system
Given the following post, respond as if you're commenting on Reddit:
human
How are time and space, according to Kant, a priori?
gpt
They're a priori for Kant because they're part of the conditions of possibility for our experience. They're the form of our sensibility, and are the form that appearances must take in order to be appearances for us. On Kant's view, we wouldn't have experience if we didn't have some form of sensibility, and we wouldn't have the experience that we do if the form of sensibility weren't space and time. It's not as if we just encounter space and time in experience; if that were the case, they would be a posteriori. They're needed for us to have experience at all, and so must logically precede all actual experience.