system
Given the following post, respond as if you're commenting on Reddit:
human
ELI5: Why when the FBI wants someone "dead or alive", they don't have the right to the Sixth Amendment?

ELI5: Why when the FBI wants someone "dead or alive", they don't have the right to the Sixth Amendment?

For example, Osama... I'm not saying he didn't deserve what was coming, he totally did and I'm happy he got it. But basically our country has a principal where even if people see you commit a crime, you're "innocent until proven guilty". I even see it in the news. With the recent tragedy in Connecticut,  many news organizations refereed to Adam Lanza as "the suspect", even though everyone knew he killed all those innocent people. 

So, essentially my question is how does the FBI legally put a death warrant out for people who haven't been put on trial? Does the 6th amendment only apply to US citizens, or are there loopholes?
gpt
The FBI doesn't issue "dead or alive" warrants, as they do not exist within the borders of the United States nor do they apply to US citizens.

You may be referring to "kill or capture" orders; these are issued by the President, the CIA, or the Department of Defense. In all cases, they may only be issued for persons considered "enemy combatants". In one case, a US citizen was killed in Yemen on the order of the President; this is considered legal because he was considered an "unlawful enemy combatant" under US policy and the Geneva Conventions and thus was not guaranteed Constitutional rights. Likewise, Osama Bin Laden was considered the same, and the legality of his killing is more clear as he was not a US citizen and was directly engaged in actions against the United States.

The reason Lanza was referred to as a "suspect" is because news agencies don't want to be sued for naming someone as a criminal before they are prosecuted and found guilty. This is also why the refer to most crimes under investigation as "alleged".