text:
2. A real voltage source has 6. If a load resistance is 1 kohm, a stiff current source
has a resistance of
a. Zero internal resistance
b. Infinite internal resistance a. At least 10 ohm
c. A small internal resistance b. Less than 10 ohm
d. A large internal resistance c. More than 100 kohm
d. Less than 100 kohm
3. If a load resistance is 1 kohm, a stiff voltage source
has a resistance of 7. The Thevenin voltage is the same as the
4. An ideal current source has 8. The Thevenin resistance is equal in value to the
19. The current out of an ideal current source 23. Derivations are
a. Is zero a. Discoveries
b. Is constant b. Inventions
c. Depends on the value of load resistance c. Produced by mathematics
d. Depends on the internal resistance d. Always called theorems
20. Thevenins theorem replaces a complicated circuit 24. Laws are proved by
facing a load by an
a. Definition
a. Ideal voltage source and parallel resistor b. Experiment
b. Ideal current source and parallel resistor c. Mathematics
c. Ideal voltage source and series resistor d. Formulas
d. Ideal current source and series resistor
25. Definitions are
21. Nortons theorem replaces a complicated circuit
facing a load by an a. Man made
b. Invented
a. Ideal voltage source and parallel resistor c. Made up
b. Ideal current source and parallel resistor d. All of the above
c. Ideal voltage source and series resistor
d. Ideal current source and series resistor
Chapter 2
1. The nucleus of a copper atom contains how many 5. How many valence electrons does a silicon atom
protons? have?
a. 1 a. 0
b. 4 b. 1
c. 18 c. 2
d. 29 d. 4
2. The net charge of a neutral copper atom is 6. Which is the most widely used semiconductor?
a. 0 a. Copper
b. +1 b. Germanium
c. -1 c. Silicon
d. +4 d. None of the above
3. Assume the valence electron is removed from a 7. How many protons does the nucleus of a silicon atom
copper atom. The net charge of the atom becomes contain?
a. 0 a. 4
b. + 1 b. 14
c. -1 c. 29
d. +4 d. 32
4. The valence electron of a copper atom experiences 8. Silicon atoms combine into an orderly pattern called a
what kind of attraction toward the nucleus?
a. Covalent bond
a. None b. Crystal
b. Weak c. Semiconductor
c. Strong d. Valence orbit
d. Impossible to say
9. An intrinsic semiconductor has some holes in it at 13. The amount of time between the creation of a hole
room temperature. What causes these holes? and its disappearance is called
a. Doping a. Doping
b. Free electrons b. Lifetime
c. Thermal energy c. Recombination
d. Valence electrons d. Valence
10. Each valence electron in an intrinsic semiconductor 14. The valence electron of a conductor is also called a
establishes a
a. Bound electron
a. Covalent bond b. Free electron
b. Free electron c. Nucleus
c. Hole d. Proton
d. Recombination
15. A conductor has how many types of flow?
11. The merging of a free electron and a hole is called
a. 1
a. Covalent bonding b, 2
b. Lifetime c. 3
c. Recommendation d. 4
d. Thermal energy
16. A semiconductor has how many types of flow?
12. At room temperature an intrinsic silicon crystal acts
approximately like a. 1
b. 2
a. A battery c. 3
b. A conductor d. 4
c. An insulator
d. A piece of copper wire
17. When a voltage is applied to a semiconductor, 21. At absolute zero temperature an intrinsic
holes will flow semiconductor has
18. A conductor has how many holes? 22. At room temperature an intrinsic semiconductor has
19. In an intrinsic semiconductor, the number of free 23. The number of free electrons and holes in an intrinsic
electrons semiconductor increases when the temperature
a. Equals the number of holes
b. Is greater than the number of holes a. Decreases
c. Is less than the number of holes b. Increases
d. None of the above c. Stays the same
d. None of the above
20. Absolute zero temperature equals
24. The flow of valence electrons to the left means that
a. -273 degrees C holes are flowing to the
b. 0 degrees C
c. 25 degrees C a. Left
d. 50 degrees C b. Right
c. Either way
d. None of the above
25. Holes act like 29. Holes are the minority carriers in which type of
a. Atoms
b. Crystals a. Extrinsic
c. Negative charges b. Intrinsic
d. Positive charges c. n-type
d. p-type
26. Trivatent atoms have how many valence electrons?
30. How many free electrons does a p-type
a. 1 semiconductor contain?
b. 3
c. 4 a. Many
d. 5 b. None
c. Only those produced by thermal energy
27. A donor atom has how many valence electrons? d. Same number as holes
42. What causes the depletion layer? 46. Surface-leakage current is part of the
43. What is the barrier potential of a silicon diode at room 47. The voltage where avalanche occurs is called the
a. Barrier potential
a. 0.3 V b. Depletion layer
b. 0.7 V c. Knee voltage
c. 1 V d. Breakdown voltage
d. 2 mV per degree Celsius
48. Diffusion of free electrons across the junction of an
44. To produce a large forward current in a silicon diode, unbiased diode produces
the applied voltage must be greater than
a. Forward bias
a. 0 b. Reverse bias
b. 0.3 V c. Breakdown
c. 0.7 V d. The depletion layer
d. 1 V
49. When the reverse voltage increases from 5 to 10 V, 3. What kind of a device is a diode?
the depletion layer
a. Bilateral
a. Becomes smaller b. Linear
b. Becomes larger c. Nonlinear
c. Is unaffected d. Unipolar
d. Breaks down
4. How is a nonconducting diode biased?
50. When a diode is forward-biased, the recombination of
free electrons and holes may produce a. Forward
b. Inverse
a. Heat c. Poorly
b. Light d. Reverse
c. Radiation
d. All of the above 5. When the diode current is large, the bias is
a. Forward
Chapter 3 b. Inverse
c. Poor
d. Reverse
1. When the graph of current versus voltage is a straight
line, the device is referred to as 6. The knee voltage of a diode is approximately equal to
a. Active
b. Linear a. Applied voltage
c. Nonlinear b. Barrier potential
d. Passive c. Breakdown voltage
d. Forward voltage
2. What kind of device is a resistor?
a. Unilateral
b. Linear
c. Nonlinear
d. Bipolar
7. The reverse current consists of minority-carrier current 11. The bulk resistance of a 1N4001 is
a. 0
a. Avalanche current b. 0.23 ohm
b. Forward current c. 10 ohm
c. Surface-leakage current d. 1 kohm
d. Zener current
12. If the bulk resistance is zero, the graph above the
8. How much voltage is there across the second knee becomes
approximation of a silicon diode when it is forward
biased? a. Horizontal
b. Vertical
a. 0 c. Tilted at 450
b. 0.3 V d. None of the above
c. 0.7 V
d. 1 V 13. The ideal diode is usually adequate when
a. 0
b. 0.7 V
c. More than 0.7 V
d. 1 V
15. The only time you have to use the third approximation 19. If the diode is open in Fig. 3-19, the load voltage is
is when
a. 0
a. Load resistance is low b. 14.3 V
b. Source voltage is high c. 20 V
c. Troubleshooting d. -15 V
d. None of the above
20. If the resistor is ungrounded in Fig. 3-19, the voltage
16. How much load current is there in Fig. 3-19 (see your measured with a DMM between the top of the resistor
textbook) with the ideal diode? and ground is closest to
a. 0 a. 0
b. 14.3 mA b. 15 V
c. 15 mA c. 20 V
d. 50 mA d. -15 V
17. How much load current is there in Fig. 3-19 (see your 21. The load voltage measures zero in Fig. 3-19. The
textbook) with the second approximation? trouble may be
a. 0 a. A shorted diode
b. 14.3 mA b. An open diode
c. 15 mA c. An open load resistor
d. 50 mA d. Too much supply voltage
18. How much load current is there in Fig. 3-19 with the
third approximation?
a. 0
b. 14.3 mA
c. 15 mA
d. 50 mA
Chapter 4
a. 0 degrees
b. 90 degrees
c. 180 degrees
8. What is the peak load voltage in a full-wave rectifier if 12. If line frequency is 60 Hz, the output frequency of a
the secondary voltage is 20 V rms? half-wave rectifier is
a. 0 V a. 30 Hz
b. 0.7 V b. 60 Hz
c. 14.1 V c. 120 Hz
d. 28.3 V d. 240 Hz
9. We want a peak load voltage of 40 V out of a bridge 13. If line frequency is 60 Hz, the output frequency of a
rectifier. What is the approximate rms value of bridge rectifier is
secondary voltage?
a. 30 Hz
a. 0 V b. 60 Hz
b. 14.4 V c. 120 Hz
c. 28.3 V d. 240 Hz
d. 56.6 V
14. With the same secondary voltage and filter, which
10. With a full-wave rectified voltage across the load has the most ripple?
resistor, load current flows for what part of a cycle?
a. Half-wave rectifier
a. 0 degrees b. Full-wave rectifier
b. 90 degrees c. Bridge rectifier
c. 180 degrees d. Impossible to say
d. 360 degrees
15. With the same secondary voltage and filter, which
11. What is the peak load voltage out of a bridge rectifier produces the least load voltage?
for a secondary voltage of 15 V rms? (Use second
approximation.) a. Half-wave rectifier
b. Full-wave rectifier
a. 9.2 V c. Bridge rectifier
b. 15 V d. Impossible to say
c. 19.8 V
d. 24.3 V
16. If the filtered load current is 10 mA, which of the 20. If the secondary voltage increases in a bridge rectifier
following has a diode current of 10 mA? with a capacitor-input filter, the load voltage will
17. If the load current is 5 mA and the filter capacitance is 21. If the filter capacitance is increased, the ripple will
1000uF, what is the peak-to-peak ripple out of a bridge
rectifier? a. Decrease
b. Stay the same
a. 21.3 pV c. Increase
b. 56.3 nV d. None of these
c. 21.3 mV
d. 41.7 mV
Chapter 5
18. The diodes in a bridge rectifier each have a maximum
dc current rating of 2 A. This means the dc load current
can have a maximum value of 1. What is true about the breakdown voltage in a zener
a. 1 A
b. 2 A a. It decreases when current increases.
c. 4 A b. It destroys the diode.
d. 8 A c. It equals the current times the resistance.
d. It is approximately constant.
