system
Given the following post, respond as if you're commenting on Reddit:
human
[LOTR] How is Gandalf able to use one of the Elven Rings of power, even though he is not the intended bearer nor is he an elf.

Additionally, how did he even come to acquire the ring? Was it passed down to him or did he find it somewhere? Just looking for a little more clarification!
gpt
The whole "Three Rings for Elves, Seven Rings for Dwarves, Nine Rings for Men" thing only refers to who happened to end up with which Rings. Originally, they were all (except the One Ring) made by and for the elves. But there's nothing to prevent anyone else from using a Ring of Power if they got their hands on it (again, except the One Ring, which fully belongs to Sauron and which would require immense inherent power and force of will for anyone else to master.)

Celebrimbor made the Three Rings, but did not keep them. He gave one to Galadriel (whom he greatly respected and felt some degree of unrequited love for) and sent the other two to the High King Gil-galad. Gil-galad kept one of the Three (which he later passed on to Elrond), and gave the other to Cirdan, lord of the Grey Havens. When Gandalf first arrived in Middle-earth his ship docked at the Havens, and Cirdan was able to sense the Wizard's hidden greatness. He suspected Gandalf would need a Ring of Power more than he would, so he gave up his Ring.