Can a woman sue a person who informs her child about the abortions she has had? If an adult has knowledge of how many abortions that a woman has had in her lifetime and that adult was to inform a child of that woman about her abortions and this leads to that child suffering emotional distress, can the woman who had those abortions sue that adult for revealing this information to her child? I am curious to know if there is an existing law(s) that make it illegal for any adult to reveal/discuss abortion information with a child of a woman who has had abortions. I am familiar with HIPAA laws and what constitutes a HIPAA violation and it is obvious that a woman can sue someone who is guilty of gaining information via a HIPAA violation. It is unclear to me however that in a scenario in which a woman, or the husband of that woman, was to pass on the woman's abortion information to a neighbor/teacher/friend/relative/etc. in causal conversation, and then sometime in the future this person reveals this information to the woman's child, can the woman sue this person for causing her child's emotional distress?
Revealing such information might be an example of an Invasion of Privacy tort, specifically &quot;Disclosure of Private Facts&quot;. Not all US states recognize this tort. The Findlaw page on &quot;What is Invasion of privacy&quot; says: Public disclosure of private facts laws protect your right to keep the details of your private life from becoming public information. For example, publicizing facts about a person's health, sexual conduct, or financial troubles is likely an invasion of privacy. While state laws vary, the general elements of this tort are as follows: 1.The defendant publicized a matter regarding the private life of the plaintiff; 2.The publicized matter would be highly offensive to a reasonable person; and 3.It is not of a legitimate concern to the public. To publicize a private matter, laws generally require that the private information is disseminated in such a way that it is substantially certain to become public knowledge A linked sub-page of the above says: Generally, disclosure to one or two people does not constitute a public disclosure unless there is an implication that the information should be spread around. The Digital Media law Project's page on &quot;Publication of Private Facts&quot; says much the same thing. The 1976 law review article &quot;The First Amendment Privilege and Public Disclosure of Private Facts&quot; by Samuel Soopper Discusses this tort in some detail, although it mostly focuses on publications by the news media where first amendment issues are in play. It seems as if such a tort case might be hard to bring because of the small number of people to whom the fact was disclosed. A claim for Intentional Infliction of Emotional Distress might fit such a situation, but this would depend on the specific facts of the case, and again, on the state where the issue would be tried. In any case, this would not be a criminal action, and a lawyer would have to be consulted to better determine if a civil action could be pursued.
This is defamation, a civil matter, where you may sue the person who makes these statements. If you sue them, the question is whether accusing a person of sexually abusing a 2 year old would lower the person in the eyes of others, and the answer is &quot;Yes, you don't even have to prove that there was actual harm&quot; (this is know as per se defamation): it is both accusation of a crime and accusation of reprehensible moral conduct. Making the statement in public is all it takes – &quot;public&quot; means &quot;someone other than the object of the accusation&quot;. The only defense is proving that the statement is true. Your attorney can advise you how much money you might awarded in a successful suit, also any downside to suing the ex. If you are playing defamation whack-a-mole, this probably involves getting an injunction against doing this again.
Generally they don't. If the conversation was made while there was a third person present, the person can be a witness at trial. Unless the witness is impeached, the witness's statement may be sufficient for you to meet your burden of proof to show the statement was made, because the burden is just a preponderance of evidence in most civil cases. Note that, the existence of a statement is not sufficient to prove breach of privacy. The context surrounding the statement is important. If you intend to record communications from the landlord in the future, please check with your jurisdiction's laws regarding recording of communications. Many jurisdictions (such as California) only permit a private communication to be recorded when all parties give consent. Not only an illegally recorded conversation is inadmissible as evidence (with the exception to rebut a witness), it is also a crime to do so. Some other jurisdictions in USA allows one party to record the conversation without obtaining consent from the other party.
In general, there are few laws in the US that restrict a person's freedom to disclose a fact known about another person. Examples of such limits are HIPAA which restricts health-professionals disclosure of medical information, and FERPA which restricts an educational institution's disclosure of student records. There are laws that restrict government disclosure of information about individuals. Confidentiality might be guaranteed via a contract, if there is a non-disclosure clause in the contract. A number of (major) businesses do have privacy policies where they promise not to disclose your information, or do so only in a specified way: such things generally exist for internet businesses. Some states like California have mandatory privacy policy laws. In New Jersey, there is simply the traditional tort claims of intrusion upon solitude, unreasonable publicity of private life, false light, and appropriation of name or likeness. Passing along general information about a person or a way to contact them would not be seen as an unreasonable intrusion.
