Probate vs Non-Probate Assets for Wills New York State (USA) here. I'm having trouble understanding the difference between Probate and Non-Probate assets, from a Will/Testament standpoint. I believe non-probate assets are specific gifts you call out -- in the Will -- that are designated for specific beneficiaries. Little Jimmy gets the old pair of lucky Yankees socks, Little Suzie gets the old, decrepit, half-eaten turkey sandwich that Babe Ruth once took a bite out of, etc. I believe probate assets are simply anything you (the Deceased; the Testator) owns prior to death that is not specifically called out as a non-probate asset and designated to a specific beneficiary. If that's right, then I'm guessing things like: 401ks/Roth IRAs Life Insurance policies Savings accounts Stock market investments Houses, land &amp; real property ...could all be probate assets if one does't specifically gift them to a Beneficiary? And if my understanding is incorrect, then I could use some course correction and steering here. Thanks in advance!
I believe non-probate assets are specific gifts you call out -- in the Will -- that are designated for specific beneficiaries. Little Jimmy gets the old pair of lucky Yankees socks, Little Suzie gets the old, decrepit, half-eaten turkey sandwich that Babe Ruth once took a bite out of, etc. This is incorrect. Every transfer arising from a will is a probate asset, because probate is the formal legal process of determining if there was a will, and if so, which will applies, and then distributing the assets of the person who died in accordance with that will (or with the determination that there was no will). I'm guessing things like: 401ks/Roth IRAs Life Insurance policies Savings accounts Stock market investments Houses, land &amp; real property ...could all be probate assets if one does't specifically gift them to a Beneficiary? A 401k/Roth IRA with a beneficiary designation (other than the owner's estate), a life insurance policy with a beneficiary designation (other than the owner's estate), a savings account or stock account or investment with a joint owner or a pay on death beneficiary (other than the owner's estate), or real property with a transfer on death beneficiary or a joint ownership with right of survivorship is a non-probate asset. Any of those assets if there is no beneficiary designation, if there is no pay on death beneficiary, if there is no joint owner with right of survivorship, if it is not owner through a trust, and if there is a beneficiary designation that names the owner's estate, is a probate asset. The General Rule Anything subject to allocation and distribution in a will, or by intestate succession is a probate asset. Specifically devised property in a will is a probate asset. A non-probate assets is something transferred pursuant to a beneficiary designation, pay on death provision, joint ownership with right of survivorship, tenancy by entireties, or provision in a trust existing prior to the death of the decedent. These assets are not dealt with through the probate court process. However, if a will purports to specifically devise property that has a beneficiary designation or pay on death beneficiary or is owned by a trust or is in joint tenancy with right of survivorship, then the non-probate transfer prevails over the inconsistent language in the will. See also: Examples of Non-Probate Transfers Used in Estate Planning The following are examples of non-probate transfers commonly used in estate planning: Passing property to beneficiaries through a living trust. Leaving funds to a beneficiary named on a pay on death account or transfer on death account. Leaving funds to a beneficiary named on a life insurance policy. Leaving funds to a beneficiary named on an IRA, 401k or other retirement account. See financial planning. Holding title to property as joint tenants or tenancy by the entirety. Leaving motor vehicles to a transfer on death beneficiary. Gifting assets to heirs during your lifetime so the assets do not pass as part of your estate. Executing and recording a transfer on death deed naming a beneficiary to inherit your real estate. (Source) The American Bar Association devotes a full chapter length treatment to discussing the difference. It begins: Upon death, a decedent’s estate includes both probate and nonprobate assets. Probate assets are those that pass to persons identified in a will (see Chapter 3 for a discussion of wills), whereas nonprobate assets pass outside an estate’s administration. Examples of traditional nonprobate assets include qualified and nonqualified retirement plans, individual retirement accounts, and life insurance policies. However, nonprobate assets can also include certain checking and savings accounts, certificates of deposit, investments, and even real property, but only if a beneficiary is designated and state law allows for such an asset to pass outside of an estate’s administration. Nonprobate assets are frequently referred to as “will substitutes.”
