system
Given the following post, respond as if you're commenting on Reddit:
human
ELI5: Why are the Hebrew Scriptures ("Old Testament") used by evangelicals to justify their harsh stance on homosexuality, but other parts of those same scriptures are completely ignored (killing adulterers, not eating shellfish, etc.)?

**For Reference**

Leviticus 11:9-12 ESV

“These you may eat, of all that are in the waters. Everything in the waters that has fins and scales, whether in the seas or in the rivers, you may eat. But anything in the seas or the rivers that has not fins and scales, of the swarming creatures in the waters and of the living creatures that are in the waters, is detestable to you. You shall regard them as detestable; you shall not eat any of their flesh, and you shall detest their carcasses. Everything in the waters that has not fins and scales is detestable to you."

Deuteronomy 22:22 ESV

“If a man is found lying with the wife of another man, both of them shall die, the man who lay with the woman, and the woman. So you shall purge the evil from Israel."
gpt
I will give you a non-religion hating answer. 

Throughout the New Testament Jesus abolishes many of the old testament laws including sacrifice and food constraints. However homosexuality is addressed as being a sin in the New Testament thus the belief still holds today.