leukocytosis Polycythemia Red blood cell abnormalities - sickle cell diseas, anisoctyosis, spherocytosis, acanthocytosis, microcytosis Protein abnormalities –hypofibrinogenemia, hypogammaglobulinemia, dysproteinemia with hyperviscosity state Nice review by Brigden ML. Clinical utility of the erythrocyte sedimentation rate. Am Fam Physician. 1999 at http://www.aafp.org/afp/1999/1001/p1443.html What are common non-infectious causes of a neutrophilic leukocytosis? MITTT Metabolic • diabetic ketoacidosis • gout Inflammatory processes • collagen vascular diseases/vasculitis • pancreatitis, pericarditis, others Tissue destruction • burns, trauma/destructive tissue damage • infarctions/ischemia/gangrene • hemolysis/hemorrhage/hematoma/GI bleed • Chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) • Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) • carcinomatosis/cancers (tissue necrosis) Thrombosis • deep or superficial thrombophlebitis, pulmonary embolus • chemical phlebitis due to peripheral IV infiltration Toxic • • drugs; steroids (acute OR chronic), lithium, others heavy tobacco use Which surgical procedures are most associated with needlestick injuries to healthcare workers? General abdominal & oral surgeries, especially: • Small/large bowel procedures • Cholecystectomy • Nephrectomy • Thyroidectomy • Dental extractions, root surgeries, gingival surgeries Should healthcare workers with Hepatitis B, Hepatitis C, or HIV be restricted from work with patients? If so, which criteria are recommended? Yes. Healthcare workers with these conditions should be restricted from the above high risk surgical procedures if viral load is ≥ • HIV ≥ 500 copies/mL (or genome equivalents/mL) • HBV ≥ 10,000 copies/mL (or genome equivalents/mL) • HCV ≥ 10,000 copies/mL (or genome equivalents/mL) How can you distinguish leukemoid reactions/severe neutrophilic leukocytosis (High WBC +/- high PLTs) from CML? Chronic myelogenous leukemia • Splenomegaly • Low leukocyte alkaline phosphatase • High uric acid • T9,22 (Philadelphia chromosome) • bcr/abl gene Leukemoid reaction • No splenomegaly • HIGH leukocyte alkaline phosphatase • Normal uric acid What are 3 major causes of an elevated total protein? • HIV • TB • Multiple myeloma Due to elevated immunoglobulins. What infections are worth testing for in evaluating nonspecific chronic fatigue? • • Chronic active hepatitis C (HCV), less often chronic hepatitis B (HBV) HIV What common drugs may be associated with unexplained lymphadenopathy? • • • • • • • • • Allopurinol Atenolol Penicillins Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole Captopril Carbamazepine Hydralazine Phenytoin Pyrimethamine Gold What can give you a false + blood culture by the Bactec T/Alert system? • • • Leukocytosis Red blood cells Coincident antibiotic use by the patient Why? Bacteria growing in the medium produce CO2. Once the levels are high enough, CO2 crosses the semi-permeable membrane at the base of the Bactec bottle and produces a color change in the colorimetric CO2 sensor. The change is detected by a colorimetric scanner and the bottle is flagged. The micro tech then performs a Gram stain or acridine orange stain to determine whether bacteria are present, as well as a subculture to solid media. The culture is reported as + only if the stain and/or culture are +. RBCs may produce some background CO2, as will high WBC. [Streptococcus pneumoniae sometimes may give a false negative. In culture, Streptococcus pneumoniae may lyse RBCs as well as itself ("chocolatizing" the medium), while producing CO2 & flagging +. The stains, and possibly the culture, may be negative because of lysis—it may look like a false + by Bactec alarm, but in reality be a false – by stain and culture.] Besides leukocytosis, how can a complete blood count provide clues to an undrained abscess or developing abscess (phlegmon)? Reactive thrombocytosis Noninfectious causes (5) of acute pulmonary infiltrates: • • • • • Aspiration Congestive heart failure Pulmonary embolus Hemorrhage Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome List the causes of a monocytosis: • • • • Infective endocarditis (subacute) Disseminated TB Typhoid fever Malaria • • • • Visceral Leishmaniasis (kala azar) Collagen vascular diseases Myelodysplastic syndromes/malignancy Helicobacter pylori List the causes of a lymphocytosis: • • • • • • • • Tuberculosis Toxoplasmosis Pertussis Viruses o Epstein Barr Virus o Cytomegalovirus Varicella zoster (Herpes zoster) Acute or Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia Immunization, autoimmune diseases, graft rejection Hypothyroidism Relative lymphocytosis associated with granulocytopenia List the causes of an eosinophilia: • Parasitosis o Helminths o Strongyloides o Visceral larva migrans (Toxocara) o Hookworms o filariasis o Gastroenteritis due to Isospora or Dientamoeba (NOT other protozoa) • • • Atopy/asthma/allergies Hematologic malignancies Drugs – many List 5 acute phase reactants (increase with infection, trauma, inflammation, or malignancy): • • • • • C-reactive protein ESR Ferritin Haptoglobin White blood cells, especially immature forms/bands ("left-shift") Platelets Causes of thrombocytosis: • • • Fe++ deficiency Reactive o inflammation o infection (undrained abscesses, especially splenic abscess; TB) o rebound Myeloproliferative disorders/myelodysplastic syndrome What is PFAPA syndrome? • • • • Periodic Fever Aphthous stomatitis Pharyngitis Adenitis (cervical) • • • Recurrence of the above symptoms every 3-6 weeks Onset before 5 years of age Inflammatory markers elevated: leukocytosis, erythrocyte sedimentation rate • Also referred to as Marshall's syndrome, for the clinician who first reported it. Marshall GS, Edwards KM, Butler J, Lawton AR. Syndrome of periodic fever, pharyngitis, and aphthous stomatitis. J Pediatr 1987;110:43-46; Marshall GS, Edwards KM. PFAPA syndrome [letter]. Pediatr Infect Dis J 1989;8:658-659. List 4 noninfectious conditions that should be considered when investigating Chronic Fatigue Syndrome. • • • • Hypothyroidism Anemia Rheumatologic disorder (e.g. RA, fibrositis/fibromyalgia, SLE) Depression What about infectious conditions? Chronic hepatitis, especially hepatitis C. Name 3 hallmarks of each of the following diseases: • • • • • Rheumatoid Arthritis - Serositis, Nodules, Vasculitis. Wegener's Granulomatosis - Sinusitis, Bronchitis, Nephritis Behcet's Syndrome - Genital & oral ulcers, Uveitis, Aseptic meningitis Amyloidosis - Macroglossia, Nephropathy (proteinuria), Peripheral neuropathy Sjogren's Syndrome - Keratoconjunctivitis sicca, Xerostomia, Parotitis What conditions cause ascending aortitis and aortic branch vasculitis? Syphilis (tertiary) - the Great Imitator! Takayasu's vasculitis (also pulmonary arteritis) D Sarcoidosis (rarely but it happens) What conditions cause pulmonary arteritis? Pulmonary artery aneurysms on high-resolution CT • Bechet's (Hugh-Stovin syndrome, a variant of Bechet's) Pulmonary artery stenoses on high-resolution CT • Takayasu's • Giant Cell arteritis Acute focal lung hemorrhage (large pulmonary arteries) • Bechet's • Less often Takayasu's, Giant Cell arteritis Diffuse Alveolar Hemorrhage (DAH) (bilateral "ground glass" airspace disease sparing apices, anemia, +/- hemoptysis; hypoxia; capillaritis on path) • Wegener's (glomerulonephritis, +anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic auto-antibodies [ANCA]) • Churgg-Strauss (+ANCA and asthma, eosinophilia >10%, neuropathy) • Systemic lupus erythematosus (immune complexes on lung biopsy) • Microscopic polyangiitis (glomerulonephritis on renal biopsy) [Marten K, Schnyder P, Eckart S et al. Pattern-based Differential Diagnosis in Pulmonary Vasculitis Using Volumetric CT. AIR 2005;184(3):720-733.] Name the 5 components of the CREST Syndrome. Chondrocalcinosis Raynaud's syndrome Esophageal dysmotility Scleroderma Telangiectasia What joints of the hand do the following affect? • • • Psoriasis- distal interphalangeal joint RA – proximal interphalangeal joint, metacarpophalangeals Hemochromatosis - metacarpophalangeals of the 2nd and 3rd fingers • Osteoarthritis - all joints Where are Heberdens's nodes? • • Dorsolateral and medial aspect of the distal interphalangeal joints of the fingers. They are associated with osteoarthritis. Where are Bouchard's nodes? • • At the PIP joints. Also associated with osteoarthritis. Give the 11 revised criteria for classification of systemic lupus erythematosis (SLE): SOAP BRAIN MD (John T. Sinnott, M.D.'s mnemonic) Serositis - pleuritis, pericarditis Oral ulcers - nasopharyngeal ulceration, usually painless Arthritis - nonerosive with 2 or more peripheral joints tenderness, swelling, effusion. Photosensitivity - sunlight - rash Blood disorders - hemolytic anemia, leukopenia, lymphopenia, or thrombocytopenia. Renal - proteinuria or cellular casts ANA (antinuclear antibodies) Immunologic disorders: +LE cell prep or anti-dsDNA; false + Rapid Plasma Reagin Neurologic disorders Malar rash - fixed erythema over the malar eminences, spares nasolabial folds. Discoid rash - erythematous, raised patches with scaling & follicular plugging; atrophic scarring may occur with old lesions. Discoid & drug-induced lupus spare the kidneys. Rheumatoid arthritis is a systemic illness that may present with fever during flares. What are the 3 components of this disease? • • • Nodules on extensor surfaces Serositis Vasculitis What syndromes are associated with HLA B-27? Ankylosing