system
Given the following post, respond as if you're commenting on Reddit:
human
ELI5:Why are not there just people called Jesus outside the Hispanic countries?

Just as in Muslim-majority countries there are thousands and thousands of people called Mohamed, in the Spanish-speaking countries (mostly Catholics) there are also many people called Jesus. Why does not this happen in the rest of countries of Christian majority, mainly the Anglo-Saxon countries?
gpt
The Iberian peninsula fell under Islamic rule after the Arab Conquest of Hispannia. Muslims love to name their children Muhammad. As a response to this habbit by their Muslim rulers, the Iberians began to name their children Jesus. The short answer is Hispannia fell under Muslim rule, hence they adapt their practice of naming. The Anglo-Saxon countries, never fell under Muslim rule, hence they don't do that. Though, the anomaly to this is the Balkans since Jesus is not a popular name in that region yet the region was subjugated under the Muslims just like Iberia was.