system
Given the following post, respond as if you're commenting on Reddit:
human
Why does buoyancy equal the density of the fluid multiplied by the submerged volume times the gravitational acceleration, g and not the density of the object submerged?

When we talk about the Arquimedes principle and buoyancy, why does buoyancy have to do with the weight of displaced fluid rather than the weight of the object submerged? I ask this since the sum of the vertical forces that are applied in an object, in equilibrium, by the fluid in which he's submerged equals the weight of that object which,on another hand, also gives buoyancy...

Sorry, my mother tongue is not english and it makes it rather difficult to explain my doubt, even more since it's about physics.
gpt
>why does buoyancy have to do with the weight of displaced fluid rather than the weight of the object submerged?

The weight of the object is the irrelevant to the buoyant force. The water doesn't "know" what the weight of the object is, it just exerts a pressure on it. The total force (which is a sum of all the pressure on the object) is the same for any objects of equal size. A ball of lead will experience the same force on it as a balloon of the same size.

> since the sum of the vertical forces that are applied in an object, in equilibrium, submerged in a fluid equals the weight of that object. Which also gives buoyancy...

No. The *buoyant force* is *only* the force by the fluid on the submerged object. The *net* sum of the forces (buoyant force pushing up + the weight of the object pointing down) tells you the *motion* of the object -- a lead sphere in water will sink because it is heavier than the water, but an air bubble of the same size will rise because it is lighter than the water, but *they both have the same buoyant force on them.*