system
Given the following post, respond as if you're commenting on Reddit:
human
ELI5: Why does orgasm immediately end sexual desire in men but not women?
gpt
Evolutionarily, it's to increase chances of having a baby.  If a man continues to engage in intercourse after ejaculating, he risks inadvertently pushing the semen out of the way, making pregnancy more difficult.  For a woman, if she orgasms first, she needs to stay interested until the man is done in order for there to be a chance of pregnancy.  Because of these evolutionary needs, men have long "refractory periods" (lack of sexual desire after orgasm), whereas women either don't have them or have really short ones.  The exact cause of the refractory periods in terms of body chemistry is still up for debate.