system
Given the following post, respond as if you're commenting on Reddit:
human
Was there a cultural reason for why Postmodernism developed primarily in France?

and among French intellectuals

as opposed to German and Anglo/Anglo-American philosophers?
gpt
In the context of philosophy, usually what people mean by "postmodernism" is what is more strictly called "poststructuralism", which is a response to structuralism and phenomenology, which had been the dominant intellectual currents in French culture. So the reason that poststructuralism largely happened in France is the more or less plain one that structuralism largely happened in France.

But analogous developments were going on in Anglo-American intellectual culture as well. They just don't get called "poststructuralism", because they're not responses to structuralism. Rather, they get called "post-positivism" or "anti-foundationalism" or "neo-pragmatism", or other such terms which situate them in the Anglo-American context. In the literal sense of being *after modernism*, or *using modernist strategies to critique modernist principles*, these Anglo-American developments are as much "post-modern" as post-structuralism is.