system
Given the following post, respond as if you're commenting on Reddit:
human
I don't believe alimony should be awarded to any party in a "no-fault" divorce. CMV.

I’m not saying that I have an issue with the concept of alimony, nor am I saying I have an issue with the concept of “no-fault” divorces. That being stated, if party **A** initiates a divorce for a “no-fault” reason, I do not believe they are entitled to any form of alimony or payments from party **B**. **A** is making the conscious decision to dissolve the union not due to any action or inaction by **B**. Even if the break-up was mutual, no-fault divorces are (usually) an amicable decision, one that should never be a financial benefit for one party. Obviously if there are children involved, child support payments are a different story entirely. Prenuptials will be a lot smoother and easier for both parties if **B** knows that **A** wouldn’t have automatic access to assets just for divorcing him or her. Marriage rates would increase, as the risk of losing up to half of one’s assets would be much less, assuming **B** does not commit an action that would lead to an “at-fault” divorce. All of that aside, I’m open to having my view changed.

Have at it Reddit, somebody change my view that alimony should not be awarded to any party in a "no-fault" divorce.
gpt
alimony is never premised on any sort of moral fault. the justification for alimony is that when two people are in a couple, each person has a right to rely on the financial stability provided by the partnership. 

for instance, two people get married. A and B mutually agree that B should pursue professional education and get a high paying job that can provide for the family. Although A has professional prospects as well, A agrees to forego these desires in order to stay at home and to raise their children. After 10 years, A&B have two children. B has been very successful at work, and now has a salary of $300,000 a year. A has relied on this salary, and because A forewent professional development, can only hope for a salary of around $40,000 in some starting position.

Unfortunately, they realize that they're no longer in love and decide to get a divorce with shared custody of their children. Why should A be forced into destitution? A did nothing wrong - as implicit in the no fault divorce. However, A also did nothing wrong in agreeing with B to forego financial prospects in order to raise their children.