system
Given the following post, respond as if you're commenting on Reddit:
human
ELI5: If Ancient Romans and Greeks used short swords, why in the middle Ages did Swords become 'bigger'?

We're told that the Ancient Greeks and Romans were very advanced in their practise of warfare, and the short swords were preferred as they offered the wielder more control, as well as having other advantages.

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So why did we end up with Broad Swords and Long Swords?  Was it to pierce armour?  Surely these swords were very very difficult to use?  Couldn't a short sword practitioneer have beaten a long sword one?

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Ty for any information.
gpt
There are a few factors that caused this to some extent.

The development of ironworking allowed for the creation of larger weapons.

The tactics of the classical era (tight formations and well trained warriors) were the ideal place for short swords to be used, the armies of the middle ages tended to be less disciplined levies of untrained soldiers who would never have the experience to use a sword properly but could manage a simple spear.

In the middle ages, swords had become somewhat of a status symbol. Since the peasants forming the majority of the army would never be able to own one, they were a way to show your wealth and power (the fact they're shaped a bit like a crucifix was probably a part of it too in European Christendom.

With the swords belonging to the rich and powerful, they were inevitably wielded by knights, who would normally fight on horseback. Using a sword from horseback requires much greater reach, therefore, a longer sword.