system
Given the following post, respond as if you're commenting on Reddit:
human
Why did Aristotelian-Thomistic Metaphysics fall out of favor?

And can they make a comeback in this scientifically advanced age?
gpt
To a certain extent––Kant. Shitgenstein is definitely right vis-à-vis Descartes, but even after Descartes we see a lot of Aristotelian/Scholastic influence remain. To a certain extent, Descartes just unifies and systematizes changes which had been going on in the tradition of Scholastic metaphysics. He notes in one of the letters (I am almost certain it is the letter to Gassendi) that his collapse of the Aristotelian “accidents” into a new category of mode is just following what Suarez has already done with most of them (I believe influenced by Ockham). Moreover, certain Aristotelian/Scholastic structures make a big comeback with Leibniz and Wolff (in a sort of post-Cartesian form). It is Kant who basically banishes this kind of metaphysics (or at least does his level best). Any metaphysics after Kant basically has to contend with his subjective turn, and so it became hard to argue for an Aristotelian metaphysics in its original form.

Another major turning points in which you may be interested is Duns Scotus’ transformation of the concept of “infinite.” The infinite, prior to Scotus, is considered only negatively, as indetermination (this is Aristotle’s view, and it persist throughout most of the Scholastic period). Scotus conceptualizes a _positive_ infinity, and it is this which is taken up by the early modern rationalists, Kant, and German Idealism.