The seminal case on this was Riggs v. Palmer, 115 N.Y. 506 (1889). A grandson stood to inherit a sizeable estate from his grandfather and, concerned that the will might change, killed his grandfather. In the united-states most jurisdictions have passed &quot;slayer statutes&quot; to prevent the killer from taking under the will. In Maryland, one who &quot;feloniously and intentionally kills, conspires to kill, or procures the killing of the decedent&quot; is barred from inheriting or otherwise benefiting under the will. See Md. Est. &amp; Trusts Code § 11-112. Manslaughter is a felony in Maryland. See Md. Code Crim. Law § 2-207. So if a particular instance of manslaughter involves intent (e.g. the grandson intentionally kills the grandfather following some adequate provocation), the slayer statute should bar taking under the will. But if it doesn't, the killer wouldn't be disqualified. Wikipedia adds: The Maryland slayer rule is harsher than most other states. In addition to prohibiting murderers from inheriting from their victims, Maryland's slayer rule prohibits anyone else from inheriting from murder victims through their murderers; Maryland's slayer rule is thus similar in structure to corruption of blood. For example, a mother leaves her son $50,000, and leaves her son's child (her grandchild) $100,000. She leaves her residuary estate (i.e., whatever else is left of the estate) to her daughter. If the son kills his mother, then under Maryland law, the son's child will inherit the $100,000; however the son's $50,000 (which is also the indirect inheritance of the grandchild through his father), is not available under Maryland law to either the son, or his child. The $50,000 becomes part of the mother's residuary estate and goes to the daughter.
This is complicated. This is state dependent, and as of time of writing, you haven't disclosed what is the relevant state. This is something you should hire/retain a (divorce) lawyer, and discuss with them. The law can be messy; divorces are always messy. The answer is the most common answer in law: it depends, on specific facts. See above, get a lawyer. The first question is &quot;is the money in this investment account a shared asset that I have any claim to&quot;. The answer is &quot;it depends&quot;. What state are you in, and where did this money come from? Depending on various factors, the answer might very well be &quot;no&quot;, in which case, this money (and it's loss) may not affect you at all. If you do have some claim to this money, then it gets even more complicated. &quot;Can this asset be retrieved in a court proceeding and say that he was squandering money?&quot; Maybe, kinda. Technically no (because of the way you phrased that). I'll explain. In a divorce, &quot;shared&quot; assets are divided equitably (Note &quot;equitably&quot; does NOT mean &quot;equally&quot;) based on numerous factors, often on a case-by-case basis, and which factors depend on the state. (Therefore, the lawyer you retain should be licensed in the state you/your husband are filing for divorce in). Before your divorce, both sides have (in general) the right to use shared property. They do not have the right to intentionally damage or destroy said property. One complication/grey area is normal use that degrades or damages the value of said property. For example, imagine a classic sports car. Many people drive them for fun; this is normal use. On the other hand, using a classic sports car decreases the value. Is using the sports car unreasonable damage? This is a fact based determination to be made based on specifics. Can this asset be retrieved in a court proceeding [if I] say that he was squandering money? (correction to what I think think you meant). Maybe, but probably not. You can say whatever you want in court, but what matters is what you can prove, as you are the bearing the burden of proof due to making the accusation (and you must prove it to the standard required by the court in your case for your particular motion/accusation, which might be the standard of &quot;the balance of probabilities/more likely than not&quot; or &quot;clear and convincing evidence&quot;, or something else; it's complicated, fact dependent and state dependent, so get a lawyer). You don't need to prove that he lost money. If he was day trading before, the fact that he was day trading after the separation is not held against him; day trading is risky, therefore you have to prove that he intentionally lost money (and, potentially, that he intentionally lost money to deny money to you in the divorce, as opposed to e.g. tax loss harvesting). I would recommend hiring a divorce lawyer and discussing it with them.