spondylitis/Inflammatory Bowel Disease spondylitis Anterior uveitis Reiter's syndrome Psoriatic arthritis What syndromes are associated with HLA D types? • • • • • Sjogren's syndrome Myasthenia gravis Addison's disease Celiac sprue Chronic Hepatitis • • • • • IDDM Thyrotoxicosis Hodgkin's disease Multiple sclerosis SLE Name 5 types of cytokines. • • • • • Interferons (IFN) Interleukins (IL) Growth factors (GF) Tumor Necrosis Factor (TNF) Colony Stimulating Factor (CSF) Name 3 types of interferon, an important source, and action. • • • IFN-alpha – Leukocytes - Antiviral/antitumor via NKcells and macrophages IFN-beta – Fibroblast - Same IFN-gamma - T-cells - Antiviral/antitumor and immunoregulatory, esp. via macrophages. Describe the action of 6 interleukins. LeT'S BBB IT-1 Lymphocyte Activating Factor (T-cells) IL-2 IL-3 IL-4 IL-5 IL-6 T-cell Growth Factor Stem cell Growth Factor (Colony Stimulating Factor) B-cell Growth Factor B-cell differentiation Factor B-cell Maturation Factor Which interleukin is not produced primarily by T-cells? IL-1 is produced by macrophages. The production of which interleukin is directly blocked by cyclosporine? IL-2 Name 5 types of growth factors. PDGF Platelet Derived Growth Factor FGF Fibroblast Growth Factor NGF Nerve Growth Factor EGF Epithelial Growth Factor TGF Tumor Growth Factor beta Colony stimulating factors enhance the growth and differentiation of bone marrow stem cells. Name the 5 types of CSF's, and the stem cells they affect. G-CSF, Granulocyte SF, Macrophage GM-CSF, Granulocyte/Macrophage IL-3, Pluripotent stem cells Erythropoietin, Erythroid stem cells IMMUNODEFICIENCY & CANCER What is the commonest cause of immunodeficiency globally? Malnutrition. Predisposes to gastroenteritis and pneumonia. What are the commonest types of immunodeficiency in adults? • • Antibody defects or deficiency Complement deficiency List infectious and non-infectious clues to immunodeficiency in adults: Infectious • Frequent infections • Unusual severity of infections • Prolonged or refractory infections • Unusual pathogens • Family history of autoimmunity or malignancy Non-infectious • Poor wound healing • Poor dentition • Bronchiectasis of undetermined cause Patterns of infection, immunodeficiency, and pathogens of concern: • • • Recurrent sinus, lung infections Meningitis Bacteremia o Immunoglobulin or Complement defect o пЂ pneumococcus o Hemophilus influenza o Neisseria meningitides o Campylobacter o Giardia • Recurrent abscesses not related to apocrine areas/foreign bodies/S. aureus colonization o пЂ Neutrophil defect o Staphylococcus aureus o Gram negative bacilli o Aspergillus o Nocardia • Opportunitistic viruses, fungi o T cell/cell mediated immunodeficiency o пЂ Candida o Cryptococcus o CMV, HSV o Mycobacteria • • • Eczema, mucocutaneous yeast Skin/soft tissue infections Respiratory tract infections o Job's syndrome/hyperimmunoglobulin E o look for IGE > 2000 IU/mL • • • • Hemolytic anemia with fava beans (favism) or sulfa drugs Recurrent pneumonia Severe skin/soft tissue infection o пЂ severe G6PD deficiency o пЂ usually <5-10% G6PD activity o confers some immunity to malaria (like sickle cell disease) by increasing splenic clearance of infected cells Recurrent Staphylococcus aureus furunculosis/boils o look for areas of S. aureus colonization other than nares & apocrine areas:  Untreated eczema, psoriasis  chronically abnormal skin such as dishydrotic eczema/pompholyx List 3 types of B-cell deficiencies. • • IgA deficiency (Most common immunodeficiency in developed nations.) Bruton's hypogammaglobulinemia Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID) What diseases are associated with IgA deficiency & CVID? Sinusitis, otitis and bronchitis (H. flu, pneumococcus). Name 5 types of T-cell deficiency. • • • • DiGeorge Syndrome (neonatal tetany & thymus hypoplasia) Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis (ketoconazole prophylaxis) SCID (Severe Combined Immunodeficiency) Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome Ataxia-telangiectasia What are 3 types of SCID? • • • Adenosine deaminase deficiency (Treatment: 1 unit of blood on first day of life) Reticular dysgenesis (decreased neutrophils & T-cells) Swiss-type immunodeficiency (no B or T-cells) What are the characteristics of Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome? It's a MITE found in males: Males - excess bleeding of umbilical stump or circumcision site! Immunodeficiency Thrombocytopenia Eczema What heralds the presence of leukocyte adhesion disorder? • • Non-purulent infection of the umbilical stump Delayed separation of the umbilical stump. What are the characteristics & treatment of Ataxia Telangiectasia? • • Characteristics: Ataxia, telangiectasias, & liver degeneration Treatment: Gamma globulin What are the types of nonspecific immune defects? Neutrophil defects = COIN Chemotaxis - as in lazy leukocyte syndrome Opsonization (Pneumococcus, Hemophilus) Ingestion - intracellular killing - as in Chediak-Higashi Syndrome & chronic granulomatous disease. Characterized by intracellular inclusions & Staphylococcus abscesses in brain, liver, & lungs. What infections suggest a terminal complement defect? • • • • Chronic/recurrent gonococcemia Meningococcemia in adult without meningismus Less severe disease, low CH50 If >1 episode Neisseria in BLOOD, check for terminal complement defect! What are some secondary causes for immune deficiency in adults that are not caused by HIV, drugs, or splenectomy? And what is the defect, if known? • • • • • • • • • • Diabetes mellitus (hyperglycemia causes decreased neutrophil chemotaxis and phagocytosis, decreased opsonization by complement; vascular ischemia) Cirrhosis (increased endogenous glucocorticoidпѓ пЂ deficient natural killer cell activity, decreased complement level/functionпѓ пЂ sepsis, peritonitis) Nephrotic syndrome (urinary losses/hypogammaglobulinemiaпѓ peritonitis common) Hemodialysis/uremia (mechanism not known but decreased T cell/neutrophil activity) Peritoneal dialysis (complement & IG is removed with dialysateпѓ reduced neutrophil function, peritonitis) Autoimmune diseases Saphenous vein harvesting/venous stasis/chronic lymphedema (pooled lymph = culture medium) Cancers Protein calorie malnutrition (decreased phagocytosis, T cell function, reduced specific antibody function) Trauma/BURNS (necrosis releases large amounts of tumor necrosis factor/IL-1; add the loss of dermis with burns) Infectious diseases associated with immune defects: • • • • • Measles (macrophage/antigen-presenting cell dysfunction)пѓ пЂ Gram negative rod pneumonia Cytomegalovirus (acute T cell dysfunction, reduced gamma globulin production) Superantigen-producing bacteria – S. aureus, Group A strep (T cell anergy after cytokine storm/systemic inflammatory response) Mycobacteria (organism deactivates the monocytes it infects) Protozoa – trypanosomes , leishmaniasis, malaria* (macrophage/antigen presenting cell dysfunction) *Malaria induces cytotoxic T cell dysfunction in EBV-infected cells пѓ predisposes to EBV-associated/Burkitt's lymphoma Name the chemotherapy agents associated with the following side effect: • • • • • • • Hepatotoxicity o Methotrexate (MTX) o Asparaginase o Mercaptopurine o Adriamycin Hemorrhagic cystitis - Cyclophosphamide Neurotoxicity o MTX o Vincristine, vinblastine Cardiotoxicity Adriamycin Doxo- & daunorubicin Nephrotoxicity o Platinum • o MTX o Streptozocin Cell mediated immunodeficiency - Fludarabine (esp with steroids) Malignancies associated with/caused by infections and the associated pathogens: 1/3 of cancers in those over 50 is caused by infection! • Human papilloma virus (especially types 16, 18) o Squamous cell cervical/vaginal/vulvar, penile, anal, head & neck • Hepatitis B, C o Hepatocellular carcinoma • Chronic osteomyelitis/sinus tracts o Squamous cell carcinoma • Epstein Barr Virus o endemic type Burkitt's lymphoma (B cell lymphoma) • Helicobacter pylori o gastric carcinoma • HIV o B cell lymphomas • Schistosoma o Bladder carcinoma • Human herpes virus 8 (HHV8) o Kaposi's sarcoma • Merkel cell polyomavirus o Merkel cell carcinoma • Human T-cell Lymphotrophic Virus I o Adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma • Liver flukes o Cholangiocarcinoma Hematologic malignancies associated with increased infection risks: Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) • Hypogammaglobulinemia, neutropenia, reduced CD4 • Give IVIG if IgG levels low • At risk for Pneumocystis, Listeria • Add Pneumocystis prophylaxis if also on fludarabine (markedly drops CD4) Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) • Steroids - risk for Pneumocystis - add Pneumocystis prophylaxis during therapy Intermediate-high grade non-Hodgkin's lymphoma (NHL) • Treatment-related neutropenia • Fludarabine - risk for Pneumocystis - add Pneumocystis prophylaxis during therapy Multiple myeloma (MM) • Hypogammaglobulinemia (<20% of normal, may need IGG replacement), reduced humoral response to antigen challenge, cell mediated immune deficiency • Sepsis/pneumococcus • Infection risk highest in 1st 2 months chemotherapy Acute Myelocytic Leukemia (AML) • High dose cytosine arabinoside (Ara-C, HiDAC regimen)-associated with substantial GI mucositis • expect fevers during neutropenia, Gram negative bacillus sepsis Chronic Myelocytic Leukemia (CML) • Hypogammaglobulinemia, cell mediated immune deficiency Myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) • Neutropenia