system
Given the following post, respond as if you're commenting on Reddit:
human
CMV: Equal prize money in tennis creates discrimination against male competitors

My current view is that equal prize money in tennis is actually gender discrimination against men. My main argument for this would be that men play the best of 5 sets and women play then best of 3. And therefore woman are paid more then men because they are in general working/playing tennis for less time. 

I do understand that tennis can't be paid by the hour since the duration of a match is open ended at the beginning. Therefore equal pay would only be achieved if payment was agreed in advanced based on the best of sets value. I.e. Best of 5 sets £200k per match and best of 3 sets £120k. 

I fully welcome any explanation that can change how I see this issue. I am all for equality across the board. But it's how the equality is defined that I guess is my issue.
gpt
In other sports, do players make more money when a game goes into overtime? Do they get paid more for having more onfield time? Do they get paid for mandatory training?

In your example, a woman's best of 3 set could be just as many sets as a shutout best of 5.  That doesn't affect payment either.

Sports just aren't paid out on a per hour rate. **This is *especially* true with prize money where you aren't getting paid to participate.  You're getting paid for being the best tennis player at the match.**