David238 Wrote:
Nov 06, 2012 9:06 AM
The document was written in the 1700s and women couldn't vote in virtually any civilized society at the time, so it is not like our Founding Fathers broke with the rest of society to oppress women. They were simply following the customs and norms of the time period that they lived. Nevertheless, the document our Founding fathers wrote did provide for a mechanism that eventually lead to a change so that women could vote and be treated as equals in our society.