system
Given the following post, respond as if you're commenting on Reddit:
human
ELI5: Why are France and Spain 1 hour ahead of the UK when part of those countries are directly below us?
gpt
Because Nazis.

They used to be in the same time zone as the UK. But then when the Nazis took over France in WW2, they switched them to the same time zone as Germany.

Spain wasn't directly involved in WW2, but were on fairly good terms with the Nazis so also switched to have a matching time zone to aid cooperation.

For both it turned out to be more convenient after the war was over so they stayed that way. Now they all work quite closely together, and people and goods cross the borders all the time, so it's easier to be in a single time zone.