19. What is the PIV across each diode of a bridge
rectifier with a secondary voltage of 20 V rms?
a. 14.1 V
b. 20 V
c. 28.3 V
d. 34 V
2. Which of these is the best description of a zener 6.In the second approximation, the total voltage across
diode? the zener diode is the sum of-the breakdown voltage and
the voltage across the
a. It is a rectifier diode.
b. It is a constant-voltage device. a. Source
c. It is a constant-cuffent device. b. Series resistor
d. It works in the forward region. c. Zener resistance
d. Zener diode
3. A zener diode
7. The load voltage is approximately constant when a
a. Is a battery zener diode is
b. Has a constant voltage in the breakdown region
c. Has a barrier potential of 1 V a. Forward-biased
d. Is forward-biased b. Reverse-biased
c. Operating in the breakdown region
4. The voltage across the zener resistance is usually d. Unbiased
a. Decreases a. Decreases
b. Stays the same b. Increases
c. Increases c. Breaks down
d. Equals the source voltage divided by the series d. Stores charges
15. Breakdown does not destroy a zener diode provided
11. When the source voltage increases in a zener the zener current is less than the
regulator, which of these currents remains approximately
constant? a. Breakdown voltage
b. Zener test current
a. Series current c. Maximum zener current rating
b. Zener current d. Banier potential
c. Load current
d. Total current 16. To display the digit 8 in a seven-segment indicator,
21. When the reverse voltage increases, the capacitance 25. A blown-fuse indicator uses a
a. Free electrons
b. Holes
c. Neither
d. Both
5. The barrier potential across each silicon depletion 9. Most of the electrons in the base of an npn transistor
layer is flow
6. The emitter diode is usually 10. Most of the electrons in the base of an npn transistor
do not recombine because they
a. Forward-biased
b. Reverse-biased a. Have a long lifetime
c. Nonconducting b. Have a negative charge
d. Operating in the breakdown region c. Must flow a long way through the base
d. Flow out of the base
7. For normal operation of the transistor, the collector
diode has to be 11. Most of the electrons that flow through the base will
8. The base of an npn transistor is thin and 12. The current gain of a transistor is the ratio of the
24. If the base current is 100 mA and the current gain is 28. The base-emitter voltage of the second
30, the collector current is approximation is
a. 300 mA a. 0
b. 3 A b. 0.3 V
c. 3.33 A c. 0.7 V
d. 10 A d. 1 V
29. If the base resistor is open, what is the collector 3. When the collector current increases, what does the
cuffent? current gain do?
a. 0 a. Decreases
b. 1 mA b. Stays the same
c. 2 mA c. Increases
d. 10 mA d. Any of the above
Chapter 7 a. Decreases
b. Remains the same
c. Increases
1. The current gain of a transistor is defined as the ratio d. Can be any of the above
of the collector current to the
5. When the base resistor decreases, the collector
a. Base current voltage will probably
b. Emitter current
c. Supply current a. Decrease
d. Collector current b. Stay the same
c. Increase
2. The graph of current gain versus collector-current d. Do all of the above
indicates that the current gain
6. If the base resistor is very small, the transistor will
a. Is constant operate in the
b. Varies slightly
c. Varies significantly a. Cutoff region
d. Equals the collector current divided by the base b. Active region
current c. Saturation region
d. Breakdown region
7. Ignoring the bulk resistance of the collector diode, the 11. If the base supply voltage increases, the Q point
collector-emitter saturation voltage is moves
a. 0 a. Down
b. A few tenths of a volt b. Up
c. 1 V c. Nowhere
d. Supply voltage d. Off the load line
8. Three different Q points are shown on a load line. The 12. Suppose the base resistor is open. The Q point will
upper Q point represents the be
9. If a transistor operates at the middle of the load line, 13. If the base supply voltage is disconnected, the
an increase in the base resistance will move the Q point collector-emitter voltage will equal
a. Down a. 0 V
b. Up b. 6 V
c. Nowhere c. 10.5 V
d. Off the load line d. Collector supply voltage
10. If a transistor operates at the middle of the load line, 14. If the base resistor is shorted, the transistor will
an increase in the current gain will move the Q point probably be
a. Down a. Saturated
b. Up b. In cutoff
c, Nowhere c. Destroved
d. Off the load line d. None of the above
15. If the collector resistor decreases to zero in a base- 19. When there is no base current in a transistor switch,
biased circuit, the load line will become the output voltage from the transistor is
a. Horizontal a. Low
b. Vertical b. High
c. Useless c. Unchanged
d. Flat d. Unknown
16. The collector current is 10 mA. If the current gain is 20. A circuit with a fixed emitter current is called
100, the base current is
a. Base bias
a. 1 microamp b. Emitter bias
b. 10 microamp c. Transistor bias
c. 100 microamp d. Two-supply bias
d. 1 mA
21. The first step in analyzing emitter-based circuits is to
17. The base current is 50 microamp. If the current gain find the
is 125, the collector current is closest in value to
a. Base current
a. 40 microamp b. Emitter voltage
b. 500 microamp c. Emitter current
c. 1 mA d. Collector current
d. 6 mA
22. If the current gain is unknown in an emitter-biased
18. When the Q point moves along the load line, the circuit, you cannot calculate the
voltage increases when the collector current
a. Emitter voltage
a. Decreases b. Emitter current
b. Stays the same c. Collector current
c. Increases d. Base current
d. Does none of the above
23. If the emitter resistor is open, the collector voltage is 27. If the emitter resistance decreases, the
a. Low Chapter 8
b. High
c. Unchanged
d. Unknown 1. For emitter bias, the voltage across the emitter resistor
is the same as the voltage between the emitter and the
25. When the current gain increases from 50 to 300 in an
emitter-biased circuit, the collector current a. Base
b. Collector
a. Remains almost the same c. Emitter
b. Decreases by a factor of 6 d. Ground
c. Increases by a factor of 6
d. Is zero 2. For emitter bias, the voltage at the emitter is 0.7 V less
than the
26. If the emitter resistance decreases, the collector
voltage a. Base voltage
b. Emitter voltage
a. Decreases c. Collector voltage
b. Stays the same d. Ground voltage
c. Increases
d. Breaks down the transistor
3. With voltage-divider bias, the base voltage is 7. VDB needs
5. With VDB, an increase in emitter resistance will 9. The collector voltage of a VDB circuit is not sensitive to
changes in the
a. Decrease the emitter voltage
b. Decrease the collector voltage a. Supply voltage
c. Increase the emitter voltage b. Emitter resistance
d. Decrease the emitter current c. Current gain
d. Collector resistance
6. VDB has a stable Q point like
10. If the emitter resistance increases in a VDB circuit,
a. Base bias the collector voltage
b. Emitter bias
c. Collector-feedback bias a. Decreases
d. Emitter-feedback bias b. Stays the same
c. Increases
d. Doubles
11. Base bias is associated with 15. The base voltage of two-supply emitter bias (TSEB)
a. Amplifiers
b. Switching circuits a. 0.7 V
c. Stable Q point b. Very large
d. Fixed emitter current c. Near 0 V
d. 1.3 V
12. If the emitter resistance doubles in a VDB circuit, the
collector current will 16. If the emitter resistance doubles with TSEB, the
collector current will
a. Double
b. Drop in half a. Drop in half
c. Remain the same b. Stay the same
d. Increase c. Double
d. Increase
13. If the collector resistance increases in a VDB circuit,
the collector voltage will 17. If a splash of solder shorts the collector resistor of
