So we look at it and say, OK, well, if someone bought a house for the average price three years ago, they would have experienced a $250,000 capital gain in the meantime, and they'll be subject to the brightline test. So you work it all through—and let's assume they can't deduct any expenses for sales or anything else that might go on—they would pay the 33 percent on the $250,000 and be left with $170,000 in their pocket. That equates to somewhere between $56,000 and $57,000 a year, which is not a bad sort of return. So the question is: will this make any difference? My suggestion is of course it won't, because as long as there is constraint in supply, there will always be upward price pressure.