Denying admission to students I am familiar with the fact that many theaters display the message 'Management reserves the right of admission' or something similar. Today, our pre-board mock tests (Class 10) ended, and me and my friends went straight from school to a particular theater to watch a movie. However, when we got there, we were denied admission on the basis that the management thought that we were bunking school (our school breaks as soon as the exam ends, around eleven am). My question is, does the theater have any right to refuse admission on such arbitrary and unproven grounds?
The theatre is a private place. You may enter it only with the permission of the owners. They are not obliged to grant you that permission. They have the right to refuse admission on almost any grounds they choose. I say "almost" because many jurisdictions have laws about things like race or gender discrimination. I suspect in India it would be illegal to say "You can't come in because you are Hindu." The point is though, that there is a short list of reasons which they aren't allowed to use. Any other reason is legal.
What you quoted does not say "a" director can appoint a director. It says "the directors", plural, can appoint a director. I assume that would be by a vote. Elsewhere in the document it might or might not be made clear if this requires only a majority and/or if this is only in cases to fill a vacancy.
Why would this be a concern? The adults have some duty in an elementary school setting to monitor the children in the restroom in any case. Separate restrooms are an employee perk, not a liability driven decision.
To &quot;reserve one's rights&quot; is to make it clear that some other action is not intended to give the rights up. Typically, it has no legal effect but is used out of caution, to avoid misunderstanding. For example, an author who publishes their writing for free online might add &quot;all rights reserved&quot; to the copyright notice. This makes it clear that by making the work freely accessible, they did not intend to give others permission to republish it, or release it into the public domain. Similarly, at an early stage of a legal dispute, a lawyer might write a letter of demand that outlines some of the client's strongest points, without wishing to imply that the case has been fully investigated and pleaded. Such a letter might &quot;reserve our client's rights&quot; to add to or amend the claim later. In both cases, the legal situation would probably be the same if the rights were not expressly &quot;reserved.&quot; They are, after all, rights. However, the phrase can potentially become significant when considering whether a party is estopped from asserting a claim that should have been raised earlier, or has made an unfavourable admission.
It is mandatory for the employer to provide sufficient restrooms (“cabinets d'aisance”), as per article R4228-10. Other provisions regulate evacuation, ventilation, heating, disabled access, etc. There is no provision regarding when employees are permitted to use the restrooms. There can't be a single rule that works for every profession: some jobs don't let you leave your post whenever you like (e.g. machine operator, driver, guard, teacher, etc.). The most common dispute regarding restroom use is whether employees should be paid during that time. Some employers want to count restroom use as unpaid pause time. Strictly speaking, that's legal: an employee who is in a restroom is not at the employer's disposal, therefore this doesn't count as work time. However enforcing this is often logistically difficult and wildly unpopular, so in practice it's only done in places where employees must clock out to reach a restroom. I could only find one case with actual jurisprudence. In 1995, an industrial butchering company (Bigard) decided to limit restroom breaks to three fixed times a day. This was, as you might expect, unpopular; the employees went on strike, and eventually the labor court struck down this measure. That's a precedent, but it doesn't seem to have made its way to the appellate court. Your case is also slightly different in that the restrooms would only be inaccessible for an hour, which is shorter than in the Bigard case. So legally speaking, it isn't clear who will win. You'll have a better chance of success by banking on the unpopularity of the measure. Talk with your colleagues and your representatives and shop stewards. Point out that employees who are trying to hold it in are unlikely to be at the top of their productivity.
There is a grievance procedure whereby a student can file a complain against a professor. (The possibility that there is no procedure is negligible: I can find the document if you name the institution). They may have reviewed the situation and taken whatever action they plan to. The person complaining will receive notice of the outcome, but it is unlikely that the outcome will be made public. Supposing that you are just an interested bystander: your right is to withdraw from the university, write a letter of protest, or continue as usual. You have no special legal privileges in this situation, because you were not directly harmed. You cannot sue a person for making society less livable for you. I cannot sue the university because (as a professor at a presumably different institution) I am only ephemerally harmed by university administrations covering their legal interests rather than punishing the wicked. You have no standing (technical term) in a lawsuit. Now suppose you were actually the aggrieved student and the wrong was a wrongful public accusation of plagiarism (defamation). The defamed student can sue the professor. This is true no matter what the result of the internal disciplinary process is – except that the university might cleverly get the student to agree to shut up in exchange for some desirable outcome.
As someone who is not a lawyer, but is familiar with FERPA and university policies as a former instructor, I would be more than willing to bet that you signed or otherwise agreed to some type of Terms of Service before being given access to that type of service. There are almost certainly numerous things you signed to become a student, as well as various policies you agreed to in first gaining access to the computer services, which would apply here. I can tell you with certainty that the school where I was a student had a policy that I agreed to that they would make certain information available to other students unless I chose for it to be restricted. However, my university did not have any photos of students that were viewable by other students in a directory. That said, there were also times I participated in extra-curricular activities where I was required to sign release forms giving the school the rights to video tape, record, and photograph me, and to do what they wished with those things. So, with that in mind, I suspect that's partly due to FERPA restrictions, but also largely due to their own privacy policies that go beyond what FERPA requires. All in all, I doubt they would be okay with you using their photos for your own private use - student privacy is something that is taken very seriously.
In the US, your recourse is the school board that governs your high school. Talk to them and find out how to bring the situation to their attention. There will be some sort of complaint or grievance process you can participate in. The school board is bound by state (and federal law), but makes many decisions for the school, among them employee policies and standards for teacher qualifications. Yes, there are possible legal actions you could take, but the first step is the school board. The school board will be obligated to tell you the hiring process and how qualifications play a role. But be aware that they have the option to hire temporary teachers who are not fully certified in order to fill vacancies; it's a common practice when the demand for teachers is much higher than their availability. There is little that is illegal about it, unless the board broke their own rules or state or federal law.