Clarification for UK age of consent So for the UK, the age of consent is 16, but there is some sort of law that prevents people over the age of 18 having sex with people under the age of 18 My question is: if two people, say ages 16 and 17 are in a sexual relationship and then 1 year later one of them becomes over 18, does this law still apply?
The only age of consent in England and Wales is 16. The relevant provision is Section 9 of the Sexual Offences Act 2003. 9 Sexual activity with a child (1) A person aged 18 or over (A) commits an offence if— (a) he intentionally touches another person (B), (b) the touching is sexual, and (c) either— (i) B is under 16 and A does not reasonably believe that B is 16 or over, or (ii) B is under 13. Sex between your two hypothetical people is always legal as both are aged 16 or older at all times (under this provision - there are a raft of reasons why it may be illegal notwithstanding).
This is incest new-south-wales Incest is defined as sexual intercourse between close family members which includes siblings and half-siblings. Sexual intercourse includes penetration of the genitalia or anus with any part of the body or any manipulated object and application of the mouth or tongue to female genitalia (among other acts). It earns you up to 8 years imprisonment. There is no specific law against pornography depicting implied or illegal acts (child pornography excepted). However, I suspect such material would be Refused Classification; the distribution of which is a crime attracting a penalty of up to 12 months.
There are no EU rules on whether and under which conditions unaccompanied minors are allowed to travel, and the competence hence rests with the Member States. You are probably more proficient with Slovak rules on the matter, but judging by the information provided by the UK Government, there should be no regulatory hassle. The most probable source of problems will be the airline, but at least BA lets persons 12-17 years of age travel alone.
I’ve managed to answer my own question. Age discrimination legislation only applies to over 18s: It’s only discrimination if a trader or service provider treats you unfairly because of: age - if you’re 18 or over disability gender reassignment pregnancy and maternity race religion or belief sex sexual orientation Source
"Kidnapping is the unlawful taking away or transportation of a person against that person's will" The crime would occur if the second person was taken by the first, the age of the perpetrator is immaterial to the commission of the crime but it will affect where and how it is prosecuted. The age of the victim will matter as the victim must be old enough to competently grant consent - if they are too young to do so then it will be a kidnapping. On the face of it "running away together" does not imply an unwillingness. Note also that kidnapping is the crime of "taking away"; holding a person against their will is the different crime of false imprisonment.
It obviously varies by jurisdiction, but most jurisdictions I am familiar with have something like a "Statute of Limitations" where crimes cannot be prosecuted after a certain length of time because it was "too long ago". The logic is firstly that if you prosecute a pensioner for stealing a bottle of beer from a shop when they were 18, the person you are prosecuting is very different from the person that committed the crime. Secondly, it is very hard to obtain a fair trial after the passing of a long period of time. As far as I know, all jurisdictions vary the length of time depending on the severity of the crime, and the most serious crimes are never time-limited. Rape usually falls into the category of "never time-limited". Of course, although murder and rape can be prosecuted after 15+ years, the difficulty of obtaining a fair trial, and of producing evidence from that long ago, means that they may not be. Finally note that "prosecution" of the accused is often not the primary aim of accusers. They just want to say "this was wrong". Abused individuals often find it very hard to speak out about the abuse; the current scandals have made it that bit easier, by reassuring them that it isn't just them (see the #metoo campaign for example).
I did a lot of digging through case law and statutes, but I don't see a definition for "biological sex" anywhere in federal law, though after looking through those cases, it seems pretty clear that courts think of "biological sex" as a definition of "sex," and that they take it to mean the sex listed on your birth certificate. Even if we could find a straightforward statutory definition, it probably wouldn't do much to inform the interpretation of this memorandum, as it would only apply to the specific section of law in which the definition was included.
The exception is often called a Romeo and Juliet exception colloquially when applied to statutory rape laws. See, e.g. here. It is an exception to the age of capacity to consent to sexual conduct, not an exception to the capacity to consent to a contract. When children are very young (typically in the range of 7 to 12 as set by statute of common law, it is 6 in North Carolina) they lack the capacity to commit a crime, which has to do with the age of the offender and not the mutual ages of those involved. Is the principle described above called something? How old is it? Did the Romans apply a similar concept? The medieval Catholic church? The principle that you described is a misunderstanding of the law and is incorrect. No jurisdiction has adopted it in the sense that you articulate. When these instances are not punishable as crimes they are not punishable for different reasons. So, the question of &quot;how old is it?&quot; is a category error that has no answer. The medieval Catholic church did not have any criminal or contract jurisprudence. Both of those domains were handled by secular officials, usually either feudal lords or the officials of a &quot;free city&quot;. In the medieval period, feudal secular law was often arbitrary and often came down to the personal whims of the individual holding the title. As @hmvsm appropriately notes, however, it did have doctrine about when a child was morally responsible for sins, but final adjudication of whether you sinned or not was ultimately determined in the afterlife, and the church doctrine of forgiveness of sins made the issue moot to a great extent. The Roman Empire, of course, did have secular laws, but its laws in the area of contractual capacity, which are largely replicated by modern European civil codes, didn't contain the principle that you propose. To the best of my knowledge, the modern concept of statutory rape was unknown in the Roman world. The lack of hard age based cutoffs was, in part, because vital statistics record keeping was nowhere near universal, so many people did not even know their exact age in a legally provable manner. Approximate age in the very late Roman Empire would often have been determined based upon time elapsed since an infant baptism as recorded by church officials, but Christianity went from being very rare to universal between about 275 CE and 450 CE, and Rome fell not long after that point.