TSEB, the collector voltage will
a. Decrease
b. Stay the same a. Drop to zero
c. Increase b. Equal the collector supply voltage
d. Double c. Stay the same
d. Double
14. The Q point of a VDB circuit is
18. If the emitter resistance increases with TSEB, the
a. Hypersensitive to changes in current gain collector voltage will
b. Somewhat sensitive to changes in current gain
c. Almost totally insensitive to changes in current a. Decrease
gain b. Stay the same
d. Greatly affected by temperature changes C. Increase
d. Equal the collector supply voltage
19. If the emitter resistor opens with TSEB, the collector 23. The current gain of a pnp transistor is
voltage will
a. The negative of the npn current gain
a. Decrease b. The collector current divided by the emitter current
b. Stay the same c. Near zero
c. Increase slightly d. The ratio of collector current to base current
d. Equal the collector supply voltage
24. Which is the largest current in a pnp transistor?
20. In TSEB, the base current must be very
a. Base current
a. Small b. Emitter current
b. Large c. Collector current
c. Unstable d. None of these
d. Stable
25. The currents of a pnp transistor are
21. The Q point of TSEB does not depend on the
a. Usually smaller than npn currents
a. Emitter resistance b. Opposite npn currents
b. Collector resistance c. Usually larger than npn currents
c. Current gain d. Negative
d. Emitter voltage
26. With pnp voltage-divider bias, you must use
22. The majority carriers in the emitter of a pnp transistor
are a. Negative power supplies
b. Positive power supplies
a. Holes c. Resistors
b. Free electrons d. Grounds
c. Trivalent atoms
d. Pentavalent atoms
Chapter 9
1. For dc, the current in a coupling circuit is 5. The capacitor that produces an ac ground is called a
2. The current in a coupling circuit for high frequencies is 6. The capacitors of a CE amplifier appear
a. Zero a. Open to ac
b. Maximum b. Shorted to dc
c. Minimum c. Open to supply voltage
d. Average d. Shorted to ac
a. Beta a. Is grounded
b. Ac emitter resistance b. Has no de voltage
c. DC collector voltage c. Has an ac voltage
d. AC collector resistance d. Has no ac voltage
6. Compared to the ac resistance of the emitter diode, 10. A swamped amplifier uses
the feedback resistance of a swamped amplifier should
be a. Base bias
b. Positive feedback
a. Small c. Negative feedback
b. Equal d. A grounded emitter
c. Large
d. Zero 11. In a swamped amplifier, the effects of the emitter
diode become
7. Compared to a CE stage, a swamped amplifier has an
input impedance that is a. Important to voltage gain
b. Critical to input impedance
a. Smaller c. Significant to the analysis
b. Equal d. Unimportant
c. Larger
d. Zero 12. The feedback resistor
8. To reduce the distortion of an amplified signal, you can a. Increases voltage gain
increase the b. Reduces distortion
c. Decreases collector resistance
a. Collector resistance d. Decreases input impedance
b. Emitter feedback resistance
c. Generator resistance
d. Load resistance
13. The feedback resistor 17. If the load resistance is open, the ac output voltage
a. Stabilizes voltage gain
b. Increases distortion a. Decrease
c. Increases collector resistance b. Increase
d. Decreases input impedance c. Remain the same
d. Equal zero
14. The ac collector resistance of the first stage includes
the 18. If any capacitor is open, the ac output voltage will
15. If the emitter bypass capacitor opens, the ac output 19. If the input coupling capacitor is open, the ac input
voltage will voltage will
a. Decrease a. Decrease
b. Increase b. Increase
c. Remain the same c. Remain the same
d. Equal zero d. Equal zero
16. If the collector resistor is shorted, the ac output 20. If the bypass capacitor is open, the ac input voltage
voltage will will
a. Decrease a. Decrease
b. Increase b. Increase
c. Remain the same c. Remain the same
d. Equal zero d. Equal zero
21. If the output coupling capacitor is open, the ac input Chapter 11
voltage will
a. Decrease a. Narrowband
b. Increase b. Wideband
c. Remain the same c. Direct coupled
d. Equal zero d. Impedance coupled
5. The first stage of a preamp is 9. Push-pull is almost always used with
6. For maximum peak-to-peak output voltage, the Q point 10. One advantage of a class B push-pull amplifier is
should be
a. Very small quiescent current drain
a. Near saturation b. Maximum efficiency of 78.5 percent
b. Near cutoff c. Greater efficiency than class A
c. At the center of the dc load line d. All of the above
d. At the center of the ac load line
11. Class C amplifiers are almost always
7. An amplifier has two load lines because
a. Transformer-coupled between stages
a. It has ac and dc collector resistances b. Operated at audio frequencies
b. It has two equivalent circuits c. Tuned RF amplifiers
c. DC acts one way and ac acts another d. Wideband
d. All of the above
12. The input signal of a class C amplifier
8. When the Q point is at the center of the ac load line,
the maximum peak-to-peak output voltage equals a. Is negatively clamped at the base
b. Is amplified and inverted
a. VCEQ c. Produces brief pulses of collector current
b. 2VCEQ d. All of the above
c. ICQ
d. 2IcQ
13. The collector current of a class C amplifier 17. The ac load line is the same as the dc load line when
the ac collector resistance equals the
a. Is an amplified version of the input voltage
b. Has harmonics a. DC emitter resistance
c. Is negatively clamped b. AC emitter resistance
d. Flows for half a cycle c. DC collector resistance
d. Supply voltage divided by collector current
14. The bandwidth of a class C amplifier decreases when
the 18. If RC = 3.6 kohm and RL = 10 kohm, the ac load
resistance equals
a. Resonant frequency increases
b. Q increases a. 10 kohm
c. XL decreases b. 2.65 kohm
d. Load resistance decreases c. I kohm
d. 3.6 kohm
15. The transistor dissipation in a class C amplifier
decreases when the 19. The quiescent collector current is the same as the
16. The power rating of a transistor can be increased by 20. The ac load line usually
a. 0 a. Low
b. 2 percent b. High
c. 3 percent c. Shorted to ground
d. 20 percent d. Open
a. Much less than one 5. The ac base voltage of an emitter follower is across
b. Approximately equal to one the
c. Greater than one
d. Zero a. Emitter diode
b. DC emitter resistor
2. The total ac emitter resistance of an emitter follower c. Load resistor
equals d. Emitter diode and external ac emitter resistance
9. The ac emitter current is closest to 13. If the Q point is at the middle of the dc load line,
clipping will first occur on the
a. VG divided by re
b. vin divided by re' a. Left voltage swing
c. VG divided by re' b. Upward current swing
d. vin divided by re c. Positive half cycle of input
d. Negative half cycle of input
10. The output voltage of an emitter follower is
approximately 14. If an emitter follower has VCEQ = 5 V, ICQ = 1 mA,
and re = 1 kohm, the maximum peak-to-peak unclipped
a. 0 output is
b. VG
c. vin a. 1 V
d. Vcc b. 2 V
c. 5 V
d. 10 V
15. If the load resistance of an emitter follower is very 19. The ac load line of the emitter follower is
large, the external ac emitter resistance equals
a. The same as the dc load line
a. Generator resistance b. Different from the dc load line
b. Impedance of the base c. Horizontal
c. DC emitter resistance d. Vertical
d. DC collector resistance
20. If the generator voltage is 5 mV in an emitter follower,
16. If an emitter follower has re' = 10 ohm and re = 90 the output voltage across the load is closest to
ohm, the voltage gain is approximately
a. 5 mV
a. 0 b. 150 mV
b. 0.5 c. 0.25 V
c. 0.9 d. 0.5 V
d. 1
21. If the load resistor of Fig. 12-la in your textbook is
17. A square wave out of an emitter follower implies shorted, which of the following are different from their
normal values:
a. No clipping
b. Clipping at saturation a. Only ac voltages
c. Clipping at cutoff b. Only dc voltages
d. Clipping on both peaks c. Both dc and ac voltages
d. Neither dc nor ac voltages
18. A Darlington transistor has
22. If R1 is open in an emitter follower, which of these is
a. A very low input impedance true?
b. Three transistors
c. A very high current gain a. DC base voltage is Vcc
d. One VBE drop b. DC collector voltage is zero
c. Output voltage is normal
d. DC base voltage is zero
23. Usually, the distortion in an emitter follower is 27. The transistors of a class B push-pull emitter follower
are biased at or near
a. Very low
b. Very high a. Cutoff
c. Large b. The center of the dc load line
d. Not acceptable c. Saturation
d. The center of the ac load line
24. The distortion in an emitter follower is
28. Thermal runaway is
a. Seldom low
b. Often high a. Good for transistors
c. Always low b. Always desirable
d. High when clipping occurs c. Useful at times
d. Usually destructive
25. If a CE stage is direct coupled to an emitter follower,
how many coupling capacitors are there between the two 29. The ac resistance of compensating diodes
a. Must be included
a. 0 b. Is usually small enough to ignore
b. 1 c. Compensates for temperature changes
c. 2 d. Is very high
d. 3
30. A small quiescent current is necessary with a class B
26. A Darlington transistor has a Beta of 8000. If RE = 1 push-pull amplifier to avoid
kohm and RL = 100 ohm, the input impedance of the
base is closest to a. Thermal runaway
b. Destroying the compensating diodes
a. 8 kohm c. Crossover distortion
b. 80 kohm d. Excessive current drain
c. 800 kohm
d. 8 Mohm
31. The zener current in a zener follower is 35. The ac emitter resistance of an emitter follower
a. Is regulated Chapter 13
b. Has much smaller ripple than the input voltage
c. Is larger than the zener voltage
d. All of the above 1. A JFET
7. The pinchoff voltage has the same magnitude as the 11. The transconductance increases when the drain
current approaches
a. Gate voltage
b. Drain-source voltage a. 0
c. Gate-source voltage b. ID(sat)
d. Gate-source cutoff voltage c. IDSS
d. IS
12. A CS amplifier has a voltage gain of 16. A cascode amplifier has the advantage of
13. A source follower has a voltage gain of 17. VHF stands for frequencies from
14. When the input signal is large, a source follower has 18. When a JFET is cut off, the depletion layers are
15. The input signal used with a JFET analog switch 19. When the gate voltage becomes more negative in an
should be n-channel JFET, the channel between the depletion
a. Small
b. Large a. Shrinks
c. A square wave b. Expand
d. Chopped c. Conduct
d. Stop conducting
20. If a JFET has IDSS = 10 mA and VP = 2 V, then RDS 24. Transconductance is measured in
a. Ohms
a. 200 ohm b. Amperes
b. 400 ohm c. Volts
c. 1 kohm d. Mhos or Siemens
d. 5 kohm
25. Transconductance indicates how effectively the input
21. The easiest way to bias a JFET in the ohmic region is voltage controls the
a. Voltage gain
a. Voltage-divider bias b. Input resistance
b. Self-bias c. Supply voltage
c. Gate bias d. Output current
d. Source bias
a. VDD/2 a. Transistors
b. VGS b. Feedback
c. VDS c. Current
d. VDD d. Positive feedback
20. The RDS(on) of a power FET 4. To turn on a four-layer diode, you need
a. A resistor
b. An amplifier
c. A switch
d. A power source
6. The only way to stop a four-layer diode that is 10. SCRs are
conducting is by
a. Low-power devices
a. A positive trigger b. Four-layer diodes
b. Low-current drop out c. High-current devices
c. Breakover d. Bidirectional
d. Reverse-bias triggering
11. The usual way to protect a load from excessive
7. The minimum anode current that keeps a thyristor supply voltage is with a
turned on is called the
a. Crowbar
a. Holding current b. Zener diode
b. Trigger current c. Four-layer diode
c. Breakover current d. Thyristor
d. Low-current drop out
12. An RC snubber protects an SCR against
8. A silicon controlled rectifier has
a. Supply overvoltages
a. Two external leads b. False triggering
b. Three external leads c. Breakover
c. Four external leads d. Crowbarring
d. Three doped regions
13. When a crowbar is used with a power supply, the
9. A SCR is usually turned on by supply needs to have a fuse or
a. Current a. Breakover
b. Voltage b. Forward-bias triggering
c. Humidity c. Low-current dropout
d. Light d. Reverse-bias triggering
16. The triac is equivalent to 20. The trigger voltage of an SCR is closest to
a. A four-layer diode a. 0
b. Two diacs in parallel b. 0.7 V
c. A thyristor with a gate lead c. 4 V
d. Two SCRs in parallel d. Breakover voltage
17. The unijunction transistor acts as a 21. Any thyristor can be turned off with
a. A factor of 2 a.1
b. 3 dB b. 10
c. 6 dB c. 100
d. 10 dB d. 1000
7. If the voltage gain is 10, the decibel voltage gain is 11. Two stages have voltage gains of 100 and 200. The
total decibel voltage gain is
a. 6 dB
b. 20 dB a. 46 dB
c. 40 dB b. 66 dB
d. 60 dB c. 86 dB
d. 106 dB
8. If the voltage gain is 100, the decibel voltage gain is
12. One frequency is 8 times another frequency. How
a. 6 dB many octaves apart are the two frequencies?
