system
Given the following post, respond as if you're commenting on Reddit:
human
ELI5: Why did some ancient cultures accept homosexuality (examples, Greek, Roman) while others (example, Jewish) did not?

Thanks for the replies.

I guess the importance of maintaining/increasing the population is the closest answer to the type of "why" I was looking for. The fact that the existence of homosexual acts does not in any way have to preclude reproductive sex . . . maybe that's too modern of a realization for ancient peoples? Maybe it was too important to maintain total control the population's behavior, so no exceptions allowed?
gpt
I can say that the Levitican prohibition against lying with a man as one would with a woman is due to a concern with ritual cleanliness when entering the Temple to perform rituals and make sacrifices; that extended into the culture of many Hebrew tribes.

The Spartans accepted it because it increased battle unit cohesion and prevented warriors from being split in their feelings. Some of the Romans accepted it, some didn't. Some Greeks accepted it, some didn't. For some it was part of their religion, for some it was not. There were many deities and many cults, and religious observations for the classical Greeks and Romans were significantly different from Judeo-Muslim-Christian religious observations.