Are there any regulation, or laws put in place that regulate how often privacy policies can be updated? In reference to the recent change of the Stack Exchange privacy policy: Most people reading this are probably aware, but the Stack Exchange Privacy Policy has changed, which is a little frustrating. I may or may not join a site based on their policies. It does seem practical to change it one every year or two, but they just changed it in march, and now they changed it again. They say it is a couple small changes, but the text actually reads completely different, and I am a developer not a lawyer, I have to use 3rd party resources to really understand the policy every-time they change it. Considering they hold a ton of work I have authored, is there in law in place that prevents them from changing the policy multiple times in a certain time period? Here is the link to the recent policy change: https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/370216/updates-to-privacy-policy-september-2021?cb=1
The privacy policy now includes the statement: We may amend or update this policy from time to time and will notify you of any material changes to this policy. Previous versions of this privacy policy are available upon request. Previous versions of the policy included the same or similar language. When an agreement includes such language, it can be modified unilaterally and remains binding in many cases. However, a privacy policy is not generally an agreement or a contract, it is a statement by a service provider of its current practices and intentions. To the best of my knowledge there is no law or regulation limiting how often such a policy may be updated. There are several laws which make having a privacy policy mandatory for certain web sites and service providers. None of them apply to all sites in the US. These include: the GDPR the CCPA (California Consumer Protection Act) the Children's Online Privacy Protection Act (COPPA) The Cable Communications Policy Act of 1984 The Consumer Credit Reporting Control Act the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (applies to Institutions engaged in the financial sector) the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) Most of these laws require that a privacy policy be &quot;current&quot; or &quot;up-to-date&quot; at all times. The page &quot;how often should our IT policies be reviewed and updated?&quot; includes the advice that: In general, we recommend reviewing all your IT policies at least annually. It can be your new ‘New Years’ tradition. The page &quot;Update Notices for Privacy Policy Changes&quot; reads: Your Privacy Policy is a critical part of protecting your business and your customers. It's an up-to-date notice of your data practices, including everything from collection to storage to security. The key word in that sentence is up-to-date. Whenever you make a meaningful change to the way you handle customer data, you need to update your Privacy Policy to reflect the change. In short it is common to update such policies with some frequency. Various laws may mandate such updates whenever privacy practices change. No law that I have found limits the frequency of such updates.
gdpr The obligation to provide a privacy policy stems from GDPR Articles 13 and 14. When the information has to be provided depends on when personal data is obtained. Information under Art 13 (data obtained directly from the data subject) must be provided at the time when the personal data is being obtained. Since most websites will obtain personal data pretty much continuously, they will likely have to keep this information available continuously as well. Information under Art 14 (data obtained from other sources) must be provided within a reasonable time after obtaining the information, but at the latest when the data subject is contacted. So this depends very much on when data is obtained, and whether personal data is obtained directly from the data subject. E.g. a website generally obtains some personal data directly from the data subject every time a user visits the page, thus it will likely have to keep a minimal privacy policy available all the time, for all visitors (whether registered or not). In contrast, for individual instances of personal data processing, it may be sufficient to provide the information only once. For example, if we ask a user to enter information to enter a raffle, the privacy policy regarding the raffle might only have to be shown in context of the form where the user can enter data. However, all such approaches stink. Doing the bare minimum that's explicitly required is an easy way to run afoul of more foundational GDPR principles, e.g. the Art 5(1)(a) requirement that all data processing must be transparent (compare also Art 12(1)), and the Art 5(2) accountability principle: the data controller must be able to demonstrate how what they're doing is compliant. The Art 13 and 14 time frames are the latest point in time at which this information has to be actively provided to the user (compare also the guidelines on transparency WP260). But it would be entirely possible for a court to argue that the transparency principle implies that all such information must be available to the user for the duration of all related processing activities, possibly both before and after the data subject was explicitly informed. The WP260 document also emphasizes that the data controller must take the reasonable expectations of the users into account, and most users expect a “privacy policy” link in the footer of every page. As a more general point, the GDPR never requires that data subjects agree to a privacy policy. A privacy policy is largely unidirectional information, not a contract. Under some circumstances, the data controller may rely on consent as a legal bases for processing, and will then have to obtain consent from the data subject. In the course of this, it is necessary to provide information about the specific processing activities for which consent is being asked. Usually, this is done by a short summary with key information, and a link to the privacy policy for the full details (a layered privacy notice, compare the WP260 document and the EDBP guidelines on consent 05/2020). But valid consent can only be obtained for specific processing activities, not for a bundle of processing activities or a privacy policy in its entirety.
