system
Given the following post, respond as if you're commenting on Reddit:
human
[Harry Potter] Why are most incantations Latin or pseudo-Latin?

Does this mean those spells were created by Latin speakers? Either in ancient Rome, more likely IMHO in the era when it was the language of the educated across the Western world?

Or conversely, did wizards create Latin?

My assumption is that the incantations are somewhat arbitrary, like a wizard taught in a Chinese tradition would probably not use those words. Don't know if that's ever been said explicitly, but it seems to fit the things we know, such as the fact that spells can be cast silently with sufficient skill.
gpt
Yes, these spells were likely invented by Europeans, that's why they sound Latin.  

Considering there are cultures that can do sophisticated magic without wands, which are considered almost impossible by the Europeans, it may be possible that the magic can be accessed by different ways, and different cultures may have invented different spells based on different languages that ended up doing the same thing.  

Some of the spells do not sound Latin.  Maybe those are supposed to be spells invented elsewhere that are adopted by the Europeans?  For example, Avada Kedavra.