b. 20 dB
c. 40 dB a. 1
d. 60 dB b. 2
c. 3
9. If the voltage gain is 2000, the decibel voltage gain is d. 4
a. 20 a. Discrete circuits
b. 200 b. Integrated circuits
c. 2000 c. SSI
d. 20,000 d. Monolithic ICs
a. Difference between two emitter currents a. The base currents are equal
b. Sum of two emitter currents b. The collector currents are equal
c. Collector current divided by current gain c. An output error voltage usually exists
d. Collector voltage divided by collector resistance d. The ac output voltage is zero
8.The voltage gain of a diff amp with a differential output 12. One source of output error voltage is
is equal to RC divided by
a. Input bias current
a. re' b. Difference in collector resistors
b. re'/2 c. Tail current
c. 2re' d. Common-mode voltage gain
d. RE
13. A common-mode signal is applied to 17. The common-mode voltage gain of a diff amp is
equal to RC divided by
a. The noninverting input
b. The inverting input a. re'
c. Both inputs b. re'/2
d. Top of the tail resistor c. 2re'
d. 2RE
14. The common-mode voltage gain is
18. When the two bases are grounded in a diff amp, the
a. Smaller than voltage gain voltage across each emitter diode is
b. Equal to voltage gain
c. Greater than voltage gain a. Zero
d. None of the above b. 0.7 V
c. The same
15. The input stage of an op amp is usually a d. High
22. With both bases grounded, the only offset that 3. At the unity-gain frequency, the open-loop voltage gain
produces an error is the is
16. The 741C has a unity-gain frequency of 20. If the frequency is greater than the power bandwidth,
17. The unity-gain frequency equals the product of 21. An op amp has an open base resistor. The output
closed-loop voltage gain and the voltage will be
a. 2 microvolts a. Is larger
b. 5 mV b. Appears triangular
c. 10 mV c. Is normal
d. 1 V d. Has no offset
23. A 741C has supply voltages of plus and minus 15 V. 27. A 741C has
If the load resistance is large, the MPP value is
a. A voltage gain of 100,000
a. 0 b. An input impedance of 2 Mohm
b. +15 V c. An output impedance of 75 ohm
c. 27 V d. All of the above
d. 30 V
28. The closed-loop voltage gain of an inverting amplifier
24. Above the cutoff frequency, the voltage gain of a equals
741C decreases approximately
a. The ratio of the input resistance to the feedback
a. 10 dB per decade resistance
b. 20 dB per octave b. The open-loop voltage gain
c. 10 dB per octave c. The feedback resistance divided by the input
d. 20 dB per decade resistance
d. The input resistance
25. The voltage gain of an op amp is unity at the
29. The noninverting amplifier has a
a. Cutoff frequency
b. Unity-gain frequency a. Large closed-loop voltage gain
c. Generator frequency b. Small open-loop voltage gain
d. Power bandwidth c. Large closed-loop input impedance
d. Large closed-loop output impedance
30. The voltage follower has a 3. A VCVS amplifier approximates an ideal
31. A summing amplifier can have 4. The voltage between the input terminals of an ideal op
amp is
a. No more than two input signals
b. Two or more input signals a. Zero
c. A closed-loop input impedance of infinity b. Very small
d. A small open-loop voltage gain c. Very large
d. Equal to the input voltage
a. No negative supply voltage a. Usually larger than the open-loop input impedance
b. Shorted feedback resistor b. Equal to the open-loop input impedance
c. No feedback voltage c. Sometimes less than the open-loop impedance
d. Open load resistor d. Ideally zero
8. In a VCVS amplifier, any decrease in open-loop 12. With an ICVS amplifier, the circuit approximates an
voltage gain produces an increase in ideal
9. The open-loop voltage gain equals the 13. Negative feedback reduces the
10. The loop gain AOLB 14. A voltage follower has a voltage gain of
a. Zero a. Small
b. Very small b. Large
c. Very large c. Ideally zero
d. Equal to the input voltage d. Ideally infinite
16. The transresistance of an amplifier is the ratio of its 20. The open-loop bandwidth equals
17. Current cannot flow to ground through 21. The closed-loop bandwidth equals
18. In a current-to-voltage converter, the input current 22. For a given op amp, which of these is constant?
a. f2(CL)
a. Through the input impedance of the op amp b. Feedback voltage
b. Through the feedback resistor c. ACL
c. To ground d. ACLf2(CL)
d. Through the load resistor
23. Negative feedback does not improve 27. An ICVS amplifier has no output voltage. A possible
trouble is
a. Stability of voltage gain
b. Nonlinear distortion in later stages a. No positive supply voltage
c. Output offset voltage b. Open feedback resistor
d. Power bandwidth c. No feedback voltage
d. Shorted load resistor
24. An ICVS amplifier is saturated. A possible trouble is
28. The closed-loop input impedance in a VCVS amplifier
a. No supply voltages is
b. Open feedback resistor
c. No input voltage a. Usually larger than the open-loop input impedance
d. Open load resistor b. Equal to the open-loop input impedance
c. Sometimes less than the open-loop input impedance
25. A VCVS amplifier has no output voltage. A possible d. Ideally zero
trouble is
a. Zero a. ACL
b. Minimum b. Beta dc
c. Maximum c. funity
d. Unchanged d. Av
3. To use an op amp, you need at least 7. Given a voltage reference of +2.5 V, we can get a
voltage reference of +15 V by using a
a. One supply voltage
b. Two supply voltages a. Inverting amplifier
c. One coupling capacitor b. Noninverting amplifier
d. One bypass capacitor c. Differential amplifier
d. Instrumentation amplifier
4. In a controlled current source with op amps, the circuit
acts like a 8. In a differential amplifier, the CMRR is limited mostly
a. Voltage amplifier
b. Current-to-voltage converter a. CMRR of the op amp
c. Voltage-to-current converter b. Gain-bandwidth product
d. Current amplifier c. Supply voltages
d. Tolerance of resistors
5. An instrumentation amplifier has a high
9. The input signal for an instrumentation amplifier
a. Output impedance usually comes from
b. Power gain
c. CMRR a. An inverting amplifier
d. Supply voltage b. A transducer
c. A differential amplifier
d. A Wheatstone bridge
10. In the classic three op-amp instrumentation amplifier, 14. In a voltage-controlled current source,
the differential voltage gain is usually produced by the
a. A current booster is never used
a. First stage b. The load is always floated
b. Second stage c. A stiff current source drives the load
c. Mismatched resistors d. The load current equals ISC
d. Output op amp
15. The Howland current source produces a
11. Guard driving reduces the
a. Unidirectional floating load current
a. CMRR of an instrumentation amplifier b. Bidirectional single-ended load current
b. Leakage current in the shielded cable c. Unidirectional single-ended load current
c. Voltage gain of the first stage d. Bidirectional floating load current
d. Common-mode input voltage
16. The purpose of AGC is to
12. In an averaging circuit, the input resistances are
a. Increase the voltage gain when the input signal
a. Equal to the feedback resistance increases
b. Less than the feedback resistance b. Convert voltage to current
c. Greater than the feedback resistance c. Keep the output voltage almost constant
d. Unequal to each other d. Reduce the CMRR of the circuit
19. A thermistor converts 24. If an op amp has only a positive supply voltage, its
output cannot
a. Light to resistance
b. Temperature to resistance a. Be negative
c. Voltage to sound b. Be zero
d. Current to voltage c. Equal the supply voltage
d. Be ac coupled
20. When we trim a resistor, we are
21. A D/A converter with four inputs has 1. The region between the passband and the stopband is
a. Two outputs called the
b. Four outputs
c. Eight outputs a. Attenuation
d. Sixteen outputs b. Center
c. Transition
22. An op amp with a rail-to-rail output d. Ripple
a. Has a current-boosted output
b. Can swing all the way to either supply voltage
c. Has a high output impedance
d. Cannot be less than 0 V.
