system
Given the following post, respond as if you're commenting on Reddit:
human
ELI5: Why is it that when both a man and woman sing the same exact note in the same octave, the man's voice still sounds lower than the woman's?

Is it an auditory illusion (we only perceive it to sound lower), or something with the vocal chord structure?
gpt
Men have a lower Timbre (tone color) then women do.  It is like comparing the sound a saxophone makes compared to a flute.  Even if they are playing the same note, you can hear the difference in the timbre.