Is hiring a dominatrix legal in Canada? According to Wikipeidia it is illegal &quot;to purchase or advertise sexual services&quot;. This statement seems very broad and would include more than copulation. I noticed on a dominatrix website, they asked for photo ID and payment by credit card. If the activity was illegal I would have thought they would avoid leaving a paper trail. I heard the ID is to make sure the clients are not minors. Is this true? I had once gone to a dungeon party. Personally I found many activities not at all sexual. Just for example's sake some people pretended to be dogs. Since there was no money exchanged this wouldn't break the law, but if someone paid a dominatrix to treat them like a dog, would it? Would details like if they were nude or if genitals were touched make a difference? Does the law define what is meant by &quot;sexual&quot;? In general &quot;BDSM&quot; refers to something sexual and from a quick search most definitions of dominatrix refer to BDSM. So in this sense would they be illegal?
The closest possible prohibition is found in s. 286.1 of the Criminal Code, which makes it an offence to pay for the &quot;sexual services of a person.&quot; &quot;Sexual services&quot; is not a defined term. The Department of Justice provides its opinion about what this term might cover, but that is not determinative. In relation to a charge of the previous version of this prohibition (which also used the term &quot;sexual services&quot;), counsel was unable to direct the judge to a definition of the term, and the judge was unable to find one (2015 ABPC 241). The judge adopted a test that requires the service to include &quot;some sexually suggestive physical act on the part of the person providing the sexual service&quot;. This is a test somewhat stricter than the one proposed by the Department of Justice in that in addition to merely being &quot;sexually stimulating or gratifying,&quot; there physical act itself must be &quot;sexually suggestive.&quot; [50] What is a “sexual service”? Counsel have not directed me to, nor have I been able to find a definition of the term “sexual services”. [51] Sexual services” would clearly include any type of sexual intercourse, or physical contact for purposes of masturbation. It would also include posing for nude photographs. A request “to touch or feel the breasts of the [female] complainant” is an attempt to obtain the sexual services of the complainant. In my view, “sexual services” would also include dancing in a sexually provocative or stimulating fashion. In terms of a general definition, I think the phrase “sexual favours rendered ...for the sexual gratification of the customer” is sufficient. [52] However, I am of the view that the “sexual services” or “sexual favours for the sexual gratification” of a person requires that there be some sexually suggestive physical act on the part of the person providing the sexual service. The sexually suggestive physical act may be many things, such as posing nude, or sexually suggestive dancing, or suggestively removing clothing. That list is not exhaustive, and, with the creativity of the human mind, I doubt one could ever create an exhaustive list. However, the common element is that some sort of sexually suggestive physical act is necessary to constitute the sexual service. [53] In the case at bar, the accused had M.C. engage in what one might call “fantasy role playing”. If the role playing involved M.C. performing a sexually suggestive physical act, then the definition of “sexual service” might well be satisfied. However, in the case at bar, M.C. took on the fantasy role of being the slave in a master/slave relationship. M.C. did not perform any acts as a slave. The “slave role” was one in the mind of the accused (and perhaps M.C.), and had its expression in the content of emails and text messages between Mr. Peterson and M.C., but M.C. did not engage in physical acts for the sexual gratification of the accused. ... [54] M.C. was cast in the role of a slave in fantasy role playing, but the playing really only occurred in the heads of Mr. Peterson and M.C. That does not constitute the act of Mr. Peterson obtaining the sexual services of M.C. [citations removed] But this was a lower trial court's reasoning that has not been adopted by others yet, and no other court has needed to develop the definition at the margins.