A problem with the question is that it uses the loaded term "victim". If you change the question to "Are there actions that you can perform involving another person, which are crimes even if the other person consents to participating in the action", then there are very many. Selling alcohol to a minor; selling heroin to anyone; selling sex in most US jurisdictions; selling firearms to a convicted felon. Also, for a physician to assist a person in suicide, in most states. Formerly in the US, various forms of sexual intercourse were acts that consent did not make legal. Whether or not the person is a "victim" in these cases is open to debate. In the case of physician-assisted suicide in Washington, the doctor is allowed to prescribe (oral) drugs that the person ingests: only a doctor is permitted to do this, both under the DWD Act and as a consequence that only a doctor can prescribe the drugs. There seems to be a belief that it is a crime to assist a person in committing suicide, which is probably correct if the assistance is shooting the person in the head, or in general directly causing the death (thus, "I give you permission to shoot me in the head" doesn't cut it). But from what I can tell, it is not generally against the law in Washington to help a person who commits suicide (e.g. supplying the means of self-dispatching). In some countries, suicide and helping with suicide is illegal, e.g. in Kenya Penal Code 225 says Any person who (a) procures another to kill himself; or (b) counsels another to kill himself and thereby induces him to do so; or (c) aids another in killing himself, is guilty of a felony and is liable to imprisonment for life. No exception is created if the person consents to being aided to kill himself.
united-statestexas In the US, it depends on the consent-to-treat laws of the state. In Washington, under RCW 9.02.100, everybody has a right to reproductive privacy (be it contraceptives or abortions). Under the federal HIPAA privacy rule, the minor requesting contraceptives would therefore be &quot;the individual&quot;, which means that disclosure to others requires consent from the patient. Given the supremacy clause, that's all she wrote for Washington. The majority of states similarly allow 16 year olds to request contraceptives. Texas Family Code §32.003 spells out the conditions where a minor can consent to their own medical treatment, which does not include the situation you describe, therefore parental consent would be required (which clearly implies parental notification). Furthermore, that law also says (d) A licensed physician, dentist, or psychologist may, with or without the consent of a child who is a patient, advise the parents, managing conservator, or guardian of the child of the treatment given to or needed by the child. Therefore in Texas there is no prohibition against informing the parent(s). (Note that in the Texas Family Code, &quot;child&quot; is a synonym for &quot;minor&quot;, so this also applies to teenagers, not just small children.) Carey v. Population Services Int'l, 431 U.S. 678 is an important ruling regarding the rights of minors to make their own decisions regarding contraception, but it does not go so far as to declare that minors have a constitutional right to give consent to the requisite medical examination.
First, read the definitions of defamation and libel be sure you understand them: Defamation | Wex Legal Dictionary | Cornell. Yes, posting to Twitter and Reddit is publishing, and people can post provably false facts on those services and defame someone in a civil law sense. But Section 230 of the Communications Decency Act (Electronic Frontier Foundation) mostly protects those services from defamation claims based on statements made by users of such a service. (Things are different if the case is criminal as a result of clear threats of violence, terrorism, etc.) ...what are the steps for them to exact damages in a civil court case? Find a lawyer, convince him/her to take the case, and file suit. if you don't know the person's real name, your lawyer will have to sue "John Doe" and point that out in the suit (and subpoenas) with the alleged Twitter handle or Reddit user name. How would a person compel Twitter/Reddit/etc to disclose the ISP information on their account? Read the various legal aspects of each service, i.e. Twitter Legal FAQs and User Agreement - Reddit and others. Your lawyer can explain that you can only try to compel them to disclose the IP and the ISP used with a subpoena during your lawsuit. How would a person compel an ISP to disclose the subscriber information (address, name) on the IP address? Since most ISPs protect their customer data, you will probably have to subpoena the ISP during your lawsuit. But your ability to do this can depend on if the ISP is a private company or a government entity, such as a university. State laws may come into play. Is obtaining the ISP subscriber's information enough to bring a lawsuit against them? Would they able to argue they didn't post the messages and bear no liability, even if it originated from their network? If it originated from an open wifi hotspot, would the proprietor bear responsibility at this point? Yes, you can sue an individual with such information; but there's no guarantee you'd win. Sure, because they can claim anything, such as someone else was using their computer or IP. No, owners of hotspots are generally not liable, and they protect themselves with TOS you agree to when you use the hotspot. Can the extensive legal costs of pursuing the case to it's conclusion be added to the damages sought easily? Legal costs can possibly be added, depending on jurisdiction. But seeking damages and actually winning them through a jury verdict are completely different things.
