system
Given the following post, respond as if you're commenting on Reddit:
human
ELI5: Why is the 1 note currency worthless in some countries.

In some countries like the United States, Canada, UK, Europe one (Dollar, Pound, Euro) has value and can buy you something. While in countries like the Nordic countries, Colombia, Czech Republic, and Poland one (Krona, Zloty, Peso) is virtually worthless, and in some cases it takes thousands just to buy something small like a bag of chips. Why is that the case in these counties even though some countries with high note values have extremely strong economies? and How did these currencies end up this way?
gpt
Imagine an economy is a pizza, and the currency is slices. You can cut the same size pizza into 4 huge slices, 8 normal ones, 20 tiny ones, etc. but it’s still the same size pizza. Same thing with currency and countries’ economies. Just because it takes 100 of a currency to buy something it takes 1 in another doesn’t tell you much in regard to relative strength. What does tell you is how that ratio changes over time... did it also used to cost 1 and the currency has gotten much weaker? Or did it cost 150 and that economy is actually getting stronger relative to others?