Is it true that I cannot buy a puppy and smash it deliberately for my perverse amusement (regardless of whether it's in front of them or not)? If I cannot, can you point me to the relevant laws? Is it true that I cannot buy a cow or a pig and throw it into a woodchipper similarly for my perverse amusement? If I cannot, can you point me to the relevant laws? You can't do either of these things. Every state has some sort of law banning cruelty to animals. For example, in Colorado, the laws prohibiting cruelty to animals are codified at Sections 18-9-201 to 18-9-209, Colorado Revised Statutes. The core language of the statute is codified at Section 18-9-202(1)-(1.5) (as of July 1, 2014) which states (in language that is not atypical nationally) that: (1)(a) A person commits cruelty to animals if he or she knowingly, recklessly, or with criminal negligence ovedrives, overloads, overworks, torments, deprives of necessary sustenance, unnecessarily or cruelly beats, allows to be housed in a manner that results in chronic or repeated serious physical harm, carries or confines in or upon any vehicles in a cruel or reckless manner, engages in a sexual act with an animal, or otherwise mistreats or neglects any animal, or causes or procures it to be done, or having the charge or custody or ay animal, fails to provide it with proper food, drink or protection from weather consistent with the species, breed, and type of animal involved, or abandons an animal. (1)(b) Any person who intentionally abandons a dog or cat commits the offense of cruelty to animals. (1.5)(a) A person who commits cruelty to animals if he or she recklessly or with criminal negligence tortures, needlessly mutilates, or needlessly kills an animal. (1.5)(b) A person commits aggravated cruelty to animals if he or she knowingly tortures, needlessly mutilates, or needlessly kills an animal. (1.5)(c) A person commits cruelty to a service animal if he or she violates the provisions of subsection (1) of this section with respect to a service animal . . . whether the service animal is on duty or not on duty. The rest of the statute mostly spells out sentences and other remedies and definitions applicable to these offenses. For what it is worth, the laws against cruelty to animals, and the now obsolete laws prohibiting cruelty to slaves that existed when slavery was legal in the U.S., were quite similar. So, yes, an animal (pet or otherwise, there is almost no formal legal distinction between pets and non-pets, even though in practice, people evaluate what is cruel to a pet and to a farm animal differently) is property. Yes, someone who owns an animal may intentionally kill it or maim it, or have someone acting at the owner's instructions do so. But, an owner must do so humanely under the circumstances and must do so for a good reason (such as for food, to put down a sick or injured or dangerous animal, or for experimental research). Ranking states is a bit difficult. There are some states that have felony cruelty to animals statutes and some that don't. I don't have the time to look for an exhaustive survey of the law state by state (one summary is here). There are some states that are quite specific (like Colorado) and others that are more general in language. Idaho has an express provision that killing animals that are harrying livestock is an acceptable reason. Some of the difference boils down to how the law is applied in practice, rather than to the language of the statutes on the books. The overall gist of the statutes, however, is pretty similar: don't be cruel in how you do it, and don't harm animals if you don't have a good reason for doing so. There is also a lot of conduct (for example, separating mothers and young children, amputating body parts such as claws or tails or reproductive organs without consent, or confining and leashing them) that would cause emotional harm to animals and which would be grave human rights abuses, that is not prohibited as cruelty to animals. Similarly, there are many farming practices that are accepted as not violating these laws like the process of creating veal or foie gras that could be characterized as cruel but are accepted as not violating the laws against cruelty to animals. To a great extent, these exceptions, which are rarely codified, are simply a matter of custom and practice and tradition, rather than having any well reasoned logical derivation from statutory language.
A CC0 license granted by party A only waives their rights, and not those of unrelated party B (i.e. Marvel). And while Marvel might have granted the cosplayer a limited right to depict their persona's, that almost certainly does not constitute a sublicensable right. This is especially the case if the rights are implicitly granted (by Marvel not acting).
Criminal Code 293 outlaws polygamy and bigamy, and identifies as an offender Every one who (a) practises or enters into or in any manner agrees or consents to practise or enter into (i) any form of polygamy, or (ii) any kind of conjugal union with more than one person at the same time, whether or not it is by law recognized as a binding form of marriage, or (b) celebrates, assists or is a party to a rite, ceremony, contract or consent that purports to sanction a relationship mentioned in subparagraph (a)(i) or (ii) In other words, it is against the law to go through the ceremony with multiple partners, and to "enter into a conjugal union", even if not solemnized in any particular fashion. "Common law marriage" is broadly recognized in Canada (except in Quebec), with specific details governed by the province. This too is a case where people who "act as if" married are treated as actually married, given certain circumstances (which exist in a polygamous marriage). The question of having children is not relevant to the law, indeed having sex is not a requirement for something to be deemed a polygamous marriage, and the law against polygamy also says nor is it necessary on the trial to prove that the persons who are alleged to have entered into the relationship had or intended to have sexual intercourse. In this particular case, we do not know the specific details, but it is reasonable to assume that there was no posturing or faking, and there were multiple solemnization ceremonies, so the polygamy is overt. The claim is that it is constitutionally protected.