2. The center frequency of a bandpass filter is always 6. The approximation with a maximally-flat passband is
equal to
a. Chebyshev
a. The bandwidth b. Inverse Chebyshev
b. Geometric average of the cutoff frequencies c. Elliptic
c. Bandwidth divided by Q d. Bessel
d. 3-dB frequency
7. The approximation with a rippled passband is
3. The Q of a narrowband filter is always
a. Butterworth
a. small b. Inverse Chebyshev
b. equal to BW divided by f0 c. Elliptic
c. less than 1 d. Bessel
d. greater than 1
8. The approximation that distorts digital signals the least
4. A bandstop filter is sometimes called a is the
a. Snubber a. Butterworth
b. Phase shifter b. Chebyshev
c. Notch filter c. Elliptic
d. Time-delay circuit d. Bessel
5. The all-pass filter has 9. If a filter has six second-order stages and one first-
order stage, the order is
a. No passband
b. One stopband a. 2
c. the same gain at all frequencies b. 6
d. a fast rolloff above cutoff c. 7
d. 13
10. If a Butterworth filter has 9 second-order stages, its 14. The filter with the slowest rolloff rate is the
rolloff rate is
a. Butterworth
a. 20 dB per decade b. Chebyshev
b. 40 dB per decade c. Elliptic
c. 180 dB per decade d. Bessel
d. 360 dB per decade
15. A first-order active-filter stage has
11. If n = 10, the approximation with the fastest rolloff in
the transition region is a. One capacitor
b. Two op amps
a. Butterworth c. Three resistors
b. Chebyshev d. a high Q
c. Inverse Chebyshev
d. Elliptic 16. A first-order stage cannot have a
20. To get a Chebyshev response with a 12th-order filter, 24. When Q is greater than 1, a bandpass filter should be
the stages need to have built with
21. The Q of a Sallen-Key second-order stage depends 25. The all-pass filter is used when
on the
a. High rolloff rates are needed
a. Voltage gain b. Phase shift is important
b. Center frequency c. A maximally-flat passband is needed
c. Bandwidth d. A rippled stopband is important
d. GBW of the op amp
26. A second-order all-pass filter can vary the output 30. If GBW is limited, the Q of the stage will
phase from
a. Remain the same
a. 90 degrees to -90 degrees b. Double
b. 0 degrees to -180 degrees c. Decrease
c. 0 degrees to -360 degrees d. Increase
d. 0 degrees to -720 degrees
31. To correct for limited GBW, a designer may use
27. The all-pass filter is sometimes called a
a. A constant time delay
a. Tow-Thomas filter b. Predistortion
b. Delay equalizer c. Linear phase shift
c. KHN filter d. A rippled passband
d. State-variable filter
a. Comparator
b. Clamper
c. Limiter
d. Relaxation oscillator
3. The voltage out of a Schmitt trigger is 7.If pulse width decreases and the period stays the
same, the duty cycle
a. A low voltage
b. A high voltage a. Decreases
c. Either a low or a high voltage b. Stays the same
d. A sine wave c. Increases
d. Is zero
4. Hysteresis prevents false triggering associated with
8. The output of a relaxation oscillator is a
a. A sinusoidal input
b. Noise voltages a. Sine wave
c. Stray capacitances b. Square wave
d. Trip points c. Ramp
d. Spike
5. If the input is a rectangular pulse, the output of an
integrator is a 9. If AOL = 200,000, the closed-loop knee voltage of a
silicon diode is
a. Sine wave
b. Square wave a. 1 uV
c. Ramp b. 3.5 uV
d. Rectangular pulse c. 7 uV
d. 14 uV
6. When a large sine wave drives a Schmitt trigger, the
output is a 10. The input to a peak detector is a triangular wave with
a peak-to-peak value of 8 V and an average value of 0.
a. Rectangular wave The output is
b. Triangular wave
c. Rectified sine wave a. 0
d. Series of ramps b. 4 V
c. 8 V
d. 16 V
11. The input voltage to a positive limiter is a triangular 15. A Schmitt trigger uses
wave of 8 V pp and an average value of 0. If the
reference level is 2 V, the output is a. Positive feedback
b. Negative feedback
a. 0 c. Compensating capacitors
b. 2 Vpp d. Pullup resistors
c. 6 Vpp
d. 8 Vpp 16. A Schmitt trigger
22. An active half-wave rectifier has a knee voltage of 26. The positive clamper adds
5. A coupling circuit is a
a. Lag circuit
Chapter 23 b. Lead circuit
c. Lead-lag circuit
d. Resonant circuit
1 . An oscillator always needs an amplifier with
6. A lead circuit has a phase angle that is
a. Positive feedback
b. Negative feedback a. Between 0 and +90 degrees
c. Both types of feedback b. Greater than 90 degrees
d. An LC tank circuit c. Between 0 and -90 degrees
d. The same as the input voltage
2. The voltage that starts an oscillator is caused by
7. A Wien-bridge oscillator uses
a. Ripple from the power supply
b. Noise voltage in resistors a. Positive feedback
c. The input signal from a generator b. Negative feedback
d. Positive feedback c. Both types of feedback
d. An LC tank circuit
3. The Wien-bridge oscillator is useful
a. At low frequencies
b. At high frequencies
c. With LC tank circuits
d. At small input signals
8. Initially, the loop gain of a Wien-bridge oscillator is 12. For oscillations to start in a circuit, the loop gain must
be greater than 1 when the phase shift around the loop is
a. 0
b. 1 a. 90 degrees
c. Low b. 180 degrees
d. High c. 270 degrees
d. 360 degrees
9. A Wien bridge is sometimes called a
13. The most widely used LC oscillator is the
a. Notch filter
b. Twin-T oscillator a. Armstrong
c. Phase shifter b. Clapp
d. Wheatstone bridge C. Colpitts
d. Hartley
10. To vary the frequency of a Wien bridge, you can vary
14. Heavy feedback in an LC oscillator
a. One resistor
b. Two resistors a. Prevents the circuit from starting
c. Three resistors b. Causes saturation and cutoff
d. One capacitor c. Produces maximum output voltage
d. Means B is small
11. The phase-shift oscillator usually has
15. When Q decreases in a Colpitts oscillator, the
a. Two lead or lag circuits frequency of oscillation
b. Three lead or fag circuits
c. A lead-lag circuit a. Decreases
d. A twin-T filter b. Remains the same
c. Increases
d. Becomes erratic
16. Link coupling refers to 20. The material with the piezoelectric effect is
a. 0 a. Pulse width
b. 1 b. Period
c. 2 c. Duty cycle
d. 3 d. Space
25. An astable 555 timer has the following number of 29. The quantity that remains constant in a pulse-position
stable states: modulator is
a. 0 a. Pulse width
b. 1 b. Period
c. 2 c. Duty cycle
d. 3 d. Space
26. The pulse width out of a one-shot multivibrator 30. When a PLL is locked on the input frequency, the
increases when the VCO frequency
27. The output waveform of a 555 timer is 31. The bandwidth of the low-pass filter in a PLL
determines the
a. sinusoidal
b. triangular a. Capture range
c. rectangular b. Lock range
d. elliptical c. Free-running frequency
d. Phase difference
Chapter 24
1. Voltage regulators normally use 5. Simple current limiting produces too much heat in the
2. During regulation, the power dissipation of the pass 6. With foldback current limiting, the load voltage
transistor equals the collector-emitter voltage times the approaches zero, and the load current approaches
3. Without current limiting, a shorted load will probably 7. A capacitor may be needed in a discrete voltage
regulator to prevent
a. Produce zero load current
b. Destroy diodes and transistors a. Negative feedback
c. Have a load voltage equal to the zener voltage b. Excessive load current
d. Have too little load current c. Oscillations
d. Current sensing
4. A current-sensing resistor is usually
a. Zero
b. Small
c. Large
d. Open
8. If the output of a voltage regulator varies from 15 to 12. A voltage regulator has a ripple rejection of -60 dB. If
14.7 V between the minimum and maximum load current, the input ripple is 1 V, the output ripple is
the load regulation is
a. -60 mV
a. 0 b. 1 mV
b. 1% c. 10 mV
c. 2% d. 1000 V
d. 5%
13. Thermal shutdown occurs in an IC regulator if
9. If the output of a voltage regulator varies from 20 to
19.8 V when the line voltage varies over its specified a. Power dissipation is too high
range, the source regulation is b. Internal temperature is too high
c. Current through the device is too high
a. 0 d. All the above occur
b. 1%
c. 2% 14. If a linear three-terminal IC regulator is more than a
d. 5% few inches from the filter capacitor, you may get
oscillations inside the IC unless you use
10. The output impedance of a voltage regulator is
a. Current limiting
a. Very small b. A bypass capacitor on the input pin
b. Very large c. A coupling capacitor on the output pin
c. Equal to the load voltage divided by the load current d. A regulated input voltage
d. Equal to the input voltage divided by the output current
15. The 78XX series of voltage regulators produces an
11. Compared to the ripple into a voltage regulator, the output voltage that is
ripple out of a voltage regulator is a. Positive
b. Negative
a. Equal in value c. Either positive or negative
b. Much larger d. Unregulated
c. Much smaller
d. Impossible to determine
16. The 78XX-12 produces a regulated output voltage of 20. A series regulator is an example of a
a. 3 V a. Linear regulator
b. 4 V b. Switching regulator
c. 12 V c. Shunt regulator
d. 40 V d. Dc-to-dc converter
17. A current booster is a transistor in 21. To get more output voltage from a buck switching
regulator, you have to
a. Series with the IC regulator
b. Parallel with the IC regulator a. Decrease the duty cycle
c. Either series or parallel b. Decrease the input voltage
d. Shunt with the load c. Increase the duty cycle
d. Increase the switching frequency
18. To turn on a current booster, we can drive its base-
emitter terminals with the voltage across 22. An increase of line voltage into a power supply
usually produces
a. A load resistor
b. A zener impedance a. A decrease in load resistance
c. Another transistor b. An increase in load voltage
d. A current-sensing resistor c. A decrease in efficiency
d. Less power dissipation in the rectifier diodes
19. A phase splitter produces two output voltages that
are 23. A power supply with low output impedance has low
25. The input current to a shunt regulator is 29. A switching regulator is considered
a. Variable a. Quiet
b. Constant b. Noisy
c. Equal to load current c. Inefficient
d. Used to store energy in a magnetic field d. Linear
27. The efficiency of a voltage regulator is high when 31. A series regulator is more efficient than a shunt
regulator because
a. Input power is low
b. Output power is high a. It has a series resistor
c. Little power is wasted b. It can boost the voltage
d. Input power is high c. The pass transistor replaces the series resistor
d. It switches the pass transistor on and off
32. The efficiency of a linear regulator is high when the 36. The regulator with the highest efficiency is the
33. If the load is shorted, the pass transistor has the least 37. In a boost regulator, the output voltage is filtered with
power dissipation when the regulator has a
34. The dropout voltage of standard monolithic linear 38. The buck-boost regulator is also
regulators is closest to
a. A step-down regulator
a. 0.3 V b. A step-up regulator
b. 0.7 V c. An inverting regulator
c. 2 V d. All of the above
d. 3.1 V
a. Choke-input filter
b. Capacitor-input filter
c. Diode
d. Voltage divider


text:
NUFORC Home Page
Web Report Indexes : by Event Date | by Location | by Shape | by Posting Date
|Sighting Report
|Occurred : 4/11/2014 18:15 (Entered as : 04/11/14 18:15)
Reported: 4/11/2014 3:49:59 PM 15:49
Posted: 4/18/2014
Location: Headland, AL
Shape: Flash
|Loud explosion bang and flash of light at two different locations.
