system
Given the following post, respond as if you're commenting on Reddit:
human
ELI5: Why are Spanish, and Portuguese colonies in the Americas so poor in comparison to the English/French ones?

From my knowledge on geography, and natural resources, shouldn't South/Central America have a step up on a country like Canada that is 99% ice (hyperbole). Also wasn't Spain and Portugal fairly rich as well?
gpt
The Spanish and Portuguese were not colonialists. Their intent was never to establish permanent colonies and expand their empires, but to *exploit* the natural resources of these lands, and bring it back to Europe so they could rise above the rest of European countries. 

This means Spain and Portugal fought really hard to keep these settlements underdeveloped and dependent on them. This approach is what set those places back. 

There are other cultural aspects you could blame here, but this is the main reason.