Hairy Cell Leukemia (HCL) • 40% have under 500 cells/mm3 neutrophil count • • Poor intracellular killing Pyogenic infections are common Lymphoproliferative disorders with "functional neutropenia" (poorly functioning neutrophils despite normal - high WBC): • • • • • AML – able to phagocytize but poor intracellular killing ALL – poor intracellular killing CLL – mild-moderate neutropenia CML – poor phagocytosis, poor chemotaxis, blast crisis (high# WBC) Hairy Cell Leukemia - poor intracellular killing on top of absolute neutropenia Define neutropenia, and describe a timeline for worrisome infections. • Absolute Neutrophil Count (ANC) = total WBC x (% neutrophils + % bands) o e.g. ANC = 7,000 cells/mm3 x (30% neutrophil + 5% blasts) = 7,000 x 0.35 = 2,450 • Neutropenia = ANC under 1,500 cells/mm3 Per the classic reference: Bodey GP et al. Quantitative relationships between circulating leukocytes and infection in patients with acute leukemia. Ann Int Med 1966; 64:328-40: • Under 500 cells/mm3 = increased risk of severe • • infection begins to rise. o ANC < 1000/mm3 = 20% infection o ANC < 500/mm3 = >35% infection o ANC < 100/mm3 = >50% infection Infection risk rises with duration and depth of neutropenia. Severe neutropenia (ANC < 100/mm3) over 3 weeks = 100% infection risk Define the infection risk periods during febrile neutropenia, and the most likely sources/sites/types of infections seen in each. Day 0-7 • Skin, gut translocation, terminal ileitis/typhlitis • Gram negative bacilli, anaerobes • While on empiric anti-Pseudomonal/Gram negative bacillus coverage o S. aureus, viridians Streptococci, Corynebacterium Day 7-14 • Gut translocation, line-related bacteremia • Gram negative bacillus, Gram positive coccus (MRSA/VRE), yeasts (especially while on broadspectrum antibiotics), anaerobes Day 14+ (prolonged neutropenia) • Gut, skin, hospital-associated (lung/bloodstream/UTI) • Gram negative bacillus (include multidrug resistant), Gram positive coccus (include coagulase negative Staphylococcus, MRSA/VRE), Gram positive bacillus (Bacillus, Corynebacterium JK), yeasts • Mouth/teeth, пЂ oral anaerobes (Clostridia, Capnocytophagia, Fusobacterium) • Lung/SINUSES, molds (environmental exposure, especially during construction/remodeling in hospital) • Reactivation: herpes simplex, varicella/zoster, CMV, adenovirus, BK virus List 5 opportunistic organisms often causing pulmonary infection in immunocompromised patients. What stain is used histologically? CPLANT Cytomegalovirus – hematoxylin and eosin (H & E) stain Pneumocystis jiroveci - Gomorri methenamine silver Legionella pneumophila - Dieterle silver Aspergillus - Gomorri methenamine silver Nocardia - Modified acid fast Toxoplasma gondii - Immunoperoxidase Name the three post-solid organ/-hematologic transplant periods, and the associated infections: • EARLY PERIOD (0-30 DAYS) o Nosocomial Infection • IMMUNOSUPRESSED PERIOD (30-180 DAYS) o Opportunistic Infections PLANT Infections o CNS - Listeria/Cryptococcus o Fever of unknown origin/GI-CMV • LATE PERIOD (180 + DAYS) o Community Infections Name conditions and infections of concern in allogeneic bone marrow transplant recipients. Post-engraftment period (new marrow cells being produced & no longer neutropenic) • Cell mediated immune deficiency persists • Graft vs. Host Disease (steroids & cytosine arabinoside reduce immunity) • Sinopulmonary molds remain a risk indefinitely • CMV, herpes, varicella - acyclovir/ganciclovir prophylaxis, weekly CMV PCR • BK virus - hemorrhagic cystitis • HHV6 • Viral pneumonia with community respiratory viruses (RSV, influenza, parainfluenza, adenovirus, rhinovirus, human metapneumovirus) • Diffuse alveolar hemorrhage What infections, immune insults, & toxicities are associated with which immunosuppressive agents? Cyclosporine/Cytosine arabinoside/ara-C/tacrolimus/cell mediated/CMV bacterial pneumonias • renal insufficiency • tremor • hepatotoxicity Azathioprine (Imuran/cell mediated) • pancytopenias • pancreatitis/hepatitis • skin cancers Mycophenolate mofetil (Cellcept)/cell mediated/CMV • diarrhea Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan)/chlorambucil/cell mediated • hemorrhagic cystitis • bone marrow suppression • Pneumocystis (with concomitant corticosteroids ≥ 20mg prednisone equivalent daily for over 30 days) Methotrexate/mild lymphoid suppression/concomitant steroids (especially with rheumatic disease) • Pneumocystis • CMV • Fungal • Nocardia • hepatitis • TNF-alpha blockers (etanercept, infliximab)/cell mediated • • • • TB Histoplasma, Aspergillus, Coccidioides, others Pneumocystis Listeria Purine analogs (fludarabine, cladribine, pentostat)/lymphopenia/CD4 suppression • Pneumocystis • S. aureus, Gram negative bacilli • Listeria • Disseminated VZV • CMV • Legionella • Nocardia • Monoclonal antibodies Temozolomide plus radiotherapy • Pneumocystis – while lymphopenic Monoclonal antibodies (rituximab/ alemtuzumab)/IgG & cell mediated • CMV (alveolar hemorrhage/hemorrhagic pneumonitis), HSV • Pneumocystis • Aspergillus, Mucor, Cryptococcus • Skin infections • Otitis media • HSV risk up to 12 months later Anti-tumor necrosis factor (anti-TNF) agents • Pneumocystis (with concomitant corticosteroids ≥ 20mg prednisone equivalent daily for over 30 days) All: post transplantation B cell lymphomas (EBV) associated with • Level of immunosuppression, especially antithymocyte therapies, OKT3 • EBV seronegativity What are the important antimicrobial interactions with cytosine arabinoside (CyA)? Reduces CyA • PRECIPITATES REJECTION • Rifampin, INH-remember "Rifampin Rejection" Elevates CyA • Azole antifungals • Erythromycin/clarithromycin What diseases does BK virus produce? • • • Hemorrhagic cystitis Urethral stenosis Hepatic dysfunction, esp in bone marrow/neutropenic patients. What are the reactivation rates for BK and JC viruses? BK - 50% JC - 5% Name 2 types of post-transplant EBV disease and time of occurrence. • • Young: 9 months post-transplant - viral illness Old: 6 years post-transplant - tumor mass Name 5 major types of immunosuppressive agents used in transplantation: Corticosteroids • most broadly acting • block release of IL I-V • decrease gamma –IFN • decrease Ab production • blunt inflammatory response by membrane stabilization Cytotoxins • Azathioprine • purine analog • interrupts DNA synthesis cyclophosphamide Antilymphocytic Antibodies • OKT3 - blind T-cell CD3 receptor FK506-associated with posttransplant lymphoma Cyclosporine - inhibits proliferation of T-4 helper cells (blocks IL-S) Radiation therapy What microorganism is used in the treatment of bladder cancer & why? A live attenuated strain of Bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG), Mycobacterium bovis, is used as therapy for superficial bladder cancer. It is believed to stimulate Th1 immune response. What is an uncommon infectious complication of BCG treatments? • • • Disseminated BCG with hypersensitivity response and granulomas, with or without culturable organism. Manifestation ranges from cystitis to systemic inflammatory response. Treatment includes antitubercular agents and corticosteroids. List a differential diagnosis for non-infectious causes of pulmonary infiltrates in cancer patients. • • • • Congestive heart failure/fluid overload o coronary artery disease, IL-2 direct cardiotoxicity Non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema o adult respiratory distress syndrome/ARDS, cytarabine, IL-2 Pulmonary embolus o hypercoagulable state Neoplasm o metastasis, lymphangitic spread, leukemic infiltrates with WBC >100,000 cells/mm3 in • • • AML/CML Diffuse alveolar hemorrhage o autologous/allogeneic bone marrow transplantation o sudden dyspnea, dry cough (no blood), fever, blood in BAL; give steroids Bronchiolitis obliterans organizing pneumonia (BOOP) o post-BMT, esp with chronic graft-versus-host disease/GVHD); give steroids Drug-related o busulfan, bleomycin, carmustine, methotrexate o less often: cyclophosphamide, mitomycin, 6mercaptopurine, semustine, vinblastine, etoposide Bacteremia with which organism is associated with adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) in the neutropenic leukemic patient? How can you prevent ARDS in this setting? • • • Viridans streptococci, especially Streptococcus mitis Corticosteroids given at the onset of bacteremia can prevent ARDS or ameliorate it if given at the onset of dyspnea. Aggressive cytotoxic drug treatment and streptococcal sepsis probably combine to exacerbate cytokine release with capillary leak. Viridans streptococcal bacteremia is probably related to increased mucosal injury with aggressive cytotoxic agents; quinolone prophylaxis during neutropenia may provide selective pressure toward Gram positive organisms. What is "cord colitis"? Describe what it is, what patient population it occurs in, diagnostics/differential diagnosis, suspected etiologic agent, and treatment. • • • • • • • • • • Cord colitis syndrome (CCS) Culture-negative, refractory diarrheal illness occurring in umbilical cord blood transplant recipients Presentation: Granulomatous inflammation of the upper and lower gastrointestinal tract Differential diagnosis: acute graft-versus-host disease Diagnostics: Endoscopic biopsy for granulomatous histopathology Special/immunohistochemical stains for infectious organisms are negative PCR for Bradyrhizobium enterica if available Treatment: Prompt response to ciprofloxacin and metronidazole. Therapeutic trial may help rule out GVHD. [Gupta NK, et al. Am J Surg Pathol. 