system
Given the following post, respond as if you're commenting on Reddit:
human
Why is methylphenidate considered a stimulant and Bupropion isn’t?

My understanding is that methylphenidate is a dopamine and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor, just like Bupropion. Does it have to do with the different levels of potency they have or something else? I understand that in the case of amphetamine, it’s a more potent drug and does more in the pre-synaptic neuron compared to these other 2 medications, but was confused about what would constitute something being classified as a “stimulant”.
gpt
Mostly due to the potency.

Bupropion binds to less than 50% of dopamine transporter proteins, generally considered the threshold for being a simulant. That's why its described as providing simulant properties.

It also doesn't encourage the release of dopamine and associated chemicals as opposed to methylphenidate.

There's not really a high associated with Bupropion as a result it's non addiction forming (when taken as prescribed). The typical formula is the slow release, it's much more an increase in baseline than a sudden jolt like a simulant would do. Hence its use as an anti-depressant.

Ultimately it does depend on your definition of simulant, it could easily be classified as a mild simulant with slightly different rules.

Another thing to keep in mind is drug classification works more based on the effects rather than the pharmacology.