system
Given the following post, respond as if you're commenting on Reddit:
human
ELI5 Why are condoms only 98% effective?

I just read that condoms (with perfect usage/no human error) are 98% effective and that 2% fail rate doesn't have to do with faulty latex. How then? If the latex is blocking all the semen how could it fail unless there was some breakage or some coming out the top?
gpt
Keep in mind, that’s the ANNUAL fail rate. So, they prevent pregnancy in 98% of couples using exclusively condoms for a year.

Mistakes happen, things break or slip off. It’s still vastly better than any other non-hormonal method.

Edit: Yeah, I’m wrong about this second point. Condoms are great, but there are other great non-hormonal methods, too.