2013 Jul;37(7):110913; Bhatt AS, et al. N Engl J Med. 2013 Aug 8;369(6):517-28.] What types of infection are associated with brain cancer? Postoperative infections—surgical wound infections, subgaleal/subdural abscess, meningitis What are risk factors for postoperative infection in brain cancer? • • • • • • • CSF leak Prior neurosurgery Chemotherapy Radiation therapy (also radionecrosis, which can develop osteomyelitis) Prolonged steroids Prior surgical wound infection Prolonged operative time Gliadel chemotherapy wafer insertion into tumor cavity What organisms cause infection in brain cancer? S. aureus, Gram negative bacillus, Propionobacterium acnes, coagulase negative Staphylococci, anaerobic streptococci (especially post sinus surgery) What infections are associated with ENT cancers? • • • • Herpes reactivation, thrush Surgical site infection - 10-20% wound infection rate Saliva contains 108 CFU/mL (compared to 105 CFU/mL infected soft tissue) S. aureus, Gram negative bacillus, Candida, anaerobic streptococcus, herpes simplex What risk factors are associated with infection in ENT cancers? • • • • • • Xerostomia - gingivitis, dental disease Mucositis - with chemotherapy/XRT Prolonged OR time Peri-operative blood transfusion Flap reconstructions Radionecrosis of the mandible - polymicrobial, osteomyelitis What infections are associated with lung cancers? Which organisms? • • • • Pneumonia at any time, especially obstructive Broncho-pleural fistula (BPF)/Empyema postoperative Surgical wound infection post-operative S. aureus/MRSA, Gram negative bacillus, alpha streptococci, Candida (empyema due to BPF, not pneumonia), Legionella, non-TB mycobacteria What infections may be associated with colon cancer? • Post-operative o surgical wound infection o perforation/intra-abdominal abscess (also preOP & with radiation colitis) o mesh infections enterocutaneous fistulas (also with radiation colitis) o With abdominal-perineal resections: perineal abscess, pre-sacral abscess, sacro-iliac osteomyelitis S. aureus, Gram negative bacillus, Enterococcus/VRE, Candida o • Mr. X received 5-flourouracil for head and neck cancer. Watery diarrhea began a couple of days later and has been refractory through the neutropenic period. Three weeks after chemotherapy he is admitted with bloody diarrhea and shock. MRSA is cultured from stool and you are asked if this is relevant. Indirectly. If the patient has dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase deficiency, however, this may preclude metabolism and elimination of 5-FU, so that severe mucositis/colitis may occur after a few weeks. Shock may be associated with gut translocation, therefore, in this setting, it's probably wise to include coverage for the MRSA in the stool along with any broad-spectrum regimen covering colitis and sepsis. What properties of Streptococcus bovis/gallinarum promote its association with colon cancers? • • S. bovis/gallinarus antigens induce production of proinflammatory cytokines, angiogenesis, local vasodilation/capillary permeability S. bovis/gallinarus adheres strongly to connective tissues, survives in bile acids/escapes hepatic RE • • system Thus, this organism is able to translocate easily from gut/biliary tree, adhere to colonic epithelium and endothelial sites of turbulent flow, and trigger neoplasia in the colonic tissues to which it adheres. This organism can be found colonizing colorectal tumors as well. This organism stimulates high levels of specific IGG in colonized persons. Some researchers have proposed that high SBG IGG may serve as an early marker for colorectal cancer risk. [Abdulamir et al.: The association of Streptococcus bovis/gallolyticus with colorectal tumors: The nature and the underlying mechanisms of its etiological role. Journal of Experimental & Clinical Cancer Research 2011 30:11.] Define myeloproliferative disorders and name 6: Definition: Clinical condition resulting from uncontrolled expansion of all bone marrow elements. Polycythemia vera - inc. RBC's Essential thrombocytosis Agnogenic myeloid metaplasia (pancytopenia), acute myelogenous leukemia (AML) CML - inc. WBC's Erythroleukemia Splenomegaly results from extramedullary hematopoiesis Tumors associated with EBV: • • • Burkitt's lymphoma Nasopharyngeal carcinoma B-cell lymphoma in immunosuppressed patients Name the 6 tumors that often metastasize to bone: • • • • • • Kidney Thyroid Lung Prostate Testes Breast What are risk factors for infection in breast cancer? What organisms are common? • • • • • • • Surgical wound & drains Breast implant/expander Post-operative seroma Myocutaneous flaps Smoking - flap necrosis/infection Lymphedema Prior skin/soft tissue infection radiation therapy/XRT • S. aureus/MRSA, beta streptococci, Gram negative bacillus, rapid growing Mycobacteria What causes skin/soft tissue infections in cancer patients? • • • • • Impaired lymphatic drainage, edema o Surgeries, tumor invasion, lymph node dissections Wound infections Surgeries Reduced if radiation therapy is delayed 3-4 weeks postoperative Group A streptococci, S. aureus/MRSA, Gram negative bacillus, polymicrobial What are the sources of infection in catheter-associated bacteremia? Skin > catheter hub > hematogenous > infusates = wash your hands :} What is the most significant infectious complication related to radiation therapy (XRT) to head, long bones & spine? Radionecrosis with resulting cellulitis and possibly osteomyelitis (infection of dead bone) • Head - regional flora • Long bone/spine - skin/hematogenous organisms What is the most significant infectious complications related to radiation therapy (XRT) to the thorax? • • • Community- & hospital-acquired respiratory pathogens, Aspergillus (esp with nodules/cavities) Radiation-damage esophagitis o Superimposed herpes simplex, CMV, yeast Radiation-damaged alveoli/radiation pneumonitis/fibrosis/pleuritis/BOOP o Recurrent pneumonia? o Think radiation tracheo-esophageal fistula with aspiration! Does XRT have immune-associated effects other than local tissue damage? Yes. There is a small drop in chemotaxis of neutrophils for about 3 days after XRT. • Early in XRT = epithelial cell death (mucositis, xerostomia, proctitis) • Later (6 months+) = reduced fibroblasts, poor wound healing, fibrosis, reduced vascularity What infections may be increased in Systemic Lupus Erythematosis and why? • • • • • • Salmonella bacteremia Shingles CMV Parvovirus B 19 Pneumococcus Nocardia (steroids) • Because of: Complement deficiency CD4 lymphopenia Functional asplenia Steroids Note that homozygous early complement deficiency (C1q,r,s; C2,C4) is associated with sinopulmonary disease, pneumococcal infections, and development of systemic lupus erythematosus. CH50 will be very low. • What pathogen may superinfect in Wegener's granulomatosis? Staphylococcus aureus List 4 infectious agents that splenectomized patients are susceptible to. BEDS Babesiosis Encapsulated organisms (Pneumococcus, Hemophilus, Klebsiella) DF-2 (dysgenic fermenters), now Capnocytophaga canimorsus Salmonella HUMAN IMMUNODEFICIENCY VIRUS (HIV) List the differential diagnosis of opportunistic infections in HIV by absolute CD4 count, and note prophylaxis, if any. Absolute CD4 (cells/mL): Any CD4 • TB – screen for symptoms regularly; screen asymptomatic patients with CXR PA/lat & PPD or interferon gamma release assay (IGRA); treat + screening test x 12 months with isoniazid + B6 • EBV-related lymphoma (B cell) <500 • Community acquired pneumonia <250 • Coccidiomycosis – prophy if + IGM or IGG in endemic areas – azole antifungals <200 (or %CD4 </= 14) пѓџ This is the cut-off where most opportunistic infections begin to appear. • Candida • Pneumocystis jirovecii (PCP) – sulfa drugs, atovaquone, inhaled pentamidine, dapsone (doesn't cover Toxo) • Cryptococcosis <150 • Histoplasma capsulatum – endemic areas or known occupational risk– azole antifungals <100 • Mycobacterium avium Complex – 2/100 person-years & rises with lower CD4 – azithromycin or clarithromycin <50 • • Cryptosporidium, Microsporidium Toxoplasmosis – screen new patients with Toxoplasma IGG; if negative, counsel on risk reduction; if +, initiate prophy at 100 cells/mL with sulfa drugs, pyrimethamine, or atovaquone (susceptibility variable) • Cytomegalovirus – negative IGG has high negative predictive value in evaluation for active disease – CMV viremia predicts active disease; prophy may improve mortality & prevent active disease, but is costly and may cause resistance, so consider pros and cons, patient adherence, etc. JC virus – progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML) – treat with 5-drug antiretroviral therapy (tenovofir-emtricitabine, ritonavir-boosted protease inhibitor, integrase inhibitor, & add efuvirtide for at least 6 months), may extend life but won't reverse damage; physical therapy may recover some functions Bartonella henselae • • Remember: CD4 is a rough guide in differential diagnosis & starting prophylaxis, not a rigid cut-off for risk assessment; assess the patient and presentation, not a number. E.g. CMV disease may manifest at 75 or 100 cells/mL. What's the differential diagnosis of intracranial lesions in HIV+ patients? • Lymphoma – often single lesions o EBV PCR > 10,000 copies/mL in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) o CT/MRI: hypodense or hyperdense lesion that enhances in a nodular, homogeneous, or ring-enhancing with contrast o SPECT Thallium-201: highly