&quot;This policy&quot; is referring to the Mozilla Community Participation Guidelines as amended (basically a Terms of Service (TOS) agreement). If so, does it mean adherence to Guidlines is fixed to version current at the moment of commencement of employment? Not really. It means that Mozilla Community Participation Guidelines are primarily guidelines for members of the general public who are not employees, and that different unstated policies delivered to employees are what govern employees instead. There are consequences for Mozilla employees failing to honor the current version of the Mozilla Community Participation Guidelines, but those consequences are set forth in an employment contract with the employees rather than being limited to the consequences and procedures set forth in the Mozilla Community Participation Guidelines for members of the general public who aren't employees.
The 2018 Data Protection Act specifically implemented the GDPR EU Regulation in the UK - while the regulation itself was directly binding it required member states to create their own legislation for implementing the details - setting up the required supervisory and accreditation bodies etc. The various 'opening clauses' in the regulation also provided the means for the members states to implement specifics in local legislation (so long as that legislation exceeded the minimums set out in GDPR). At the end of the Brexit transition period the UK was no longer a member state (and it's citizens were no longer EU citizens), keeping the DPA 2018 as was would have actually meant that UK citizens weren't eligible for the very protections it was intended to provide them! Therefore the basis of the law needed updating (as well as certain minor provisions that no longer made sense) hence the &quot;UK GDPR&quot; provided a substitute. The fundamentals are the same and crucially it also codified the necessary basis for the UK's data protection laws to have what is referred to as &quot;adequacy&quot; - which means that the EU considers the UK GDPR/DPA to provide &quot;essentially equivalent&quot; levels of protection and therefore data is allowed to continue to flow between the UK and the EU.
The CEO, with his lawyer have tried to convince me that this only apply to current client and any past clients that I have work on. Is this true? No. It will be true only if they make that clarification in the clause or a properly added amendment. The clause currently has no indication that it is limited to "current client and any past clients that [you] have work[ed] on". The CEO's &amp; lawyer's refusal to amend the clause so as to make it consistent with their attempts [to persuade you] would be a red flag. Their inconsistent representations to you suggest that they are not planning to honor the covenant of good faith on which all contracts are premised. Should I expect the CEO to offer a fair contract or is this something you read and negotiate? You should require a contract that seems fair to you. And by "to you" I mean that it has to be in line with your expectations regardless of the average conditions in the labor market. Negotiations are not binding. They are merely a preamble to a contract, and that contract is binding. This is why you should reject a contract that falls short of your requirements. Some clauses are unlawful and/or void and unenforceable as unconscionable or for contravening legislation (unlawful clauses can and do arise even if drafted by attorneys). Thus, although you might not have to worry about those clauses in particular, the company's mere attempt to include them in a contract should alert you of the high risk of ending up with other abusive terms &amp; conditions which are binding and enforceable nonetheless.
