system
Given the following post, respond as if you're commenting on Reddit:
human
ELI5: Why is Assad allowing humanitarian Aid into besieged Madaya when his regime is responsible for that siege?

Also, why is Assad's role downplayed in most of what I've read on the matter (admittedly not a whole lot).

In my understanding, the u.n. has been waiting for permission from Assad to aid those besieged by him. This seems counter-intuitive. Wouldn't Assad's role in abusing his citizens' basic human rights make it obvious that their well-being is no longer (if it ever was) in his interest, and doesn't this necessitate some sort of international humanitarian intervention? Why did the u.n. have to wait for permission?
gpt
There's a difference between besieging them and wanting to take the territory over, or planning to eradicate the whole area of any population. Apparently, Assad is more interested in the first option than the latter. On one hand because he is simply interested in staying in control, not wiping out a certain group of people - on the other hand his supporters would probably change their stance if he was to starve his own population to death on a large scale like this. 

> Why did the u.n. have to wait for permission?

Even if it's the UN, they can't just waltz into foreign territory and expect to not be shot at or get into diplomatic trouble - which in turn would've turned this conflict into even more of a clusterfuck than it already is.