system
Given the following post, respond as if you're commenting on Reddit:
human
Do the Gamblers Fallacy and regression toward the mean contradict each other?

If I have flipped a coin 1000 times and gotten heads every time, this will have no impact on the outcome of the next flip. However, long term there should be a higher percentage of tails as the outcomes regress toward 50/50. So, couldn't I assume that the next flip is more likely to be a tails?
gpt
Past results do not influence future results when flipping coins. There will not be a higher percentage of tails to have the outcome regress to 50/50 - there will simply be so many flips that the thousand heads become an irrelevant factor on the total.
Also, getting a thousand tails in a thousand flips isn't going to happen. The chance is so small it might as well be zero.