NR 511 Week 4 Midterm Exam Version 2

NR 511 Week 4 Midterm Exam Version 2

NR 511 Week 4 Midterm Exam Version 2

Question 1: Women are at the highest risk for developing postpartum depression for up to how long after childbirth?

2 weeks

1 month

3 months

6 months

Question 2: CPT coding offers the uniformed language used for reporting medical services and procedures performed by physician and nonphysician practitioners. Clinicians are paid based on calculated resource costs that are calculated based on practice components.

a. Clinician education loans
b. Clinician practice liability and malpractice expense
c. Clinician reported cost reduction efforts
d. Clinician volume of patients treated

a. Gastrocnemius weakness
b. A reduced or absent ankle reflex
c. Numbness in the lateral foot
d. Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks

Question 4: A 58-year-old woman who had a total abdominal hysterectomy at the age of 45 is diagnosed with atrophic vaginitis. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
a. Conjugated estrogen 0.625 mg/day oral
b. Estradiol 7.5 mcg/24 hr vaginal ring
c. Medroxyprogesterone 10 mg/day oral
d. Conjugated estrogen 0.3 mg + medroxyprogesterone 1.5 mg/day oral


a. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
b. Computed tomography (CT) scan
c. A lumbar puncture
d. There is no specific test.

Question 6: Most adult poisonings are:

a. intentional and self-inflicted.
b. accidental.
d. not attributed to any reason.


a. The scrotum will be dark.
b. The scrotum will appear light pink or yellow.
c. The scrotum will appear milky white.
d. The internal structures will be clearly visible.

Question 8: Which clinical feature is the first to be affected in increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?What is the normal number for the Glascow Coma Scale?

a. 7

b. 9

c. 10
d. 15

Question 9: S presents in the clinic with pain, tenderness, erythema, and swelling of his left great toe. The clinician suspects acute gout. Which of the following should the clinician suspect in the initial test results for this patient?

a. Elevated uric acid level
b. Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
c. Decreased urine pH
d. Decreased C-reactive protein (CRP)

Question 10: Which solution should be used when irrigating lacerated tissue over a wound on the arm?

a. Dilute povidone-iodine solution
b. Hydrogen peroxide (H2O2)
c. Saline solution infused with an antibiotic
d. Saline irrigation or soapy water

Question 11: Which ethical principle reflects respect for all persons and their self-determination?

a. Autonomy

b. Beneficence

c. Justice
d. Veracity


a. An enlarged rubbery gland

b. A hard irregular gland

c. A tender gland
d. A boggy gland

Question 13: How often should the clinician examine the feet of a person with diabetes?

a. Once a year
b. Every 6 months
c. Every 3 months
d. Every visit

Question 14: Which of the following medications is the treatment of choice for trichomonas? (Points: 2)

a. Metranidazole

b. Ceftriaxone

c. Diflucan
d. Doxycycline

Question 15: Immunizations are an example of which type of prevention? (Points: 2)

a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary

Question 16: What is the treatment of choice for a patient diagnosed with testicular cancer?

a. Radical orchidectomy

b. Lumpectomy

c. Radiation implants
d. All of the above

Question 17: George, aged 59, complains of a flulike illness, including fever, chills, and myalgia after returning from visiting his grandchildren in New England. He reports having discovered a rash or red spot that grew in size on his right leg. What disease are you considering?

a. A viral syndromes
b. Lyme disease
c. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
d. Relapsing fever

Question 18: A 24-year-old woman presents to the clinic with dysuria, dyspareunia, and a mucopurulent vaginal discharge. Her boyfriend was recently treated for nongonococcal urethritis. What sexually transmitted disease (STD) has she most probably been exposed to?
a. Gonorrhea
b. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
c. Chlamydia
d. Trichomonas


b. A vesicular skin lesion on one side of the body
c. A pain that is worse upon awakening
d. A lesion on the exterior ear canal

a. Clotrimazole cream (Lotrimen)
b. Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon)
c. Silver nitrate
d. Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene)

Question 21: Which of the following is a role of the advanced practice nurse in palliative cancer care?

a. Detecting cancer in asymptomatic patients or those with specific symptoms
b. Arranging for follow-up care, including psychosocial and spiritual support
c. Identifying and managing complications of care
d. All of the above


a. Superficial burns
b. Superficial partial-thickness burns
c. Deep partial-thickness burns
d. Full-thickness burns


a. 1 month.
b. 3 months.
c. 6 months.
d. 12 months.


a. Osteoarthritis
b. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
c. Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
d. Sjogren’s syndrome

Question 25: A sunscreen with a sun-protection factor (SPF) of at least what number will block most harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation?

a. 4

b. 8

c. 10
d. 15

Question 26: The hallmark of an absence seizure is:

a. No activity at all.
b. A blank stare.
c. Urine is usually voided involuntarily.
d. The attack usually lasts several minutes.