Heard a loud bang...almost loud explosion sound and then a flash of light came through house.
Happened at two different homes, two different locations, about a mile apart..

subset: commoncrawl


text:
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Questions tagged [nvidia-gamestream]
For questions related to NVidia Gamestream, a proprietary technology developed for streaming to NVidia's shield series devices, and supported on various platforms through the "Moonlight" project.
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Periodic stuttering when streaming games from PC to Galaxy S7
Using a Galaxy S7, I am suffering heavy stuttering when using game streaming apps in the form of skipped audio and video every 3 seconds. It works stutter-free with the Motorola Moto G (2013) and the ...


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News Display Mode
Chris Godwin
Expectations high heading into '19
Head coach Bruce Arians recently reiterated an earlier statement that Godwin could log triple-digit receptions in the coming season, Scott Smith of the Buccaneers' official site reports.
Nick Vannett
Falls on roster bubble
Vannett may face competition for a roster spot, Nishant Kondepudi of 710 ESPN Seattle reports.
Rhett Ellison
Stands out in Engram's absence
Ellison took advantage of Evan Engram's injury-related absence from June minicamp, Matt Lombardo of NJ.com reports.
Jonah Williams
Gets season-ending surgery
Williams (shoulder) underwent surgery Tuesday to repair a torn labrum and is expected to miss his entire rookie season, Geoff Hobson of the Bengals' official website reports.
Dexter Williams
Well-positioned for roster spot
Williams is one of four tailbacks on the Green Bay roster after the team cut Kapri Bibbs earlier in June.
Jamaal Williams
Facing competition from rookie
Williams could face competition from sixth-round pick Dexter Williams, FOX Sports Wisconsin reports.
Kyler Murray
Looks ready for starting job
Murray impressed his Cardinals teammates during the offseason program, ESPN.com's Josh Weinfuss reports.
Darrel Williams
Facing backup competition
Williams shared backfield reps with Damien Williams, Carlos Hyde and Darwin Thompson during the offseason program, Blair Kerkhoff of The Kansas City Star reports.
Andre Ellington
Chances improve with Wilson release
Ellington is one of five running backs currently remaining on the Buccaneers' roster following last Friday's release of Shaun Wilson, Scott Smith of the team's official site reports.
Taylor Gabriel
Hoping to build on career year
Gabriel has improved his connection with Mitchell Trubisky this offseason, Alyssa Barbiere of USA Today reports.
Tyreek Hill
To meet with NFL investigators
Hill will meet with NFL investigators this week, Terez A. Paylor of Yahoo Sports reports.
Scott Miller
Impressing this offseason
Miller was one of the standout performers of mandatory minicamp earlier in June, Carmen Vitali of the Buccaneers' official site reports.
Tyreek Hill
Could receive suspension in July
The Chiefs believe Hill could receive a suspension from the NFL as soon as next month, Nate Taylor of The Athletic reports.
Adam Shaheen
Sheds weight to improve durability
Shaheen lost seven pounds during the offseason, focusing on flexibility and core strength in an effort to avoid future injuries, Adam Jahns of The Athletic reports.
Taylor Gabriel
Showing major growth
Bears wide receivers coach Mike Furrey said Gabriel has shown "huge growth" since last offseason, Kevin Fishbain of The Athletic reports.
Miles Boykin
Will be counted on as rookie
Boykin (hamstring) is expected to have a key role in Baltimore's passing game as a rookie, Mike Preston of The Baltimore Sun reports.
Allen Robinson
Enjoys healthy offseason
Robinson was healthy throughout the offseason program, JJ Stankevitz of NBC Sports Chicago reports.
Mitchell Trubisky
Comfortable with Nagy
Trubisky feels much more confident in his second season under coach Matt Nagy, John Kampf of The News-Herald reports.
Trace McSorley
Getting work on special teams
McSorley has taken practice reps on special teams, including some as a punt returner, Ryan Mink of the Ravens' official website reports.
Devin Funchess
Making good impression
Coach Frank Reich said he was pleased with what he saw from Funchess during the offseason program, while Kevin Bowen of 1070 The Fan believes the wide receiver was inconsistent during the handful of practices open to the media.
Sony Michel
Running at full speed
Michel (knee) has been running at full speed and is making good progress in his recovery from arthroscopic surgery, Michael Giardi of NFL Network reports.
Devonta Freeman
Looking good during offseason
Coach Dan Quinn said Freeman looks like his old self again, Kelsey Conway of the Falcons' official website reports. "He was another one who had so much to prove and to get back out on the field and to recapture his energy and style so quickly," Quinn said. "I was very happy to see that. He looks so much like himself."
Keenan Allen
Returns healthy
Allen participated in the Chargers' offseason program, Ricky Henne of the team's official website reports.
Austin Ekeler
Focused on route running
Ekeler said he will focus on his route running this summer.
Justin Jackson
Little competition added
Jackson saw extra reps while Melvin Gordon sat out OTAs, Eric D. Williams of ESPN.com reports.


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The fifth match day of the French Ligue1 will continue with four night games. In one of them the second-ranked Dijon will meet Angers from the bottom of the table at its Gaston Gerard Stadium. Will these teams score each other?
This season Dijon made a substantial breakthrough comparing to the previous eleventh rank. The Mustards won all three opening games with the total score 8:1. They went in line with Paris Saint Germaine within three rounds. Nowadays the hosts are the second club of the Ligue1 with nine points.
Last match day Olivier Dall'Oglio's men lost to Caen at their Stade Gaston Gerard 0:2. The visitors have scored twice in both halves. The third Toulouse has the same number of points.
Angers had a horrible start of the season with three consecutive losses. Firstly, les Scoistes could not keep the winning and even neutral score with the newcomer Nimes. Secondly, they have been beaten twice at away in Rennes and Paris. In September the Black and Whites won for the first time. They took a narrow victory over Lille 1:0.
The guests sit on the eighteenth place with three points. The penultimate Bordeaux has the same figures. The last Guingamp did not earn any point.
The last H2H meetings ended with the same score 2:1 in Dijon and Angers.
Dijon's three games ended with both teams to score (no). Angers has scored in three matches of this season.
In spite of its current status, Angers is able to score almost everywhere. Dijon performs well at home. We believe, the hosts will earn some points after the last drop. Thus, we expect the home side's double chance with a conceded goal. We recommend to bet on both teams to score (yes) with a fine coefficient of 1.90.
Performance :
Dijon recent matches
Dijon - Caen 0 : 2
Nice - Dijon 0 : 4
Dijon - Nantes 2 : 0
Montpellier - Dijon 1 : 2
Reims - Dijon 2 : 1
Sochaux - Dijon 0 : 0
Dijon - R. Charleroi 2 : 2
Angers recent matches
Angers - Lille 1 : 0
Paris St.-Germain - Angers 3 : 1
Rennes - Angers 1 : 0
Angers - Nimes 3 : 4
Schalke - Angers 1 : 0
West Ham - Angers 1 : 0
Angers - Villarreal 0 : 0
Last meetings:
View more today's predictions
On this page you will find the prediction for the FOOTBALL match of Dijon vs Angers of the Ligue 1, France. In this personally prepared preview we use h2h stories, over/under stats, Dijon - Angers match facts and team news. For more accurate analysis we use any additional information like injuries, suspensions or weather forecasts. On BetFAQ.com website we provide information for helping you make your own decision regarding a bet on this event. Odds for the Dijon - Angers match prediction are relevant at the time of publication.