Privilege May Be Irrelevant In Your Case In a criminal case in the U.S., a criminal prosecution is moot and dismissed if the criminal defendant dies (or even if the criminal defendant is convicted and the case is still on appeal). (Pending divorce cases also abate upon the death of a spouse, but most other civil cases do not.) Caveat: Your Mileage May Vary Privilege law is established on a state by state basis and at the federal level based upon federal law, so it can vary. Confidential Communications v. The Testimonial Privilege There are really two privileges. The privilege for confidential communications between a husband and wife survives the marriage (although it does not impose a duty on a spouse not to disclose confidential communications outside court testimony) and may be asserted by either party to the communication. The testimonial privilege allows someone facing criminal charges or a civil claim in court to prevent a current spouse from testifying against them whether or not the current spouse wishes to testify. Exceptons To Spousal Privilege Both privileges generally exclude criminal and civil claims between the spouses and sometimes certain other crimes, and often also ongoing crimes and an intent to commit a future crime. In Colorado, the privilege extends to crimes allegedly committed against children, however, although this would not be true in all states. The detailed example of the Colorado statute on this point is set forth below. The 5th Amendment Alternative To The Testimonial Privilege Note that even when the testimonial privilege does not apply because a marriage has ended due to death, divorce or annulment, the former spouse may still be able to claim a 5th Amendment privilege out of concerns about prosecution, for example, for aiding and abetting, conspiracy, or accessory liability, if the witness is not given immunity (which is usually available only in criminal cases, not in civil cases brought by a private party who does not have authority to grant immunity). Spousal Immunity Contrasted With Spousal Privilege Spousal immunity is a very different concept from spousal privilege. Historically, you were immune from criminal liability for most crimes committed against your spouse (except murder), and had immunity from civil liability from all civil lawsuits brought by or on behalf of a spouse against the other spouse (e.g. breach of contract, personal injury, property disputes), except a suit for dissolution or annulment of a marriage or legal separation. If you have immunity from criminal or civil liability, testimony is irrelevant. You can't be found guilty period. The criminal liability immunities were lifted for all crimes other than rape long ago, and relatively recently for marital non-consent rape (there is still generally immunity from statutory rape or person in position of trust rape committed during the marriage). The civil liabilities were mostly eliminated many decades ago. The Example Of Colorado's Spousal Privilege Statute In Colorado, the spousal privilege statute reads as follows (later parts of the statute apply to other privileges): Colorado Revised Statutes § 13-90-107. Who may not testify without consent - definitions (1) There are particular relations in which it is the policy of the law to encourage confidence and to preserve it inviolate; therefore, a person shall not be examined as a witness in the following cases: (a)(I) Except as otherwise provided in section 14-13-310(4), C.R.S., a husband shall not be examined for or against his wife without her consent nor a wife for or against her husband without his consent; nor during the marriage or afterward shall either be examined without the consent of the other as to any communications made by one to the other during the marriage; but this exception does not apply to a civil action or proceeding by one against the other, a criminal action or proceeding for a crime committed by one against the other, or a criminal action or proceeding against one or both spouses when the alleged offense occurred prior to the date of the parties' marriage. However, this exception shall not attach if the otherwise privileged information is communicated after the marriage. (II) The privilege described in this paragraph (a) does not apply to class 1, 2, or 3 felonies as described in section 18-1.3-401(1) (a) (IV) and (1) (a) (V), C.R.S., or to level 1 or 2 drug felonies as described in section 18-1.3-401.5(2) (a), C.R.S. In this instance, during the marriage or afterward, a husband shall not be examined for or against his wife as to any communications intended to be made in confidence and made by one to the other during the marriage without his consent, and a wife shall not be examined for or against her husband as to any communications intended to be made in confidence and made by one to the other without her consent. (III) Communications between a husband and wife are not privileged pursuant to this paragraph (a) if such communications are made for the purpose of aiding the commission of a future crime or of a present continuing crime. (IV) The burden of proving the existence of a marriage for the purposes of this paragraph (a) shall be on the