If I recall these two sentences by Derrida, it is not at all because they sum up the manner in which he has falsified the Cartesian text (to the point of being almost in contradiction with himself in his commentary), but because they allow a question to be asked: how could a philosopher as attentive as Derrida, as preoccupied with the rigour of texts, have been able to read this Descartes passage in a manner so vague, so distant, so unsuited to its overall disposition, its concatenations and its symmetries, and to all that is said there?