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I might add that in some development-friendly communities, the city and developer might try to play the eminent domain (condemnation) card. Ostensibly, eminent domain should be used only in the exercise of public good such as a new highway or road widening, though some cities get away with it in dubious circumstances. Your agent should know whether this could be an issue. Such a scenario, as unlikely as it is, would probably force you to hire a lawyer to get a decent price.
Pricing land can be trickier when compared to pricing a home. Developed lots in communities may have a clear "market" price based on the recent sale of similar lots. Raw land, however, may have fewer "comparable" sales to use in determining your price. In addition, the price you ultimately can attract for a singular lot or undeveloped land can vary greatly depending on the buyer's intended use of the property. For example, if a buyer feels that your acreage is appropriate for a high-end home development it likely will bring a higher price per acre than if a buyer only intends to build a single home on it.
Thanks so much for this article! I've run into a unique situation, where we found an amazing historic house that we'd like to restore, but it is currently listed as a vacant lot for sell with a shell house on it, rather than the house itself being listed. We know it's not in a flood plain, the deed is unrestricted, and the home appears to have been lived in within the last 30 years so there is electric, heating, and plumbing. Any suggestions on potential issues we should be asking about before we jump in? We've never looked at land before, so we're a bit overwhelmed by how much more complicated it appears to be vs buying a house.
Curry encourages sellers not to position their home as a teardown because it narrows the market only to those looking to build new, when there might be other buyers who would be happy to renovate it. No need to touch an outdated kitchen or bathroom, since a renovating buyer will likely target those rooms for first projects, but a broken stair rail or damaged window should be fixed.
Hi Tracy – have you considered looking for properties that aren't currently listed for sale? That's how I find all of my properties (and this is something most Realtors won't be able to help you with, because most of them are only looking at the properties currently listed on the MLS). I find these properties by sending out a direct mail campaign to the delinquent tax list in counties that are RURAL.
Grace Chang is amazing. I had to sell a land contract and was very concerned that our buyer would be happy with the new arrangements. Grace's helpful and caring attitude made all the difference. She walked me through every stage of this difficult process and everything turned out perfect. She was very professional, knowledgeable, and focused on the task to be done. Thank you Grace!read more
Its the perfect time to sell your land and develop. With the housing market on the up and the need for housing never more apparent, its greatly welcomed to find articles like this helpling the layman find his way through what can be considered a complicated process. http://www.richardhicksdevelopment.co.uk can advise on this process, help gain permissions and hold the land owners hand if needed. Happy to help if anyone needs further advice following this helpful article.
In terms of an investment – I only buy land when I'm getting it for FAR below market value (which basically guarantees that I'll be able to sell it some day for more than I paid for it)… and it doesn't sound like that's necessarily what's happening here. If you think you'd be able to use it for something that would increase the overall value of your current property, then it may make sense… but if not, then it may not make the most sense from an investment standpoint.
Offer owner financing. Land is usually hard to finance and if you're willing to take back a mortgage for the buyer, you'll expand the number of people who can buy your land. On the other hand, you're also taking the risk that the buyer won't make his payments and will default. To protect yourself, work with an attorney to draft strong legal documents that follow your state's laws and get as much money up front as is reasonably possible.
If you intend to hold onto a property for any length of time, beware of a super high tax bill relative to the actual value of the property itself. I haven't run across this issue very often, but for various reasons, there are some properties that have some ridiculously high taxes in proportion to the property's actual value (for example, if a $10,000 property has an annual tax bill of $2,000, THIS IS TOO HIGH). In my experience, I've found that a reasonable annual tax bill usually falls in the range of 1% – 4% of the property's full market value.
My wife and I are thinking about selling our home and have been looking for tips to get it off the market quickly. I like that you suggest talking to building inspectors because they deal with large volumes of buyers on the market. Having connections is really important to get the word out so we might try talking to a few different real estate agents and contractors. Thanks for the help!
Know what the land is zoned for. From the beginning, you need to have a clear understanding of what this land is zoned for. You don't want to discourage buyers by keeping them waiting until you have the answer, and you definitely don't want to mislead a buyer with incorrect information. It's better to be honest and then refer the buyer to information about changing land classifications and zoning exemptions.
You always have the option of selling your land through a professional which is your real estate agent. There are some significant benefits to doing this when you are looking for a quick sale. These experts have the training and expertise for selling property. They also have a large database of potential buyers. Then they have ready access to many more forms of marketing that you as a private seller may not have. This includes selling through the internet. Most have high profile sites set up that draws traffic from interested buyers. If you are attempting to sell your property online you probably don't have this same outreach.
This is fraught with problems due to human fallibility. As long as you and your neighbor(s) get along great, everything's fine, but there are about a million ways for it to go wrong. If he get's pissed off at you, your water goes off. If he dies and stops paying the electric (pump) bill, your water goes off. If he decides to fill his private lake and uses up all the water, your water goes off. What if it was originally his well, you move in, then a month later says the well has to be redone – are you paying for half of his expenses enough though you just got there? If you refuse, your water goes off. The possibilities go on and on… so keep it in mind.
These are the questions I ask myself before I buy any piece of vacant land. This isn't intended to be an all-inclusive list of EVERY possible issue you could ever encounter, but I'd say it covers about 95% of the potential concerns you ought to be aware of. Most of these issues come up very infrequently, but they are very important things to consider nonetheless. Remember, you don't need to be afraid of buying vacant land. You just need to be informed.
Another benefit of subdividing for homeowners who would like to liquidate some of their real estate without having to sell the farm (literally), is that they may be able to both cash in on a portion of vacant land and stay put on the rest. Holding onto some of their land can give that property time to increase in value as the surrounding subdivided land becomes developed.
great article and timely. I have several undeveloped lots located in urban and well rural settings., from quarter acre to 120 acres. I am also thinking of developing the lots my self but need a step by step process including spread sheet showing cost of development and potential roi. what type if assistance should I expect from local gov't in this process for environmental goals, building green, workforce housing etc. thanks


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Professed Nietzscheans do not have a great track record when it comes to actually understanding Nietzsche. There's even an entire Wikipedia page dedicated to the topic of misunderstanding Nietzsche, but the following is a more practical test to determine whether someone claiming to create their own values is really Nietzschean about it: is this person capable of laughing at literally anything? Of feeling nothing but joy when it comes to living one's life? Moondog, the protagonist from Harmony Korine's new comedy The Beach Bum (2019), passes the test with flying colours.
Continue reading 'Perhaps laughter will then have formed an alliance with wisdom': Nietzsche in The Beach Bum (2019)


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Article written by-Schaefer McClanahan
Nearly everybody at some time in their lives will need to work with an accredited roof fixing contractor. To ensure your project is completed promptly as well as within your spending plan, be extremely cautious in picking an accredited specialist. These are absolutely the actions you must follow to find a dependable as well as preferred service provider.
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text: Steve Baker wrote: > Linux *desperately* needs *good* games. The whole future of the > OS depends on it. If I see another Tetris clone I'll scream. > There are 64 tetris clones for Linux. But only one that is excellent. ;-) > It's not even that hard to do. Quadra weights in at nearly 30,000 lines (about 680k) of code. It wasn't *very* hard, but it was hard to do a game with the polish. And we didn't even completely succeed, the 1.1.0 version is much awaited (X support, user interface improvement, network improvement). -- Pierre Phaneuf Ludus Design, http://ludusdesign.com/ "First they ignore you. Then they laugh at you. Then they fight you. Then you win." -- Gandhi


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- Mobile camp
- Follows wildebeest migration
- Game drives
- Sanctuary Retreats portfolio
Start planning your tailor-made trip by calling one of our specialists on 855 686 7694Enquire
The Sanctuary Serengeti Migration Camp is a charming mobile camp which moves between three different locations to follow the migration as it travels across the Serengeti National Park, Northern Tanzania. Depending on exact migration movements, the camp is set up in the Western Serengeti from April to July, the Northern Serengeti from August to November and the Southern Serengeti from December to March. There is a rich abundance of wildlife to enjoy from wildebeest, zebra and gazelle to lion, hyena, cheetah and leopard, and the predator versus prey action is spectacular. Elephants are particularly fond of coming close to the camp, a delight to behold! Accessible via light aircraft, the camp's various locations are truly wild. Note that it's important to pack wisely, there is a 15kg limit for light aircraft luggage in one soft bag.
The main communal tents are simple but comfortable. The bar, lounge and dining areas are positioned for optimum views across the wide open plains and sofas are dotted strategically around the site. The food is really good and delicious bush picnics can be provided for days away. Private dining is also offered at selected spots around the camp.
The camp belongs to the Sanctuary Retreats portfolio which places firm emphasis on professional guiding and the morning and afternoon game drives are phenomenal. Note that there is potential for vehicle clustering in some parts of this busy National Park; however ultimately nothing can detract from the superb game-viewing opportunities. With its 500 bird species, the Serengeti is a real treat for ornithologists, so binoculars are a must!
The accommodation comprises 10 luxury safari tents, each with an en-suite bathroom with indoor bucket shower, hairdryer and electric plug points. There is a personal attendant for each tent, on hand to provide hot water for the shower whenever required.
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Sanctuary Serengeti Migration Camp is a classic and relaxed camp which moves between truly wild locations. There is a real sense of being close to nature and the year-round migration viewing opportunities coupled with warm service and genuine comfort make for a wonderful stay.
