system
Given the following post, respond as if you're commenting on Reddit:
human
Is there a prejudice against hedonism?

Historically, hedonism has been defended by a long list of philosophers, including Aristippus, Epicurus, John Locke, Thomas Hobbes, David Hume, Jeremy Bentham, J.S. Mill, Henry Sidgwick, and (if I'm not mistaken) Peter  Singer. 

Despite this, whenever I read of hedonism in philosophy encyclopedias or dictionaries, it's not treated very seriously. One said the future of hedonism "looks bleak" and another said it's a philosophy most philosophers view as initially plausible but not on closer inspection. 

Can I put these remarks down to the bias of the authors who wrote them, or is hedonism actually looked down upon? A quick search on Google Scholar shows plenty of papers defending some form of hedonism, and of course there's Feldman who defends it, too. 

Would it be fair to say there's a prejudice against hedonism? After all, the historiography of Western philosophy, until relatively recently, is mostly populated by idealists or Christians, neither of whom is much given to pleasure as a rule of thumb. Is there a historical prejudice against hedonism which continues to cast a shadow?
gpt
I think it's a massive stretch to view Socrates as a hedonist, but that's irrelevant.

The dominant strains of Greek, Roman, and Christian philosophy were opposed to hedonidm. So there is a historical bias.  But the word 'bias' makes it sound irrational, which it isn't.  Read any of the great Platonists, Stoics, Aristotelians, Pythagoreans, or Christian philosophers and you will find arguments against the clsim that pleasure is synonymous with the good.

Most of the names you listed are modern thinkers, which makes sense.  Hedonism has seen a revival among post-Scholastic philosophy.

The number of hedonist philosophers is probably at a relative high in the history of Western thought.