Certain things are your separate property, and only you can sell them (but you are also responsible for them). That would include things acquired before the marriage; also anything inherited by just one of you, or gifts provably given to just one of you. Other things are community (marital) property, including your pants and probably your dog. Writing your name on the object or a piece of associated paper doesn't really matter, what matters is how it was acquired. One party can sell their half-interest in joint property, but nobody (?) would buy a property interest in a dog, they would buy the dog. For another person to actually buy a dog, they would have to buy a 100% interest in the dog, meaning that you would have to agree to the sale. When it comes to property with a solid title system, such as real estate, one party cannot sell the whole property without the consent of the co-owner. However, a co-owner could petition the courts to force a partition of the property, where the courts would order that the proceeds be divided equitably. Ohio law on division of marital property is spelled out here. Getting a lawyer is really the only reasonable solution. You can't just &quot;put a block&quot; on selling stuff. If you want the tools, somebody has to collect the tools and take care of them, and they can't just break in to the house in the middle of the night to do this.
The attorney's responsibility is framed in terms of the interest of the client, which is not always money. If the trust has some social agenda, that rather than the dollar amount would be the attorney's responsibility. I would want my property to not be subdivided into smaller lots, and I would communicate that interest to my attorney, but that's just me. Since we don't know all of the facts (about you and the trust), all we can say is that &quot;interest&quot; and &quot;duty&quot; are not always about dollar amounts.
Wills typically handle this by specifying a survivorship period. Such a clause may say, in effect, "I leave all my assets to my spouse, provided they survive me by at least 30 days, and otherwise to beneficiaries X,Y,Z." That way, if your spouse dies shortly after you, your assets go to X,Y,Z, rather than going to your spouse and then to their beneficiaries. Another issue this avoids: suppose you are in an accident together, and by the time rescuers arrive, you are both dead. Without a survivorship period requirement, courts might have to try to determine whether one of you survived a few seconds longer than the other, in order to decide whose beneficiaries get the assets. That could be difficult and error-prone, not to mention gruesome and upsetting to loved ones. But with such a requirement, it's not necessary. The linked article notes that in many jurisdictions, if you don't specify a survivorship period, there may be a statutory period that applies automatically.
Powers of Attorney die with the principal Once the subject dies, they are null and void. For a person who dies intestate, the next of kin can apply to the court for an Administrator (not an Executor) to be appointed. This may be a person all the beneficiaries agree on or it may be a government public trustee.
There are several forms of notarized documents, the most common of which are affidavits (which are written statements of a person made and signed under oath) and acknowledgements (which is a notarized statement that a document was signed before a notary, usually used for documents related to real property). There would be no legitimate reason I can think of to notarize an offer letter, and the fact that you want to do that probably means that you are confused about some other aspect of the law that would make you think that you would want to or need to do something like that. A more common thing to do, for example, in anticipation of a lawsuit, would be to prepare and execute an affidavit which states that the letter, attached as an exhibit, was signed by you, and anyone else that you have personal knowledge signed it, for your signature before a notary. A notary is not allowed to execute an affidavit (or a very similar document called a verification which is a very short document saying that the facts stated in a single document asserting a claim in a court case are true and correct in a form substantially similar to an affidavit) if it is signed outside the notary's physical presence (in theory because the notary administers an oath before you sign it). An acknowledgement can be executed by a notary if the person who signed the document comes before the notary in person and acknowledges that it was signed by him or her, even if the notary was not there when it was actually signed. The notary would state the date that you acknowledged it in person to the notary in the acknowledgement and would not make any statement regarding when it was actually signed. There is special formalized legal language that must accompany each kind of notarization, which is called the "jurat". Then the notary signs and dates the jurat in the appropriate place and applies a notary seal near the jurat in the indicated location (if any) mark "L.S." for "location of seal" in latin.