specific, • • increased uptake Toxoplasmosis – usually multiple, white matter and basal ganglia, o MRI T2-weighted imaging - target sign concentric alternating zones of hypointensity and hyperintensity o CT, ring-enhancing with IV contrast JC virus/Progressive Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy (PML) – may be unifocal or multifocal, fronto-parietal o MRI T-2 weighted imaging - hyperintense lesions in periventricular or subcortical white matter o May suggest ischemic lesions or event Which co-infection may cause an unexpectedly high absolute CD4 count despite clinical evidence of immunosuppression? What should you think of when you see a high CD4 that doesn't "make sense"? HTLV-1 Which live vaccines may & may not be given in the setting of HIV & when? In general, live vaccines should be avoided in immunosuppressed individuals. In the setting of HIV, the following vaccines can be given: YES, if absolute CD4 > 200 cells/mL • • • • NO: • • • • Measles-Mumps-Rubella vaccine (measles mortality is over 40% in HIV) Varicella vaccine for primary varicella Varicella vaccine for shingles Yellow Fever vaccine for travelers to, or traveling through, endemic areas (avoidance of such travel is best) Any live vaccine if CD4 < 200 cells/mL Inhaled attenuated influenza vaccine (pending trials) Bacille-Calmette Guerin (BCG) Live oral polio vaccine (use inactivated injected polio vaccine) Which vaccine(s) are contraindicated with myasthenia gravis? Why? All live attenuated virus vaccines, if receiving immunosuppressing treatments. • • • Yellow Fever Vaccine – significant increased incidence of yellow fever vaccine-associated viscerotropic disease in those with thymus disorders. "Health-care providers should carefully consider the benefits and risks of vaccination for elderly travellers, and should ask about a history of thymus disorder or dysfunction, irrespective of age, including myasthenia gravis, thymoma, thymectomy, or DiGeorge syndrome, before administering yellow fever vaccine. If travel plans cannot be altered to avoid yellow feverendemic areas, people with a history of thymus disease should consider alternative means of yellow fever prevention, including use of insect repellents, containing N,N-diethyl-metatoluamide (DEET) and permethrin, and other behaviours to reduce mosquito bites." [Eidex RB. Lancet 364:936, 11–17 September 2004] What adverse events are associated with Yellow Fever Vaccine, and who is at risk? • • • Immediate hypersensitivity reactions/anaphylaxis - 1.8 cases per 100,000 doses Yellow fever vaccine–associated neurologic disease (YEL-AND) - meningoencephalitis, Guillain-BarrГ© syndrome, acute disseminated encephalomyelitis, bulbar and Bell palsies o Onset 3 - 28 days after vaccination o Increased risk in  first time vaccine recipients  Age > 60  Exclusively breastfed infants Yellow fever vaccine–associated viscerotropic disease (YEL-AVD) - similar to wild-type disease; vaccine virus causes disseminated disease, often with multisystem organ failure and death o Onset 0 - 8 days after vaccination o 0.4 cases per 100,000 doses, 1 or higher if age > 60 o Increased risk in  first time vaccine recipients  Age > 60 Yellow Fever Vaccine is contraindicated in: • Immunosuppression • HIV with symptoms or CD4 <200/mm3 or <15% • Thymus disorders incl myasthenia gravis Precaution is needed in those over 60, breastfeeding mothers (risk to infant), pregnant women (variable immune response to vaccination/variable protection), & those with chronic medical conditions associated with variable immune defects: liver disease/chronic hepatitis, diabetes mellitus, chronic renal disease, collagen vascular disorders, etc. [Always consult CDC's "Yellow Book", Health Information on International Travel on Yellow Fever risks and vaccination at http://wwwnc.cdc.gov/travel/page/yellowbook-home-2014] In patients co-infected with hepatitis C and possible concomitant HIV, which HIV medication should you avoid if using Ribavirin? Didanosine (DDI) – serious mitochondrial toxicities/lactic acidosis Which rare Mycobacterium can cause disseminated or localized red draining cutaneus nodules in HIV+ patients? Mycobacterium haemophilum Name some of the most common HIV mutations and the associated drug resistance? • M184V = resistance to emtricitabine, lamivudine and abacavir. BUT hyper-susceptibility to zidovudine (AZT • • • or ZDV) K103N = resistance to efavirenz /nevirapine K65R = Cross resistance to tenofovir , abacavir, lamivudine, and didanosine Q151M = All nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI) except tenofovir Which HIV medication may be associated with fatal hepatotoxicity in pregnancy if started in patients with absolute CD4 count of 250 cells/mL or above? Nevirapine Which HIV medication is Food and Drug Administration Category D (Positive Evidence of Fetal Risk) in pregnancy? Efavirenz: It was changed from category C to D after 4 retrospective reports of neural tube defects in infants born to women with first trimester exposure to efavirenz, with 3 cases of meningomyelocele and 1 Dandy Walker Syndrome. Pregnancy testing is advised prior to administration of this agent to women of childbearing age. Contraception/avoidance of pregnancy is advised in those receiving this agent prior to pregnancy. Which test is recommended before initiation of abacavir to assess the risk of a serious life threatening hypersensitivity reaction? HLA-B*5701 allele. In a predominantly white population at low risk, testing has a negative predictive value of 100% and a positive predictive value of 47.9%. (Mallal S et al. HLA-B*5701 Screening for Hypersensitivity to Abacavir. N Engl J Med 2008;358:568-79.) Which syndrome may develop soon after initiation of antiretroviral therapy in HIV+patients? Immune Reconstitution Syndrome/IRIS • onset of opportunistic infections despite rising absolute CD4 or other markers of immune recovery • often these were simply smoldering and become clinically evident when the immune system recovers ability to mount an inflammatory response Which 2 antiretrovirals are not routinely given together because of increased likelihood of severe lactic acidosis, pancreatitis and peripheral neuropathy? tenofovir + didanosine When do you worry about neurosyphilis in a patient with HIV and + syphilis serology? At any stage of infection, even primary active (chancre). Consider LP for CSF syphilis serology, especially if neurologic symptoms. GENOMICS & INFECTION This Section is only a sample of what will is already an exponential growth in human understanding of how genetic polymorphisms or mutations in both human and pathogen genomes impact susceptibility or resistance to infection. I do not expect to be able to keep up with this section over time. One day, it may serve as a quaint example of the history of genomics in its infancy. :} Note one theme: Interferon Gamma is very important in the defense against mycobacteria. Hence the use of exogenous IFN G in treating some types of mycobacterial infections. Which genotype is associated with possible predisposition or susceptibility to Creutzfeld-Jacob (prion) disease? Valine 129 homozygous genotype What genes are associated with susceptibility to TB? In West Africa/African-Americans: • Four NRAMP1 gene polymorphisms associated with higher risk of TB • Individuals heterozygous with NRAMP1 /3' UTR allele = 4X greater incidence of TB • May explain higher incidence of TB in these ethnic groups In Vietnam: • C allele variant of Toll-Like Receptor 2 (TLR2 variant) - associated with greater risk of pulmonary TB & TB meningitis due to Beijing genotype TB • Beijing TB genotype also associated with Multi-Drug Resistance • Deficiency of Vitamin D receptor - predisposes to TB TIRAP CC-to-TT single-nucleotide polymorphism at 558 (SNP 558TT) • decreased IL-6 production • greater risk of TB meningitis What polymorphism may protect against TB? Interferon Gamma (IFN G) polymorphism with A-to-T substitution at 874 • protects against TB • favors binding of transcription factor NFkappaB o improved IFN G production? What is CISH allele & why is it of interest? CISH = Cytokine Inducible SRC Homology 2 domain protein) • suppresses cytokine release, regulates IL-2 • 5 CISH polymorphisms affect risk of bacteremia, TB, malaria • 1 polymorphism = 18% risk of infection • 4+ polymorphisms = 80+% risk of infection Which polymorphism is associated with disseminated Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) infections? • • • IFN G Receptor 1 mutations absence of IFN G receptors on macrophage surface macrophage up-regulation of Tumor Necrosis Factor in response to IFN G is impaired What 2 human genetic mutations have conferred evolutionary advantages by protecting against disease? Which disease and by what mechanism? G6PD deficiency Sickle cell trait • • G6PD deficiency results in hemolysis during infections, which interferes with the lifecycle of malaria by lysing parasitized red blood cells. Sickle cell trait causes more red blood cells to be sequestered or cleared by the spleen when parasitized. ZOONOSES & INSECT-ASSOCIATED INFECTIONS Key Animal Associations, Pathogen, Key Presentation, & Drug of Choice: • • • • • • • • • • • Goats/cattle/unpasteurized dairy/feral hogs, hunters/elk & bison at Yellowstone National ParkBrucellosis-splenic abscess-doxycycline + gentamicin Rabbits/skinning rabbits-tularemialymphadenopathy-streptomycin Placental exposure/parturient animals/hoofed livestock-Q fever/Coxiella