Question 27: The effectiveness of benzodiazepines in treating anxiety disorders suggests that which of the following neurotransmitters plays a role in anxiety?

a. Acetylcholine
b. Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
c. Dopamine
d. Serotonin

Question 28: Which characteristic of delirium helps to distinguish delirium from dementia?

a. Abrupt onset
b. Impaired attention
c. Affective changes
d. Delusions


a. Pregnancy test

b. Pelvic ultrasound

c. Endometrial biopsy
d. Platelet count

Question 30: The clinician should question the patient with suspected gout about use of which of these medications that may be a risk factor?

a. Low-dose aspirin

b. Thiazide diuretics

c. Ethambutol
d. All of the above

Question 31: A bulla is:

a. A vesicle larger than 1 cm in diameter.
b. An elevated solid mass with a hard texture, and the shape and borders can be regular or irregular.
c. A superficial elevated lesion filled with purulent fluid.
d. Thinning of the skin (epidermis and dermis) that appears white or translucent.

a. Morning stiffness and limited mobility of the lumbar spine
c. Fever, chills, and elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate

Question 33: Which of the following statements is true concerning the musculoskeletal exam?


Question 34: The current goal of treatment for a patient with HIV infection is which of the following?

a. Viral suppression of HIV to undetectable levels in the peripheral blood
b. Compete eradication of the virus
c. Encouraging the person to have no contact with uninfected individuals
d. Complete abstinence

a. Benzodiazepines
b. Antipsychotics
c. Anticonvulsants
d. Antidepressants


a. Suggest she use a heating pad to improve circulation
b. Refer to a podiatrist for a foot care treatment plan
c. Send her for acupuncture treatments
d. All of the above

Question 37: Which of the following statements is true concerning the management of the client with a herniated disc?

a. Muscle relaxants and narcotics can be used to control moderate pain but should be discontinued after 3 weeks of use.
b. An epidural injection is helpful in reducing leg pain that has persisted for at least 3 weeks after the herniation occurred.
c. Intolerable pain for more than a 3-month period is an indication for surgical intervention.
d. All of the above

Question 38: Which patient is more likely to have a cluster headache?

a. A female in her reproductive years
b. A 40-year-old African American male
c. A 55-year-old female who drinks 10 cups of coffee daily
d. A 45-year-old male awakened at night

Question 39: The main mechanism for avoiding a lawsuit involves:

a. Good liability insurance
b. A collaborating physician
c. Good documentation
d. Open communication skills


a. Trichomonas
b. Bacterial vaginosis
c. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
d. Herpes simplex virus (HSV)

Question 41: Which of the following laboratory findings should the clinician expect in a patient with untreated Graves’ disease?

a. Elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
b. Elevated T4
c. Elevated TRH
d. All of the above


a. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
b. Endometrial hyperplasia
c. Vagismus
d. Polycystic ovarian syndrome

Question 43: When may confidentiality be overridden?

a. When personal information is available on the computer
b. When a clinician needs to share information with a billing company
c. When an insurance company wants to know the results of a breast cancer gene test
d. When a patient has a communicable disease


a. Sinus bradycardia

b. Atrial fibrillation

c. Supraventricular tachycardia
d. U waves

Question 45: The most cost-effective screening test to determine HIV status is which of the following?

a. Western Blot
b. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
c. Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) test
d. Viral load

Question 46: After 6 months of synthroid therapy, the clinician should expect which of the following in the repeat thyroid studies?

a. Elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
b. Normal TSH
c. Low TSH
d. Undetectable TSH


a. Rice
b. Carrots
c. Spinach
d. Potatoes


a. Tricyclic antidepressants
b. Capsacin cream
c. Vitamin B12 injections
d. Insulin

Question 49 : In the consensus model for Advanced Practice Registered Nurse (APRN) regulation, the “C” of LACE represents?

a. Commitment

b. Consensus

c. Certification
d. Collaboration

Question 50: Which of the following signs or symptoms indicate an inflammatory etiology to musculoskeletal pain?

a. Decreased C-reactive protein
b. Hyperalbuminemia
c. Morning stiffness
d. Weight gain

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