Federal and state laws do protect a variety of different types of personal information in particular contexts, but there isn't really any information that is necessarily personal and protected from disclosure in all contexts. For instance, the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act generally protects a person's health records from unnecessary disclosure, and the Federal Education Rights and Privacy Act generally protects a student's educational records from unneccessary disclosure. But that doesn't mean that all of an American's health information is protected, or that all of the information that a hospital holds about an American is protected. The hospital can typically disclose the fact that it is treating a specific person, and if that person provides his health records to a government employer, that employer may be required to produce them in response to a request under the Ohio Public Records Act. But Facebook isn't a health-care provider, so it isn't required to protect medical records, and it isn't a school, so it isn't required to protect educational records. At the federal level, I don't know of any privacy laws that require it to maintain the privacy of its users' information, though it may be required to do so under state laws, or as a contractual matter because of its privacy policy. But that doesn't mean it has nothing to worry about. Like any business in the United States, it is prohibited from engaging in deceptive trade practices, so it can't make broad promises to protect users' privacy when it has no intention of honoring them. That's why it ended up paying $5 billion for privacy violations in the past and remains under court orders requiring it to better protect users' data. Further, Facebook has users all over the world, so it is required to comply with the international privacy regulations like GDPR that can be far more stringent.
You are responsible for what data is being processed by your website. When you embed third party components on your website (e.g. iframes, scripts), you are at least jointly responsible with the third party providing these components. You are only responsible for what happens on the website (i.e. what processing is under your control), not for what the third party provider does with collected data on their services. However, note that information will be transferred to Google's servers regardless of whether the visitor has a Google account! The Fashion ID case is relevant case law establishing and explaining these points. Since you are (jointly) responsible, you need a legal basis for collecting personal data through the tracking snippet and sharing it with the third party (here Google). For example, the legal basis could be a legitimate interest, or could be consent. A legitimate interest requires that you balance this interests against the interests, rights, and freedoms of the data subject (the site visitor). If the data subject wouldn't reasonably expect this tracking, you cannot rely on a legitimate interest. Consent can always work, except that it is a freely given, informed opt-in – likely unsuitable for conversion tracking. Which legal basis to use is primarily your responsibility. You argue that the tracking snippet does not collect personal data. However, this argument is not well supported. Under the GDPR, personal data does not only include directly identifying information such as an email address, but also any information “relating” to an identifiable person. Identification includes the ability to single out someone, e.g. by a browser fingerprint. For purposes of conversion tracking, Google will clearly try to collect data that allows the visitor to be singled out, thus collecting personal data. Furthermore, specific kinds of information are regulated by the ePrivacy directive. This includes “traffic data” and “information stored on a terminal device”, regardless of whether this information is personal data under the GDPR. Under ePrivacy, such information can only be used as strictly necessary to provide the service requested by the user (and conversion tracking is not strictly necessary), or when the user gives their consent. Depending on what information is collected by the tracking snippet and on whether you are subject to ePrivacy, you would have to collect consent anyway. There is also the issue that Google Ads is an US-based service, and transferring data to the US is largely illegal since the 2020 Schrems II ruling. The US do not provide an adequate level of data protection, so that transfers would require additional safeguards. Standard Contractual Clauses (SCCs) for Controller to Controller transfers are not sufficient by itself. Of course those extra safeguards are effectively impossible to implement and no one is doing this correctly, but it's worth considering that there is additional legal risk. Explicit consent can provide a legal basis for transfers even to a country with inadequate protections, but that mechanism is intended for occasional transfers. In conclusion: you have wrongly concluded that no personal data would be involved you are jointly responsible with Google for whatever data is processed by the conversion tracking snippet you need a legal basis for sharing this data with Google legitimate interest may be sufficient, depending on what data is involved (consider ePrivacy) and depending on the result of your legitimate interest balancing test alternatively, you may require every visitors consent to track their conversions – unlikely to result in good data additionally, such use of Google Ads may run into issues around international transfers due to the Schrems II ruling this kind of stuff is difficult, and no one is really doing this correctly :/
No You say you won't disclose personal information, therefore, you can't disclose personal information. Now, if your privacy policy said &quot;We won't disclose your personal information except ...&quot; then, so long as you did the &quot;...&quot; that would be fine (subject to privacy law).