This may well be infringement, but I agree that you should start by reaching out to the instructor. You don't want to pay a lawyer if the matter can be be adjusted peacefully. In the US there is a special limited exemption to copyright for "use in classroom instruction" which might apply in such a case. I am not sure if there is a similar provision in Canadian copyright law. But the instructor is likely to change his practice if you notify him of your objection, even if he has the technical right to use the photo. At least it is worth finding out. If he won't, then you can always consult a lawyer.
Who in the fraternity would be prosecuted if this became an issue? A lot of people could be held liable for this, including people who are not even in the fraternity. Anyone who has knowledge of the machine or the fact that it was possible for minors to access alcohol through it could technically be held liable if a prosecutor wanted to make that case. Presumably the building is owned by someone else and just leased out to fraternity members, and they very well could be held liable for sale to minors also. Would the machine be safer if it just accepted cash (so that no electronic paper trail was created), with a big warning sign WINK WINK that anyone under the age of 21 was strictly prohibited from purchasing from it? No. Payment method is irrelevant here. There are a number of states that legally allow vending machines to sell alcohol, but vendors are required to verify the age of any person accessing them and ensure that those cards aren't being used by people not authorized. What you describe is an extremely relaxed environment where admittedly no one is attempting to verify identities. The "accepting cash" scenario is no different than a liquor store selling alcohol to anyone that comes in just because they're willing to pay with cash instead of a credit card. Sales to minors laws are not "as long as you warn them, you're safe" laws. They require vendors to actively check IDs and ensure that alcohol is not landing in the hands of minors. Accepting cash just to erase the evidence doesn't meet that burden. There are a lot of legal troubles with the situation that could get a lot of people charged with multiple offenses. That you have underage fraternity members living there suggests you should not have alcohol readily accessible in the house at all, as most state laws expressly forbid providing access to alcohol, not just serving or selling. Them being there provides access to it, even if it's just a case in the fridge with a note on it. Not to mention, you technically cannot sell alcohol, as I highly doubt your fraternity has a liquor license to be able to do so. There's a big difference between asking everyone to pitch in to buy the case versus actively selling individual cans through a vending machine. The vending machine itself is violating liquor laws in your state merely by existing.
Sexual contact that is not consented to is a crime. Physical contact where the receiver is under the apprehension of imminent risk is the crime of battery. However, spanking in the context of a consensual sexual encounter does not have that apprehension and is therefore not battery. It is akin to the consent given by people who take part in a contact sport. Contracts cannot permit criminal actions. The permission given by the submissive in this agreement would be valid only at that point in time that the contract was made and could be revoked at any time: such revocation could be explicit or implicit. As continuous consent is required for a sexual act and revocation of permission would introduce the apprehension of harm. Whenever the permission was revoked the agreement would be unenforceable. At best, you have a agreement that is enforceable when the permissive wants it to be and not otherwise: more likely, you have a totally unenforceable agreement. More generally, contracts that involve sex acts as consideration are enforceable to the extent that prostitution is legal in the jurisdiction. However, an order for specific performance would not be granted where either of the parties was no longer consenting to the sex act because that would be a court order to commit a crime. Other remedies for breach like damages would be available. For example, if you contracted with a prostitute and refused to pay for services delivered, you could be successfully sued for the fee, any damages, costs and interest.
Yes, it is illegal in North Carolina, which defines your sex as what's on your birth certificate. At any point in your transition, even when it's long complete, you'll still have to use the restroom for the gender on your birth certificate (hypothetically assuming the law is still in place). See e.g. this CNN coverage and this followup. Will you actually be arrested? Probably only if there's a complaint. The police haven't yet figured out how they're supposed to enforce this law.