system
Given the following post, respond as if you're commenting on Reddit:
human
ELI5: Why is being deaf or blind much more common than say having no taste, touch, or smell?
gpt
Part of it is confirmation bias.  Blind people are really obvious, deaf people are fairly obvious.  You wouldn't know someone couldn't smell or taste just by looking at them.

Localized loss of touch is not uncommon.  But you have so many touch receptors in so many places, there are few conditions that will systemically shut down all of them.