party asserting the claim. (V) Notice of the assertion of the marital privilege shall be given as soon as practicable but not less than ten days prior to assertion at any hearing. (a.5)(I) Except as otherwise provided in section 14-13-310(5), C.R.S., a partner in a civil union shall not be examined for or against the other partner in the civil union without the other partner's consent, nor during the civil union or afterward shall either be examined without the consent of the other as to any communications made by one to the other during the civil union; except that this exception does not apply to a civil action or proceeding by one against the other, a criminal action or proceeding for a crime committed by one against the other, or a criminal action or proceeding against one or both partners when the alleged offense occurred prior to the date of the parties' certification of the civil union. However, this exception shall not attach if the otherwise privileged information is communicated after the certification of the civil union. (II) The privilege described in this paragraph (a.5) does not apply to class 1, 2, or 3 felonies as described in section 18-1.3-401(1) (a) (IV) and (1) (a) (V), C.R.S., or to level 1 or 2 drug felonies as described in section 18-1.3-401.5(2) (a), C.R.S. In this instance, during the civil union or afterward, a partner in a civil union shall not be examined for or against the other partner in the civil union as to any communications intended to be made in confidence and made by one to the other during the civil union without the other partner's consent. (III) Communications between partners in a civil union are not privileged pursuant to this paragraph (a.5) if such communications are made for the purpose of aiding the commission of a future crime or of a present continuing crime. (IV) The burden of proving the existence of a civil union for the purposes of this paragraph (a.5) shall be on the party asserting the claim. (V) Notice of the assertion of the privilege described in this paragraph (a.5) shall be given as soon as practicable but not less than ten days prior to assertion at any hearing. (VI) For the purposes of this paragraph (a.5), "partner in a civil union" means a person who has entered into a civil union established in accordance with the requirements of article 15 of title 14, C.R.S. The reference to C.R.S. § 14-13-310(4) is to the section on child-custody hearings. How Serious Are The Crimes To Which Testimonial Privilege Does Not Apply In Colorado? Class 1, 2 or 3 felonies to which the confidential communication husband-wife privilege applies but not the testimonial husband-wife privilege apply in Colorado are quite serious offenses. Class 1 felonies in Colorado have a mandatory minimum sentence of life in prison without possibility of parole (or life with possibility of parole after 40 years if the offender is a minor). Class 1 felonies include first degree murder for which the death penalty is available in some cases and aggravated kidnapping where death is presumed because the victim has not be released alive. Class 2 felonies in Colorado are punishable by eight to thirty-six years in person (eight to twenty-four years if non-violent, sixteen to thirty-six if violent). Class 2 felonies would include second degree murder, kidnapping involving the rape or robbery of the victim, gang rape, rape committed with a deadly weapon, rape causing serious bodily injury, theft of more than $1,000,000, and attempted Class 1 felonies. Class 3 felonies are punishable by four to eighteen years in prison (four to twelve if non-violent, eight to eighteen years if violent). Class 3 felonies would include heat of passion murder, aggravated armed robbery, aggravated armed burglary, aggravated assault causing serious bodily injury or disfigurement or a permanent disability (and not in the heat of passion), human trafficking for involuntary servitude or sexual servitude (including keeping slaves), kidnapping for ransom or with a deadly weapon, forcible rape, rape committed by incapacitating someone with drugs, or rape caused by a credible threat of "imminent death, serious bodily injury, extreme pain, or kidnapping, to be inflicted on anyone", arson of a building, and theft of $100,000 or more but less than $1,000,000. A class 1 drug felony is punishable by eight to thirty-two years in prison. A class 2 drug felony is punishable by four to eight years in prison. These involve drug dealing of large amounts of drugs and/or drug dealing to children. Among the crimes to which the marital privilege would be still apply would be manslaughter, assault not causing serious bodily injury, theft of less than $100,000, unarmed burglary, unarmed robbery, kidnapping without a weapon and without asking for ransom, drug dealing in moderate amounts to adults, statutory rape, rape by a person in a position of trust, rape without consent but without use of physical force (e.g. by blackmail not involving physical violence threats), or arson of property other than a building. Of course, by charging a serious crime, one may cause the privilege to evaporate even if it is unlikely to result in a conviction for that crime.