Is &quot;estimated&quot; or &quot;projected&quot; income a legal precedent/factor upon a credit card application? If you are self-employed you have no fixed income -- therefore, you can't expect that any income information given is GUARANTEED or BACKED by any solid proof -- no one can predict the future so you cannot give certainty. Say one enters a high PREDICTED or PROJECTED income in to a credit card application as per their own original insight in to their expectation or future work prospects as they are an independent contractor. Given such, how can one draw the line between LYING about your income and PREDICTING an UNCERTAIN income? Isn't it just a moot point? I mean I can PREDICT I will make 200% of my income in the next 6 months -- totally possible. So I assume this cannot be rightfully or outright LYING if you do in fact have some form of an income and can make payments on your card DESPITE potentially OVER-REACHING your income as it's PREDICTED, not FIXED like a salary or such. So TL;DR -- is it ILLEGAL to put a PREDICTED or PROJECTED INCOME from a SELF-EMPLOYED person on a credit card application? Can this be JUSTIFIED? I know some people lie on these applications and nothing comes of it, but still.......
Generally speaking, fraud in connection with an affirmative statement, in both criminal and civil cases, is limited to false statements of a presently existing material fact. Future income is not a presently existing fact. So, simply incorrectly stating your future income is not fraud. But, you are affirming when you make such a statement that you presently sincerely believe that you will have a future income of approximately the amount stated. And, if you make a statement about your future income when you do not actually believe that you will have that future income, then you have still committed fraud. In practice, there are lots of gray areas where a judge or jury considering the case would have to weigh the facts and your credibility. If you represented that you predicted that you would have an income of $1,000,000 in the next year, when you had never done so before and didn't even have any plausible plan other than playing the lottery for doing so, this would almost surely be credit card application fraud. On the other hand, if you represented that you predicted that you would have an income of $50,000 in the next year, when your income in past years had ranged from $30,000 to $45,000 from self-employment, and you believed sincerely that improvements in your marketing efforts and current economic trends were going to make the coming year your best year ever for income from self-employment that would give you a $50,000 income in the coming year, that would not be fraud. Where exactly the line between not fraud and fraud is drawn would be for the tier of fact to decide when and if the case went to trial.
No They will list the price they are charging you. This will normally be greater than what they paid because that’s how business works. The amount they are allowed to charge is what you agreed in your contract with them (which may incorporate a price list) or, if the contract is silent, a reasonable amount. What is reasonable will be related to what the market in your geographical area charges. While this is indirectly related to the input cost of a given item, business can and do charge what the market allows.
Under UK law what kind of payment is it? Is it the same thing as a bonus? Essentially yes What rules apply? Assuming the employee is standard PAYE then the money will be subject to tax and NI the same as any other lump sum salary payment. For example, can an employer do as they wish? is it entirely dependent on what's in the contract? is it legal to give to everyone except those working their notice period? Things like this aren't typically specified in a contract - and as such are almost completely discretionary. They can exclude people working their notice period, people who have less than a certain amount of time employed etc. What they can't do is exclude people based on protected characteristics - they can't say &quot;Only women get this&quot; or &quot;Only white people&quot;.
If you are on Tier 4 (students on full-time degree), you have more restrictions besides the number of hours. One of this is no self-employment (which includes freelance and consultancy or creating your own company).
If you are worried that some secret will become public, you should find and meet with an attorney, not a financial adviser or other nonlawyer. Your attorney is able to shield your secret information from disclosure in ways other professionals cannot. Raise any credit score issues you're concerned about. In general, the public has a right to access judicial records. See Nixon v. Warner Communications, Inc., 435 US 589, 597 (1978) (noting that the right is rarely litigated and not clearly defined). That right is not absolute; some records can be sealed, which means that the public can't read them. Local rules govern when that happens. I don't think the existence of a civil lawsuit could be made secretly except in special circumstances. Likewise, the plaintiff usually must identify herself, except in special circumstances. A plaintiff should assume that everything about the lawsuit--who filed it, against whom, what evidence arises, the trial, and who wins and loses--will be public.
According to the IRS site Use Form W-9 to provide your correct TIN to the person who is required to file an information return with the IRS to report, for example, ... income paid to you ... Since the client is already obliged to file an information return disclosing the payments already made, you should provide the W9 without delay. You would be obliged to provide your TIN even if your final invoice was never paid. In any case, it costs you nothing to furnish this information when asked. If it is more convenient for the client's accounting to provide the W9 now, why not do so? Arguing over this point will not make you remembered more fondly when the client has another project. It may be that the client has encountered or fears to encounter a contractor who was paid and then never furnished a W9, leaving the client to have to explain why the proper 1099 was not filed with the government.
The provisions of the credit card account agreement will be governed by Delaware law, except to the extent to North Carolina public policy overrides it. The provisions of the online services agreement will be governed by New York law, except to the extent to North Carolina public policy overrides it. The electronic communications agreement will be governed by the law of the place with the most significant connection to any disputed issues arising under it. It could also be considered to be an extension of the online services agreement rather than a separate agreement. UDAP is an acronym referring the state deceptive trade practices acts. The unfair act involves non-receipt of paperless billing statements. Even with this level of detail, I don't believe it is possible to know in advance which of the agreements is implicated and which state's laws will be held to apply (or if the differences between the laws of the candidate states is even material on the issue in question). These issues are decided on a case by case basis when there is a mishmash of facts and the outcomes are not terribly predictable. It also isn't obvious that there is a provision covering the conduct in question in any of the three potentially relevant states. The Delaware Deceptive Trade Practices Act doesn't appear to clearly apply to financial services at all. New York's application to financial services is quite narrow and subject to an exception for conduct in conformity with federal law. A failure to provide an invoice, without more, isn't necessarily a deceptive trade practice at all. All in all, there isn't a straightforward or easy answer to this question that can be reached from the information provided.
I assume that you arranged a contract with some company which paid the contractor the full amount, and not you have to pay that company. If you stop paying the finance company, they will initiate legal proceedings against you to make good on your obligation, and that won't affect what the contractor does. It might not hurt you to write a formal letter (no phone calls) to the contractor stating that you require them to complete the job by some date certain, and hope that you won't have to take the matter to court. If you decide to write the letter yourself, you want to avoid saying anything that could be held against your interest, for example "I don't care how crappy a job you do, I just want this job done!": you need to be sure that what you say in a letter does not put you at a legal disadvantage. The best way to guarantee that is to hire an attorney to write the letter. If you want your money back (plus interest), you will almost certainly need to hire an attorney to write the letter. It is possible that there is an arbitration clause in your contract, requiring you to settle disputes with the firm Dewey, Cheatham &amp; Howe. In that case, your attorney might not be able to do much for you. There cannot be a clause in a contract that penalizes you simply for hiring an attorney.