I understand that, as introduced, the bill had a concept of express consent and that this was an area that the committee spent quite a lot of time on, and it's very obvious to me that the committee was very thoughtful in the consideration of this bill and this was one of those points. My understanding is that they've decided to move away from that because the concept of express consent doesn't exist in our law at the moment. Therefore, we don't have case law interpreting that, and that could potentially undermine or be in conflict with existing case law relating to consent. 