What is tort law and how does it differ from civil law? Is there any difference or overlap between the two? Does one more broadly encompass the other? Are torts defined in statute or do they exist alongside statute in some way more fundamentally and less ephemerally than statutes exist? What is a “common law tort “? In the past there used to be a Wikipedia page, “list of torts” but it didn’t seem to really classify then be jurisdictions much less give the original basis for each tort, and furthermore there were a huge number of different torts.
First, civil law has, confusingly, two meanings. It can denote the legal systems used in most of Europe, as opposed to the common-law systems arising in England and spreading to most of the former British empire. In the US, and in other common-law jurisdictions, civil law is pretty much everything other than criminal law. Given the tagging of the question, this seems to be the sense that you have in mind. What is tort law and how does it differ from civil law? Is there any difference or overlap between the two? Does one more broadly encompass the other? Tort law is a subset of civil law. Are torts defined in statute? Some are; some aren't. There is a common-law doctrine of torts. These torts have been defined by the courts through judicial precedent rather than by the legislature through statute law. They are therefore known as &quot;common law torts.&quot; Some jurisdictions have abolished these torts and replaced them with torts defined by statute. or do they exist alongside statute in some way more fundamentally and less ephemerally than statutes exist? Statutorily defined torts are rather less ephemeral than common-law torts, not more. What is a “common law tort “? See above.
Civil law instead of criminal law Not all things that we commonly refer to as "illegal" are actually crimes - many of them refer to violations of contracts or other obligations where the harmed party may (or may not) use the civil system to obtain some satisfaction, but the government and prosecutors will not do it for them. In general (with some exceptions, depends on jurisdiction and circumstances), most low scale copyright violations are treated as a civil matter - it allows the harmed party (i.e. the copyright owner) to sue you for damages in a civil court, if they wish and are able to do so. However, it generally is not a crime (again, with some exceptions - e.g. large scale distribution often is) so the government and police on their own cannot, should not and does not investigate and prosecute violations of software licence terms.
Law is more like sport than mathematics You don’t know how it will turn out until you play the game. If a case goes to trial it’s because at both sides believe they can win. Both sides probably have good reasons for their belief. At least one of them is wrong.
There are both statutes and customs aimed at preventing "Malicious Prosecution" and "Abuse of Process." (In Pennsylvania, for example, the 1980 Dragonetti Act allows the victim of a frivolous lawsuit to counter-sue for compensatory damages.) One can also buy insurance against this type of risk: Umbrella liability policies will generally provide a defense against civil lawsuits and any damages awarded, as will many business insurance policies. Of course, none of this is to say that a skilled legal team can't avoid all of these countermeasures and, in practice, take up a significant amount of your time and trouble. We do not have a perfect system of justice.
There isn't a difference. The terminology in England and Wales that means the same thing is "litigant in person", with the source of these Latin phrases have abandoned them in favor of plain English terminology. The variation of usage, however, does not necessarily break down on a federal v. state court basis. Pro se is the majority usage, but the variation is more regional, within state courts, than it is a federal v. state divide. California and Michigan, for example, use both terms and use them interchangeably. If there is a historical reason for the variation in terminology, I haven't groked it. Incidentally, there was historically a subtle distinction between the two concepts related to consent to the personal jurisdiction of the court that has long since become obsolete (more than a century ago), but which movements such as the "sovereign person" movement errantly believe has great legal importance to the power of a court over them.
I can't do much better than the opening to Wikipedia's article on this: The contemporary legal systems of the world are generally based on one of four basic systems: civil law, common law, statutory law, religious law or combinations of these. However, the legal system of each country is shaped by its unique history and so incorporates individual variations. I believe that there are about 196 sovereign nations in the world so that gives 196 national systems. Many of these have sub-national jurisdictions (e.g. The USA with 50 states plus military law) so this total is at least several hundred and may run up to 1000. In addition there are systems of supra-national law such as maritime law, war crimes law and supra-national jurisdictions like the EU. So, short answer: lots. The correct terminology for a system of law is a jurisdiction. Note that many activities will be subject to multiple jurisdictions.
This distinction was once important in English law, and other common-law systems derived from it, because common-law courts felt free to punish a Malum in Se even when there was no relevant statute, while a Malum Prohibitum would be punished only if it violated a specific statute. But today in the US, and to a large degree in the UK and other common-law countries, nearly all law has a statutory basis (although subject to interpretation by courts). Thus the distinction between Malum in Se and Malum Prohibitum no longer makes a significant difference, and is pretty much purely academic, except in a historical context.
There is no particular mention in the OSCOLA guidelines for how to refer to laws of England and Wales. In academic papers it is common to see both &quot;English Law&quot; and &quot;English and Welsh Law&quot;, usually depending on whether the particular point relates directly to England, Wales or both. However, in the case of Welsh Measures and Statutory Instruments of Wales then it would be correct to only describe the laws as &quot;Welsh Law&quot;.