burnettipneumonia/splenomegaly-doxycycline Dogs/cattle/rats (urine)/fresh water contactLeptospirosis-conjunctivitis/hepatitis/renal insufficiency-penicillin G Cat bites>dog bites-Pasturella multocidacellulitis/osteomyelitis/sepsis-penicillin G Cats-Bartonella henselae - angiomatous lesions in AIDS-doxycycline or azithromycin Dog bites/licks-Capnocytophagia canimorsis (especially if asplenic)-amoxicillin/clavulanate or clindamycin; Pasturella-penicillin G Reptiles/turtles-Aeromonas (bites), Salmonella (just being around a reptile is a risk factor for the latter, due to stool carriage)-cellulitis/bacteremia-quinolone Parrots/parakeets/pet shop-psittacosispneumonia/splenomegaly--doxy Guinea pigs-Salmonella-as for reptiles Hamsters/rodents-lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus-meningitis • • • • • Hoofed livestock-Bacillus anthracis-widened mediastinum/septic shock/black gelatinous skin lesions-ciprofloxacin (+ clindamycin if sepsis) Pork/sausages/smoked cougar or bear meatTrichinella spiralis- myositis, eosinophilia, periorbital edema, low ESR- albendazole/mebendazole Flying squirrels-Rickettsia prowazekii (epidemic typhus) Prairie dogs/Giant Gambian rats/monkeysmonkey pox-acyclovir Monkeys/primates – herpes B (simian herpes)acyclovir KeyInsect Associations, Pathogen, Key Presentation, & Drug of Choice (* eschar @ bite site) Ticks/outdoor activity: • • • • • Lyme disease (Borrelia burgdorferi)-erythema migrans early, facial cranial neuritis, peripheral neuropathy, lymphocytic meningoencephalitis, less often myopericarditis/AV block, chronic arthritis) – doxycycline, ceftriaxone Babesia microti-flu-like illness, hemolytic anemia/hepatosplenomegaly/NE or NW US, Maltese cross in RBCs-- clindamycin + quinine or atovaquone + azithromycin Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (Rickettsia rickettsiae, RMSF)-flu-like illness, petechial rash/thrombocytopenia (~meningococcemia) 3-5 days into illness, edema hands & feet/periorbital - doxycycline Ehrlichiosis-flu-like illness ("spotless RMSF", thrombocytopenia, no edema hands/feet, morula in buffy coat, NE or NW United States) - doxycycline *African tick bite fever (R. africae) - Sub-Saharan Africa-multiple eschars, fever, lymphadenopathy- • • • • • • doxycycline *Boutonneuse fever/Mediterranean spotted fever (R. conorii) - N. Africa- single "tache noire" eschar, fever, lymphadenopathy-Doxy Q fever (also via aerosols/placental exposure) – fever of unknown origin (FUO), splenomegaly, culture-negative endocarditis-doxycycline *Relapsing fever (Borrelia recurrentis/hermsii) eschar, flu-like illness, 3-5 relapses- doxycycline Tularemia (also aerosols/rabbit blood)-ulcer at bite, lymphadenopathy, typhoid-like illness, or pneumonia-streptomycin, gentamicin Colorado tick fever- ~ RMSF, <rash, biphasic illness, West United States- doxycycline Tick paralysis-Guillain-Barre like (tick neurotoxin) that resolves within 12-24 hrs of tick removal-no treatment other than tick removal from scalp Flea/rats: • • Yersinia pestis/SW US/chipmunks pneumonia/buboes – streptomycin, doxycycline Murine typhus (Rickettsia mooseri) - flu-like, rash, rat infestations - doxycycline Mice/mites: • *Richettsialpox (Rickettsia akari) - eschar, mild flu-like, maculopapular-vesicular rash, New York City/city parks - doxycycline Chiggers: • Scrub typhus (R. tsusugamushi)-fever, flu-like, rash, adenopathy - doxycycline Body louse/homelessness/disasters/war: • Bartonella quintana - trench fever, urban trench fever/endocarditis in homeless - Dodoxycyclinexy • Epidemic typhus/flying squirrels /Brill Zinsser disease (R. prowazekii) - flu-like, rash; may recur years later as Brill-Zinsser - Doxycycine Sand fly: • • Leishmania-hepatosplenomegaly/fever (Latin America/Middle East), cutaneous ulcers (tropics) – amphotericin B, antimonial drugs/stibogluconate Bartonellosis-Oroya fever/verruga peruana Doxy/Azithromycin Black fly: • Oncocerca volvulus-River blindness – ivermectin Tse tse fly/African safari: • • Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense (EAST AFRICAN)-sudden high fever, myalgia, headache, painless chancre at bite, wasting, coma, death unless prompt treatment)—EMERGENCY - suramin, pentamidine (melarsoprol)/arsenic if central nervous system disease- in U.S., call Centers for Disease Control T. b. gambiense (West African)-more indolent sleeping sickness, prominent post cervical nodes (Winterbottom's sign), hepatosplenomegaly, mental status decline-suramin, pentamidine Reduviid bugs/Latin America: • Chaga's disease (Trypanosoma cruzi-C-shaped trypanosomes in blood) - acutely, RomaГ±a's sign (periorbital edema), fever, myocarditis; chronically, fever, hepatosplenomegaly, achalasia/megacolon, cardiomyopathy - nifurtimox, benznidazole Mosquitoes/Latin America/Asia/tropics: • • • Malaria-fever, rigors, headaches, prostration Dengue-flu-like, severe pain in joints/behind eyes with movement, prostration, +/- sunburn-like rash Chikungunya-dengue-like, fever with severe joint pain that persists after 2-5 day illness up to weeks or months TRAVEL & GEOGRAPHICALLYASSOCIATED ILLNESS BY SYNDROME What are you looking for on a blood smear for in a febrile traveler? • • • • • Malaria!! African trypanosomiasis Relapsing fever/Borrelia recurrentis Bartonella Babesia What are the symptoms/signs/associations with brucellosis? • • • • • • Fever of unknown origin/FUO Chronic fatigue Osteomyelitis—sacroiliitis Hepatosplenomegaly—splenic abscess/infarct Epididymoorchitis Chronic meningitis • Unpasteurized milk—GOATS/hoofed mammals outside U.S., undercooked meats, farms Feral hogs, wild game hunters Wild reservoirs in U.S. - Elk, bison (Yellowstone National Park) • • Common infections by incubation period: (Ryan ETet al. N Engl J Med 2002;347:505-16; Tolle MA. J Am Board Fam Med 2010;23(6):704-713.) Under 2 weeks • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • Malaria Dengue Spotted fever (rickettsial infection) Scrub typhus (rickettsial infection) Leptospirosis Typhoid fever Chikungunya Yellow Fever Acute HIV East African trypanosomiasis (EMERGENCY, daysweeks) Campylobacteriosis, salmonellosis, shigellosis 2-6 weeks • • • • Malaria Typhoid fever Hepatitis A, hepatitis E Acute schistosomiasis (Katayama fever) Amebic liver abscess (Entamoeba histolytica) Leptospirosis Acute HIV East African trypanosomiasis (EMERGENCY, daysweeks) Viral hemorrhagic fever Q fever Visceral leishmaniasis TB • • • Malaria Tuberculosis Visceral leishmaniasis Over 6 weeks • • • • • • • Lymphatic filariasis Schistosomiasis Amebic liver abscess Chronic mycosis Hepatitis A & E Rabies West African trypanosomiasis (months to years) Why must you treat Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever within 5 days? The mortality rises from 6-7% to almost 25% with delayed treatment. Differential Diagnosis by Syndrome: Typhoidal illnesses (fever, splenomegaly, adenopathy, headache) NO rash: SE Asia - Melioidosis Latin America/Mediterranean coast/Arabian Gulf - Brucellosis Peru/Ecuador - Bartonellosis Nantucket/Martha's Vineyard/NE US - Babesiosis Non-Lyme borreliosis (see Relapsing Fevers below) Rabbits - Tularemia Latin America/Middle East - Visceral leishmaniasis With rash: Developing nations/India/Asia - Typhoid fever/Salmonellosis (rose spots on trunk) Spotted fevers (maculopapular rash, fever, thrombocytopenia; all transmitted by ticks, except Rickettsia akari, & Rickettsia prowazeckii) Developing nations/crowding/war/disaster/refugees: • Rickettsia prowazeckii • flying squirrels • 20-50 yrs later-recurrent disease is Brill-Zinsser, mild Mediterranean/N. Africa/Black Sea: • Rickettsia conorii/Boutonneuse fever/Mediterranean Spotted Fever • 70% single black eschar - tache noire Japan: • Rickettsia japonica/Japanese Spotted Fever (similar to MSF) E. coast Australia: • R. australis - Queensland Tick Typhus Sub-Saharan Africa: R. africae-African Tick Bite Fever • common in travelers/safari history, mild • multiple eschars New York City/city parks/mouse infestations/mouse mites: • R. akari-Rickettsialpox • small crusted eschar, rash may be vesicular Asia/Pacific Rim/Australia/chiggers/scrub vegetation/tourists: • Orentia tsutsugamushi-Scrub Typhus • high fever, intense headache • multiple black eschars Flu-like syndromes (fever, aches) SE/South central United States, Rocky Mountain states/Cape Cod/Long Island-Spring/Summer: • R. rickettsiae / Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever • headache, myalgia, nausea ~ viral syndrome • ankles/wrists, edema hands/feet/trunk • rash 3-5 days later • thrombocytopenia/shock NE or NW United States: • Ehrlichiosis • same as RMSF except no rash, no edema hands/feet, morula in buffy coat Relapsing fevers (fevers that go away & come back): United States • Borrelia hermsii - 4 or 5 relapses, cranial neuritis • tick exposure/sleeping in a log cabin Biphasic Fevers Western United States: • Colorado tick fever Middle East/Latin America/Rwanda lice/refugees/war/disaster/epidemics: • Borrelia recurrentis/mellitensis Target-lesion rash: NE/Upper Midwest/Western United States (sporadic elsewhere) Borrelia burgdorferi / Lyme Disease • Ixodes tick nymph/adult female • Hunting/camping/hiking Early/Stage 1 • Erythema migrans • precedes antibodies, thus serology is unhelpful (except in prior infection or vaccine) • • • • occurs 3 days to 1month post bite migrates/fades in 3-4 weeks Flu-like syndrome Diagnosis: erythema migrans rash, geographic location, and tick exposure; early on, rash may take 23 days to become clear