system
Given the following post, respond as if you're commenting on Reddit:
human
How would the distinction between Mill and Bentham's attitudes towards higher and lower pleasures (regarding utilitarianism) change their assessment of whether a legal system is just? If we perfectly applied one or the other's ideas to society, how would the legal systems differ?

To be clear, this is really the crux of an undergraduate question I've been assigned for a jurisprudence module; it's not worded like that really at all on the assessment but this is the main bit I'm struggling with.

Edit: Sorry if the phrasing of the question was unclear, I'm a law student and this is my first philosophy module. So far in my degree I've only done black letter law modules so it is an unfamiliar style of thinking to me.
gpt
Try to think of areas where legal systems are called to regulate practices involving pleasures. Maybe make a list of all the possibilities you can think of. Then try to identify which ones of these pleasures would be considered lower or higher according to Bentham and Mill. Then you might start seeing how a legal system which promoted lower pleasures might be different to one which promoted higher ones. See where that train of thought takes you...