Are skill game tournaments gambling? We consider whether a skill-based online multiplayer game with some entry fees to a tournament and prizes for winner and sub-winners (consists of entry fees) is in US and EU law classified as a gambling/hazard game. The game is not based on random (e.g. like bingo) and it is not a card game (like poker). The game's meaning is to be as skill-based as possible. Of course, it depends on the application of legislation in each country, however, we would like to find a uniformly applicable model or any clear regulations that could be applied. Most regulations seem to be very vague by definition and we fear of possible sanctions. Is available any global resource that describes / monitors this problem across the world (or in US and EU at least)?
In the U.S. this will be dependant on State Gambling Laws, but typically it would only be illegal if the money was taken for a private Lottery (legally speaking, only the government is permitted to run lotteries, and the specific nature of a lottery is a game where a prize of monetary value is awarded to a participant by a mechanism of random chance). Typically, skill based games are not Lotteries as the prize is determined by a non-random selection based on some metric of judgement (skills, though subjectively judged contests, like a Beauty Pageant or Body Builder competition can occur.). E-sports tournaments are typically Skill based rather than random chance, and thus permitted. Typically, the recent problem with many E-Sports is that the games themselves use Lockboxes as a form of micro-transactions to fund the game's development and sustainable and the mechanics of Lockboxes are sufficiently random that it might qualify as a lottery if the possible prizes could be considered items of value.
Civil cases are frequently decided by arbitration (a non-court process), so there's nothing particularly problematic here. Both parties have to agree to participate in the process, and one may (but need not) assume that there is a clause that the losing party has to live with the outcome. Odds are good that the parties are paid to participate, so there would be incentive to accept the verdict. One difference between this show (apparently) and a normal binding arbitration clause is that with the latter, this is part of the original contract which would state that all disputes must be resolved by such-and-such arbitration firm. Such verdicts are generally enforceable, unless there is some extreme impropriety (e.g. the defendant bribes the arbitration firm to flagrantly overlook the law). In the present case, torts as well as contracts can be the subject of a show, and the arbitration agreement would be separate from and after any underlying contract. A lot depends on the agreement that the show has participants sign. The Facebook-jury would, of course, not pass any form of scrutiny in a real court. So it is possible that afterwards, an unhappy party can press the case in real court, without prejudice.
This will ultimately depend on the specific laws, but the scope of EU laws like Directive 2006/114/EC is generally restricted to the EU Single Market. Thus, we would have to consider whether the advertisement in question is directed at that market. In your scenario, you have two US-based companies that engage in comparative advertising via an US-based platform. But where these companies are headquartered is not directly relevant, as non-EU companies can participate in the EU Single Market as well. Instead, EU rules are applicable if either: the comparative advertising occurred in the context of the activities of an EU establishment such as an EU-based subsidiary; or the advertising was directed to a country in the EU Single Market, for example by fulfilling the criteria listed in the Pammer and Alpenhof cases. For example, lets assume that the companies do not have a direct EU presence, but that they offer goods or services to consumers in the EU and the comparative advertisement was in German and mentioned prices in Euros. If so, there would be a good argument that EU rules apply and that the comparative advertising was potentially illegal. But as another example, lets consider two restaurants/diners in Memphis, Tennessee, US, that made unfair comparative advertisements which were distributed via YouTube. It is possible to view the advertisement from the EU. But is there any reason for this ad to be illegal in the EU? No. This ad falls out of scope of EU law as the ad is not directed towards the EU Single Market, and it is unlikely to mislead consumers in the sense of fair competition laws as there won't be any potential customers for the Memphis restaurant in the EU. National laws could take a more narrow approach though. Does YouTube have any responsibility here? No, fair competition laws generally only address the competitors, not the platforms through which advertisements are distributed (e.g. newspapers or social media platforms). Online platforms with user-generated consent benefit from safe-harbor laws. However, there are some legal theories such as the German Störerhaftung under which it might be possible to hold an otherwise-privileged service provider responsible for acts committed by an unknown third party. Note that while comparative marketing is quite regulated in the EU and thus rare, it is not actually illegal when done fairly. For example in Germany, § 6 UWG defines criteria to determine whether comparative advertising is unfair.
If I read this correctly, (and more context would support this, but I don't have time to do research at the moment; I also don't have the book in question, so I'm only basing off of the provided snippet) then it appears two different (higher court) justices making rules, not only to guide their own judgements before them, but for reference for lower court justices to base their rulings against. Note that these two cases appear to have taken place about 3 decades apart, and in two different countries, albeit with related legal codes. The Purple is "identical" to the Green, because their wording is near enough identical between the two passages. I don't think "dumbness" or lack of distinguishably is implied. Rather McRae's rule is Conditions Green AND (logical "and") Condition Red, while the British rule is just Condition Green. The orange text suggests that, under the rule in Associated Japanese Bank Ltd v Credit du Nord SA, Condition Red need NOT be shown. I.e., you don't need to show that a party is responsible for convincing the other party of an unreasonable falsehood, to prevent the first party from using the doctrine of "common mistake". It also suggests that the rule from McRae does impose Condition Red. Essentially, the text is describing two different (non-exhaustive) tests for determining when the doctrine of "common mistake" can be invoked.
