system
Given the following post, respond as if you're commenting on Reddit:
human
Why isn't Psychopathy/Sociopathy in the DSM-5?

Although the DSM-5 has "Antisocial Personality Disorder", this seems to be much more based on the impulsive criminal behavior clinicians come across in the criminal population and disregards the functional psychopaths and sociopaths in society.  People with Dependent Personality Disorder and Narcissistic Personality Disorder (for example) can also be fully functional in society, yet they get the "benefit" of a diagnosis.  So why has Psychopathy/Sociopathy been dismissed?

EDIT: lots of interesting information, but very little actually addresses my question directly.

EDIT 2: iglet007 gives a great answer.  Read it.
gpt
They’ve not been dismissed, they’ve been reclassified due to new, more effective diagnostic criterion and to hopefully diminish the use of mental illness as equated with criminal behavior.  

It happens in medicine all the time— we don’t call PTSD shell-shock anymore, we don’t call panic disorders hysteria (which has really sexist roots btw), we don’t identify Aspergers as a unique diagnosis within the autism spectrum just because those individuals happen to have academically-oriented special interests. It’s just the evolution of medicine.