So here we have a local bill that is not about representation. It's about enacting voting rights, but it's actually bypassing the democratic rule of being elected to come in to cast that vote on behalf of people, and then there was no consultation. I come back to my original point: why was it not introduced as a Government bill, and what precedent is this going to set? I think it's actually a very confused precedent for the rest of the country, and it actually says that. 