Disseminated/Stage 2 • Idiopathic Bell's palsy, carditis/fluctuating AV Block not due to ischemia, meningitis, arthritis • 3d-6 weeks • Diagnosis: o 2-step testing with Lyme ELISA or IF antibodies (total or IgM + IgG), then Western Blot confirmation if + (Important: if pretest probability of Lyme is low, the likelihood of false positive is high. Test if truly suspicious.) o Synovial fluid is inflammatory in arthritis; PCR if available & meticulously performed is + but not reliable enough to rule out infection. • Bannwarth's syndrome – classic triad of acute neuroborreliosis: o lymphocytic meningitis o cranial nerve palsy o radiculoneuritis • Blindness may be seen, especially children, with increased intracranial pressure or neuropathy. Late/Stage 3 • arthritis, polyneuropathy, rarely chronic encephalopathy; months to years • Diagnosis o Clinical findings, geography, tick exposure o 4-fold rise in IgG, + IgM o Synovial PCR (75-85% sensitive) probably more reliable than other fluids; 30% of active Lyme cases have + PCR due to low number of spirochetes, non-standardized test Flow cytometric Borreliacidal Antibody (99% specific, 72% sensitive); rises with chronicity • Obtain CSF if neurologic symptoms o <10% Culture + o >80% +Lymphocytic pleiocytosis & CSF IgM/IgG o CSF antibody + by 3-6 weeks, may persist indefinitely or be + without neuro symptoms o 4 of 5 criteria should be + for neuroborreliosis: o No history of neuroborreliosis o No alternative diagnosis o +CSF antibodies to B. burgdorferi o + anti-Borellia antibody Index (CSF-to-serum antibody ratio) >1.0 East Texas/mid-West U.S. to entire East coast U.S. • Southern Tick-Associated Rash Illness (STARI) o Lone Star tick / Amblyomma – adult has white spot on dorsum; interestingly, its saliva kills Borrelia burgdorferi o Etiologic agent unknown o Target-lesion (bull's eye) within 7 days of tick bite, expands to 8 cm or more o Flu-like symptoms o Diagnosis: rash, geographic location, and tick exposure; no lab test o Treatment: unclear but likely benefit from antibiotics, most doctors treat with doxycycline empirically o How does STARI differ from Lyme disease? • • • • Lyme exposure is less likely in S.E. U.S. STARI syndrome is shorter onset, within 7 days of bite/tick exposure Tick bite is more often recalled with STARI Target-lesions are less often associated with flu-like • symptoms in STARI Target-lesions are often more circular and centrallyclearing, fewer in number in STARI H emorrhagic fevers SW United States • Sin Nombre hantavirus o inhaled dried rodent urine, deer mice o acute respiratory distress syndrome/noncardiacpulmonary edema after 4-5 d flu-like prodrome o leukocytosis o disseminated intravascular coagulation Caribbean/Asia/equatorial tropics – Aedes aegypti mosquito territories • Dengue - breakbone fever o fever, sunburn-like rash, adenopathy, severe myalgias/arthralgias o biphasic illness with 2nd rash/fever sparing palms/soles o repeated infection may cause hemorrhagic/shock syndrome-fever, bleeding/DIC, edematous face/hands o S. Florida/Keys residents have been found to have + antibodies • Yellow Fever – especially sub-Saharan Africa where Aedes aegypti control is poor o subclinical to icteric infection with hemorrhage, liver/renal/cardiac failure, jaundice, GI bleed (black vomit) o leukopenia, thrombocytopenia o IgM, 4-fold rise in IgG Africa: • Ebola Hemorrhagic Fever/Marburg-Zaire/Sudan, monkeys?/bats? o Flu-like illness-N/V/diarrhea-diffuse hemorrhages/death o Neutrophilia/severe thrombocytopenia o IgM/4-fold rise of IgG; DFA/electron microscopy of tissue, culture-high level containment lab (BSL-4) West Africa: • Lassa Fever o inhaled rodent excreta o ribavirin Congo, Russia/Balkans: • Congo-Crimean hemorrhagic fever o blood-borne o ticks o human to human Rift Valley: • Rift Valley Fever o cattle/sheep o mosquitoes South America: • Machupo-Bolivian hemorrhagic fever o inhaled rodent excreta MISCELLANY What is pasteurization & where is it most important why? Emperor Napoleon III asked Dr. Louis Pasteur to investigate the diseases afflicting vineyards with economic losses to the wine industry. Pasteur demonstrated that wine diseases are caused by microorganisms that can be killed by heating the wine to 55deg.C for several minutes. Applied to beer and milk, this process, called "pasteurization", soon came into use throughout the world. With HTST (high temperature short time) pasteurization, raw milk is heated to a minimum of 161 degrees F for 15 seconds, followed by immediate cooling. This method produces milk with a shelf life of 14-17 days. (This level of pasteurization can be performed on a stovetop at home.) With ultra pasteurization, milk is heated to a minimum of 280 degrees F. for two seconds and then immediately chilled. This method produces a shelf life of around 60 days, when unopened and refrigerated. Remember: pasteurization в‰ sterilization. Organism numbers are simply reduced to safer levels. Contamination may also occur after pasteurization at many steps from processing to table. This is why milk will eventually sour due to bacterial overgrowth. Which human pathogens, ordinarily killed by pasteurization, have been documented in raw milk, including outbreaks? • M. bovis—one of the M. tuberculosis group which causes cow & human TB • Rabies • Brucella abortis & mellitensis • E. coli/coliforms—including E. coli H7:0157 Listeria • Salmonella, Yersinia, Campylobacter • Staphylococci & their enterotoxins • Group A streptococci & others Coxiella burnetti Note bene: Rabies has been transmitted from rabid human mother to infant via breast milk. Rabies cases are rarely recorded from nonhuman milk, because in most societies where pasteurization is not mandated, people understand the risk of rabies, and they boil their milk. Further, in areas where raw milk is consumed for ritual or other purposes, rabies vaccination is mandatory when exposure to milk from a rabid cow has been confirmed. It is well-known that rabies is underreported in many areas. Ignorance may be bliss for some, but in the 21st Century, it is not an excuse for inflicting the "joy" upon others, especially when children are at risk. Rabies is 100% fatal upon becoming symptomatic and is a horrific death. It is also 100% preventable. Which potential pathogen is NOT killed by pasteurization? Mycobacterium paratuberculosis—a cause of Johne's disease in cows, which is VERY similar to Crohn's disease—is there a link? Which nematode is associated with inducing remission in inflammatory bowel disease? Porcine whipworm, Trichuris suis. Colonization with whipworms has been suggested as an effective, safe, and well-tolerated treatment for Crohn's and ulcerative colitis. [Summers RW, et al. Am J Gastroenterol. 2003;98:2034-2041] What other principles that we use daily did Dr. Pasteur elucidate? • • The Germ Theory – in 1857, demonstrated that decay/fermentation occurred only on exposure to contaminated air. If germs could cause fermentation, they could well cause animal & human disease, and be transmitted. Vaccine theory – he added to Jenner's work on vaccination, and developed anthrax and rabies vaccines Who is the father of modern epidemiology? Dr. John Snow, who in 1854, after interviewing victims' families, he traced a cholera epidemic to the Broad Street pump from which most had taken water. Convincing authorities to remove the handle, he halted the epidemic within 2 weeks. Workers at an adjacent brewery, allotted free beer daily, did not suffer from cholera! An adjacent pub has been named after Snow, a fact which would have dismayed him, as he abhorred alcohol. Who is the father of infection control? Dr. Ignaz Philippe Semmelwies, who noted that the patients of medical students were dying of puerperal sepsis/Group A strep after childbirth, whereas the midwives' patients did not. Noting that medical students performed autopsies (presumably on those who died of sepsis!) between deliveries, he had them wash with chlorinated lime after autopsies - mort 20% to 1%. The medical profession ridiculed him (denial being easier than guilt), and he died penniless & demented in an insane asylum. Common sense is so rarely appreciated in its own time. Who furthered the principles of sanitation in healthcare facilities, nutrition in illness, and the application of mathematics to epidemiologic investigation? Florence Nightingale. She is known for her kindness and comfort to soldiers as a nurse, but her contributions are far more extraordinary. She developed the polar-area diagram to objectively demonstrate mortality associated with poor hygiene during the Crimean War. She pioneered tools for data collection, graphical display and analysis, and statistics in healthcare, and in so doing, reformed healthcare in her time. She did this under the tutelage of her father, who believed all of his children should be educated, in an era when women were not formally educated. Who is the father of antibiotics? Dr. Alexander Fleming, who noted that a penicillium mold had contaminated his cultures and that something was killing the bacteria around it. That substance was penicillin, and 25 years later, it was saving lives on the battlefield (& perhaps a few brothels) in WWII. Enter the Antibiotic Era! What is Dr. Walter Reed's contribution to medicine? Dr. Reed instituted mosquito (vector) control as a means of controlling yellow fever, which had decimated troops during the Spanish-American War and stymied completion of the Panama Canal & U.S. economic expansion. Mosquito control has eradicated yellow fever and malaria from this continent and remains the principal means of control (although note that the vector mosquitoes are still endemic to Florida/SE U.S.