This would probably be legally considered &quot;gambling' Gam,bling is prohibited in many US states and a good many non-US jurisdictions. It is significantly regulated in most US jurisdictions where it is legal, often requiring a specific license. Analyzing laws on this subject in all 50 US states would be beyond the scope of an answer here. This is definitional the sort of thing where consulting a local lawyer, experienced in this area of law, would be wise. Maryland law As an example I will cite the specific laws which I think woulds apply to the situation described n the question in teh US state oof Maryland. The Maryland criminal code Section 12-201 provides that: In this subtitle, &quot;lottery device&quot; means a policy, certificate, or other thing by which a person promises or guarantees that a number, character, ticket, or certificate will, when an event or contingency occurs, entitle the purchaser or holder to receive money, property, or evidence of debt. Thus an entry or ticket issues by such an app, would be &quot;lottery device&quot; if winners were paid in money or things exchangeable for money or property, which would include gift cards. Section 12-203 provides that: (a) Prohibited.- A person may not: (a) (1) hold a lottery in this State; or (a) (2) sell a lottery device in the State for a lottery drawn in this State or elsewhere. Section 12-205 provides that: (b) Prohibited.- A person may not: (b)(1) bring a lottery device into the State; or (b)(2) possess a book, list, slip, or record of: (b)(2)(i) the numbers drawn in a lottery in this State or another state or country; (b)(2)(ii) a lottery device; or (b)(2)(iii) money received or to be received from the sale of a lottery device. Section 12-206 provides that: b) Prohibited.- A person may not print, write, or publish an account of a lottery that describes: (b)(1) when or where the lottery is to be drawn; (b)(2) any prize available in the lottery; (b)(3) the price of a lottery ticket or share of a lottery ticket; or (b)(4) where a lottery ticket may be obtained. Most plausible ways to advertise an app as described in the question would seem to violate this section. Section 12-208 provides that: A court shall interpret §§ 12-201 through 12-207 of this subtitle liberally to treat as a lottery ticket any ticket, part of a ticket, or lottery device by which money is paid or another item is delivered when, in the nature of a lottery, an event or contingency occurs. So if it is arguably a lottery, the court will treat it as one. Section 12-209 provides that: A grant, bargain, or transfer of real estate, goods, a right of action, or personal property is void if it occurs while engaging in, or aiding or assisting in a lottery. So winners cannot lawfully collect prizes. In short any such app would seem to viol;ate several sections of Maryland law if it is used of promoted in Maryland
This answer reflects US law; I don't know German law. To be more precise, what parts of the chess game are copyrighted? The parts which are not copyrighted are the facts of the individual games. These include the moves, the players involved, the venue, the clock times, draw offers, etc. Basically, anything found on the scoresheet. The parts which are copyrighted are the parts the author actually, well, authored. Commentary and analysis, for example. A discussion of the &quot;important&quot; moves of the game would certainly qualify. Am I allowed to share a selection of different games, including details like names, date, place and so forth - all public knowledge? Single games, yes. But you can't take Fischer's &quot;My 60 Memorable Games&quot; and publish a collection of just those 60 games, even if you leave out his commentary - the creativity that went into selecting which games were included qualifies for copyright as well. (Note that a simple collection of all of a player's games in the order in which they were played would not qualify for copyright, as that's not creative enough.)
Yes, in most jurisdictions citizenship or residency is not a pre-requisite for standing. However, be aware that there are plenty of jurisdictions where the practical effect of being non-native gives you effectively no chance of winning. "Fair" in some countries means their citizens always beat foreigners.
Rudeness is not a crime Thankfully, or I’d be writing this from jail. The threat or actually of intentional and unwanted physical contact is a crime. Historically these were seperate common law crimes (and torts) of assault and battery respectively. However, in most jurisdictions these have been codified and merged and redefined so there is common assault (which merges historic assault and battery and is what you are asking about), indecent assault, sexual assault etc. In general, there must be an intentionality to the contact - accidentally colliding with someone is not assault (although it can be the tort of negligence). Similarly the contact must be unwanted - participating in a game of rugby means you want to be tackled (in a legal sense, in a sports sense you don’t want to be tackled, you want to score). And finally it must intend harm - holding your hands up to prevent a collision does not intend harm even if harm may result, punching someone does. In the cases you describe, the aggressor is the “elderly person” and they have committed a crime. I am interested in the suggestion that public opinion in first-world countries like Canada is that being old and annoyed justifies you beating someone. That is not my understanding of public opinion in Australia- old people have to follow the rule of law here just like everybody else.