- Spectacular game drives
- Wonderful birdlife
- Authentic wild safari experience
- Small, friendly camp
- Tented camp
- Game-drives in Seronera Valley
- Grumeti River & Olduvai Gorge trips
- Swimming Pool
- Spectacular views
- Large pool
- Private game drives available
- Community visits and guided walks
- Simple Tented Camp
- Comfortable En-Suite Tents
- Simple set-up
- Central Serengeti
- Superb Big 5 game-viewing
- Archaeological visits
- Balloon safaris, Masai village visits
- Comfortable, good value accommodation
- Good value camp
- Night drives and bush walks
- Good location in Serengeti savannah
- 35 tents
- Intimate, mobile camp
- Follows the wildebeest migration
- Spectacular predator action
- Exceptional guiding
- Fixed Tented Camp
- High Specification
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- Wildebeest migration area
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- Follows the Great Migration
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- Lovely hilltop location
- Superb game drives
- Visits to Lake Magadi
- 12 tented rooms
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- 7 en-suite tents
- Central Serengeti location
- Good Family Tents
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-Excellent hosts
- Asilia Africa Camp
- Great Big Cat populations
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- Great Facilities
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- Superb Big 5 game drives
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- Large pool, 20 spacious tents
- Fantastic game viewing
- Located in Serengeti
- Spacious and luxurious tents
- Stunning waterside location
- Game drives, balloon rides
- Day trips to Lake Victoria
- &Beyond property
- Away from the tourist trail
- Stylish lodge with private feel
- Game drives, guided star gazing
- Serengeti Cheetah Project
- Semi-permanent, mobile camp
- Excellent guiding
- Game drives, balloon safaris
- Local community visits
- Private game drives
- Excellent Serengeti location
- Ngorongoro Conservation Area visits
- Alex Walker's Serian portfolio
- Exclusive, luxury property
- Pool, tennis court, spa, gym
- Game-drives and horse-back safari
- Superb game-viewing
- Guided walking safaris
- Olduvai Gorge and Masai community visits
- Small camp with friendly atmosphere
- Beautiful lakeside location
- Superb game-viewing
- Balloon safaris, archaeological visits
- Comfortable, static camp
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- Broad range of activities
- &Beyond portfolio
- Great game drives
- Excellent staff service
- Superb location and views
- Luxurious accommodation
- 8 tents, great for groups
- Private game drives
- Walking safari, fly-camping
- Alex Walker's Serian portfolio
- Mobile Safari Camp
- Follows Wildebeest Migration
- 9 Safari Tents
- High Specification
- Simple Tented Camp
- Northern Serengeti
- Basic En-suite tents
- Walking Safaris
- Asilia Africa Lodge
- Permanent 9 Tent Camp
- Swimming Pool
- Walking and ballooning safari available
- 4 tents, intimate camp
- Private game drives & walking safaris
- Fly-camping
- Alex Walker's Serian Portfolio
- Private game drives
- Bush walks, fly-camping
- Cultural interaction
- Alex Walker's Serian Portfolio
We had a wonderful time! Our transfers (besides a bit of a wait when we arrived) were smooth. The gentleman that drove us to and from the airport also drove us to our hike and he was very nice and helpful, clean car and very accommodating.
Our tour guide on the first day, Mandy, was charming and insightful. It was a slow day in the markets but we appreciated the space and gave us a chance to hear all about the Souks. The gentlemen who was with her was a wealth of knowledge and both did a very nice job!
Our hike was awesome and our guide was great- he even took us to a cool waterfall and took great care of us; lunch in the mountains was delicious!
The hotel was so lovely and the staff was very accommodating and helpful. The food was great and the rooms very comfortable!
I did a good amount of damage in the market (often accused of being Berber;) and truly hope to be back next Spring... maybe a girls trip or perhaps I'll bring my kiddos!
Thank you for organizing such a nice getaway for my husband and I; we will confidently recommend Tourdust to our friends!!
Jennifer H reviewing Boutique Marrakech & Atlas Mountains on 12 June 2019
We had an amazing trip. Everything was well thought out and so much fun. What a great way to truly see the country and learn the culture.
Joseph was the perfect guide. Very kind, professional, knowledgeable and patient. The kids loved Joseph and keep asking when will they meet him again. He found the Big 5 for us which was unforgettable! Please pass along our appreciation to Joseph.
Maji Moto was also another incredible experience. They had great customer service and we loved experiencing their culture.
Sunbird was absolutely beautiful and I wish we had more time there. We loved the view of the lake!
One suggestion to make the trip even better for other guests in the future would be to have a cooler with drinks and snacks in the Jeep at all times because a ton of driving is involved and it would be helpful to have a cold drink and snacks during the long trip.
Thanks again for organizing this experience of a lifetime for us!
Brandon H reviewing Maasai Family Adventure on 12 June 2019
Thanks for all your help in making the arrangements, everything went so smoothly from landing in Jo'burg to departing a week later.
We all had a fantastic time, Kirsty (our youngest) was able to go on all the game drives and we were very well looked after both on the drives and back at the lodge. The food was great, staff were all very friendly & nothing was too much trouble for them (e.g. providing hot milk for Kirsty at bedtime). The kids all enjoyed the rock pool during the day and we all loved the game drives.
We were lucky enough to see all the big 5, with the additions of Cheetah & Wild Dogs. I think it was the second to last day before we managed to see some Hippo (and finally I've been able to take some photos of them - I have only ever seen them at night before). We had the adventure of being caught up with some Lionesses stalking a herd of Zebra (one of the younger Lionesses went a bit early & scattered the herd).
We're certainly aiming to go on safari again although it will be a while before we save enough to go again (maybe the kids will be taking us next time!)
Jeff W reviewing South Africa Safari and Mauritius on 13 May 2019


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The name Aaby is the 82,019th most common surname in the U.S.
Ancestors of this family most likely spoke Danish or Norwegian.
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50 years old in Byron, Minnesota
Lived In Byron, MN 55920
Phone Number XXX-XXX-2063
Relatives Barry Martin Aaby, Clifford Arleen Aaby, Michael Clifford Aaby, Roasella Aaby, Rosella Alvina Aaby, Wynn Allen Aaby, Debra Lynne Dalin, Joanne Yvonne Dalin, John A Dalin, John Steven Dalin,
69 years old in Rice Lake, Wisconsin
Lived In Rice Lake, WI 54868; Holcombe, WI 54745; Woodville, WI 54028; Eau Galle, WI 54737
Phone Numbers XXX-XXX-6781 XXX-XXX-4076 XXX-XXX-6781 XXX-XXX-2222
Relatives Larry W Aaby, Nichole Marie Aaby, Timothy J Aaby, Timothy J Aaby, Dana Jean Gammons, Jennifer L Weyer
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|Reference : Etude chémo-écologique et comportementale du parasitoïde, Nasonia vitripennis Walker ...
|Dissertations and theses : Doctoral thesis
|Life sciences : Entomology & pest control
|Etude chémo-écologique et comportementale du parasitoïde, Nasonia vitripennis Walker (Hym., Pteromalidae), en vue de son utilisation comme biodétecteur en entomologie forensique
|Frederickx, Christine [Université de Liège - ULiège > Sciences agronomiques > Entomologie fonctionnelle et évolutive >]
|Gembloux Agro-Bio Tech Université de Liège, Belgique
|Docteur en sciences agronomiques et ingénierie biologique
|Haubruge, Eric
|Francis, Frédéric
|Verheggen, François
|Mahy, Grégory
|Brostaux, Yves
|Lognay, Georges
|Hance, Thierry
|[en] Nécrophile ; écologie chimique ; COVS ; olfactométrie ; cadavre ; entomologie forensique
|[en] Most reports published in the field of forensic entomology are focused on Diptera, mostly on Calliphoridae. However, Hymenoptera are part of the entomofaunal colonisation of a dead body. Despite their significant presence in crime scenes, parasitoids are largely ignored due to their small size and the paucity of biological and behavioral information available in the ecosystem of corpse. The use of Hymenoptera parasitoids in forensic entomology can be relevant to many applications such as development of a biodectector. The objectives of this thesis were (1) to identify the Hymenoptera community parasitizing necrophagous Diptera, (2) to identify volatile organic compounds emitted by decaying process and by hosts which facilitate host-habitat and host location by female Nasonia vitripennis Walker (3) to evaluate the species N. vitripennis as biodectector of corpses. The faunistic study has identified five species of Hymenoptera in cadaver ecosystem. Alysia manducator was the most abundant Braconidae species. However, N. vitripennis was chosen as insect model; because over the last 50 years, this wasp has been intensely investigated in the subject of genetic, ecological and evolutionary research. A chemo-ecological approach, combining EAG and behavioral studies, was used on N. vitripennis with selected compounds from the decay process and their hosts. Firstly, we have demonstrated that host- habitat location and host location were dependent on the concentration of volatile organic compounds tested. In addition, dimethyldisulfide, a key component of decomposition and also released by Calliphora vicina Robineau-Desvoidy (Diptera, Calliphoridae) pupae, has a biological activity. Secondly, we have showed that rate of parasitism was based on the age of pupa, depth and substrate in which larvae burrow. This rate is the most important when pupae were six day-old, on the surface of soil and in a soil with a granulometry greater than 1mm. Moreover, N. vitripennis expanded our potential resource in biosensor used in forensic science. Females demonstrated a capacity for learning and memory.
|Fonds pour la formation à la Recherche dans l'Industrie et dans l'Agriculture (Communauté française de Belgique) - FRIA
|Researchers ; Professionals ; Students
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Litter #6
Due end of June 2019
Upcoming 2019 CharmedWons Litter - expected end of June 2019. We are very excited about this beautiful combination. If you are interested in a puppy, please complete my puppy questionnaire and return to me either by email or snail mail. Completion of the questionnaire does not guarantee you a puppy. A few of these puppies are already spoken for, but show/performance or pet/performance homes will be considered.