—if these pathogens were to again become epidemic, mosquito control would be the key to control & these programs remain in place today). Vector control is important in control of malaria, encephalitides (like West Nile), dengue, hanta virus, plague, etc. Which diseases require airborne isolation precautions? • • • • • TB Small pox (Variola major) Varicella zoster (acute varicella, or chickenpox) Rubeola virus (measles) SARS-coV, MERS-coV What are the U.S. Centers for Disease Control transmission-based precautions for preventing transmission of infectious organisms in healthcare settings? Describe each and common pathogens that fall into each category. • • • Contact - gown and gloves for all interactions that may involve contact with the patient or potentially contaminated areas in the patient's environment o norovirus/enteric viruses, methicillin-resistant S. aureus (MRSA), vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus, Clostridium difficile, vaccinia virus (smallpox vaccine in military personnel) Droplet – (pathogens spread through close respiratory or mucous membrane contact with respiratory secretions) surgical-type mask for all interactions within 3 feet of patient o B. pertussis, influenza, adenovirus, rhinovirus, N. meningitides, and group A streptococcus (for the first 24 hours of antimicrobial therapy) Airborne – (pathogens agents that remain infectious over long distances suspended in air) Use of negative pressure isolation room, preferably 12 air exchanges per hour, as well as N-95 or higher fitted respirator. o TB, chickenpox, measles, SARS-coV, MERScoV, smallpox What kind of isolation does naturally occurring inhalational anthrax required? Standard precautions only. What about pneumonic plague? Bubonic? • • Droplet precautions for pneumonic plague until 48 hours on antibiotic therapy and improving. Standard precautions for bubonic plague. What about smallpox? Airborne What does Standard Precautions mean? It combines the old "universal" precautions and blood and body fluid guidelines, and presumes that all patients admitted to a facility may be infected with potentially transmissible pathogens. Thus, it includes: • Hand hygiene before and after patient contact. • Personal protective garb as appropriate to the care or clinical situation, in addition to any transmission-based precautions. • Specific precautions for invasive procedures that may not be covered under transmission-based precautions. What are the forms of dermal TB? • Bazin's disease: Papular, necrotic lesions representing hypersensitivity reactions to deeper infection. • Especially noted on back of lower legs. "Prosector's wart" occurs from direct inoculation. What is classic Scrofula? Cervical/facial TB What is the source of massive hemoptysis in TB? Rasmussen's aneurysm - erosion of a tuberculous granuloma into a pulmonary artery followed by rapid exanguination. Describe major infectious & noninfectious causes of splenomegaly. • • • • • • • • • • • • • EBV/CMV Endocarditis Tuberculosis Histoplasmosis Typhoid fever Syphilis Parasites Leishmaniasis (visceral) Malaria Schistosomiasis (non-cirrhotic portal hypertension) Toxoplasmosis Lymphoma/myelodysplastic disease Collagen vascular disease (rheumatoid arthritis, lupus) • • • • • Portal hypertension (noncirrhotic or cirrhotic) Hereditary hemolytic anemias/polycythemia vera Sarcoidosis Metastases Amyloid What infections are classically associated with splenic abscess? C the Spleen above your BELT: • Coxiella • Spleen-Salmonella/S. aureus/Streptococcus • Brucellosis/Bartonellosis • Endocarditis/Escherichia coli • Lemierre's disease (post-anginal sepsis with Fusobacterium necrophorum) • TB In travelers from Thailand/SE Asia, think Melioidosis. Classic scenario for splenic abscess: Unexplained thrombocytosis in a septic ICU patient with persistent left pleural effusion Diseases that occur concurrently: • Lyme disease + Babesiosis + Ehrlichiosis (same tick • • • vector) Measles + Streptococcus Mono + Streptococcus (mono pharyngitis may mimic strep throat; strep throat may also be super-infectingtreat for Streptococcus throat to prevent rheumatic fever) Endocarditis + acute osteomyelitis 6 Childhood Diseases: Measles (Rubeola) • Prodrome - cough, coryza, conjunctivitis, Koplik's spots • Rash - erythematous, maculopapular, 5 days post onset of illness; begins on head and spreads downward German Measles (Rubella) • Children - no prodrome • Adults - malaise, fever, anorexia, posterior auricular, cervical, suboccipital lymphadenopathy • Rash - maculopapular begins on face, then generalized Roseola Infantum (Exanthum subitum) • Human Herpes Virus 6 • Abrupt fever, lasts for 1-5 days with no other physical findings. • On 4th day, rash - macular or maculopapaular on trunk, and spreads peripherally, resolved within 24 hours. • Child generally looks pretty well. Varicella (chickenpox) • Prodrome - malaise, fever, runny nose. • Rash - Starts the same day as fever, pruritic, first on trunk, then peripherally; begins as red papules, develops into • "tear drop" vesicles, becomes cloudy, breaks open, forms scabs, occurs in "crops". Remember: Grouped vesicles on a red base in various stages of evolution. Erythema Infectiosum (Fifth disease) • 3 stage rash – pruritic • Marked erythema on cheeks, "slapped cheek" • Livedo reticularis: Erythematous, maculopapular rash starts on arms, then to the trunk and legs. • Lasts 2-39 days, fluctuation in severity of rash with environmental changes. • Mainly arthralgias in adults. Scarlet Fever • Group A Streptococcus, fever, pharyngitis, rash • Rash - erythematous, finely punctate, blanches with pressure, starts on trunk then generalized. • Face is flushed, increased erythema in skin folds (Pastia's lines), Skin may feel rough like sandpaper, strawberry tongue. What are the 2 commonest pathogens in the Nocardia genus & drug of choice? • • Nocardia asteroides (lung/brain) trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole, Imipenem + Amikacin Nocardia brasiliensis (lymphangitis/madura foot) trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole, Resistant to Imipenem Name the diseases caused by Listeria monocytogenes, common sources, and drug of choice. • • • • Gastroenteritis Meningoencephalitis Granulomatosis infantisepticum* (spontaneous abortion/stillbirth due to disseminated Listeria; widespread micro abscesses/granulomas in the liver and spleen; abundant bacteria on Gram stain of meconium) Neonatal sepsis/meningitis* * transplacental infection from maternal enteritis/bacteremia. • • From unpasteurized dairy products, soft cheeses, cold cuts/hot dogs/sausages-heat until steaming. Treatment: Ampicillin, trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole IMAGES Things you may see on a board exam, in the Emergency Room, under a microscope, on call, etcetera. (Images are in the public domain, attributed to Centers for Disease Control Public Health Image Library, unless otherwise noted) Aspergillus: in tissue, septate hyphae that branch at a 45 degree angle Rhizopus or Mucor: Broad aseptate hyphae that branch at 90 degree angle Looks like fat ribbons in histologic sections: Cryptococcus: yeast forms in clinical specimens, usually very thick capsule, not much inflammation around it; the capsule isn't visible in tissue but may make the yeast seem to be "floating" in the tissue. Cryptococcus (continued) India Ink stain of cerebrospinal fluid (huge capsule) Coccidioides: yeast forms/spherules (which may be broken open to release endospores) in clinical specimens Coccidioides (continued) Blastomycosis: broad based buds Paracoccicliomycosis: "mariner's wheel" buds; note the buds may be smaller OR the same size as the parent yeast. Histoplasmosis – It's often found in histiocytes; big clusters of yeast forms. This one's like "where's Waldo?"; the more you look, the more you see. :} Pneumocystis on methenamine silver stain: note cupped forms and off- center thickening of cell wall (compare to the endospores in the Coccidioides images) Sporothrix schenckii: boards love it; fusiform (cigar-shaped) yeast in tissue, with nodular lymphangitis on clinical exam "AFB+" tissue stain with acid fast bacilli (atypical mycobacteria or TB) Nocardia in acid fast stained specimen: "beaded", filamentous, acid fast bacilli; Gram + on Gram stain. (Actinomyces is similar but AFB -) Gonorrhea in purulent penile urethral discharge: intra- or extracellular, Gram negative diplococcic, like little pairs of kidneys (easy to diagnose!) Gonorrhea in cervical secretions Streptococcus pneumonia: Gram positive lancet-shaped diplococci Streptococcus: Gram positive cocci in pairs and chains Staphylococcus: Gram positive cocci in "grape clusters" Leishmania amastigotes: note kinetoplast + nucleus, unlike Histoplasma Trypanosoma cruzi: C-shaped trophozoites in blood Plasmodium falciparum: multiple trophozoites per red blood cell Plasmodium falciparum: banana-shaped gametocyte Plasmodium vivax/ovale: Schuffner's dots Plasmodium malariae: "band" form trophozoite Anthrax: gelatinous edema around black eschar Anthrax: long chains of Gram positive bacilli And don't forget that pulmonary Anthrax presents with widened mediastinum on chest X-ray, not pneumonitis. 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