${x_{n}}$ is a sequence in $\mathbb{R}$ where $n\geq 1$ such that all $x_{n} &gt;0$. If  $(\limsup_{n\to\infty} x_{n})\cdot(\limsup_{n\to\infty} 1/x_{n})=1$, how can I show that ${x_n}$ converges? I am thinking about using the contrapositive  of the statement but I'm not sure if that's the best way. Thank you.
Let $a_n$ be a sequence such that $\forall n\in \mathbb n: 0&lt;a\le a_n\le b &lt;\infty.$      Prove:          $\displaystyle\limsup_{n\to\infty}\frac 1 {a_n}=\frac 1 {\displaystyle\liminf_{n\to\infty}a_n}$   $\displaystyle\limsup_{n\to\infty}a_n\cdot \limsup_{n\to\infty}\frac 1 {a_n} \ge 1$ and there's an equality iff $a_n$ is converging.       Suppose there are two subsequences: $a_{n_l}, \ a_{n_k}$ such that $\lim a_{n_k} = k, \ \lim a_{n_l}=l$ and suppose $l\le k$, so $\lim \frac 1 {a_{n_k}}=\frac 1 k , \ \lim \frac 1 {a_{n_l}}=\frac 1 l$ so clearly: $\frac 1 k\le \frac 1 l\le l\le k$ so it's easy to see once the largest limit (supermum) is 'inverted' it has to become the smallest limit (infimum).   I realize this doesn't show equality, I don't know how to do the other way and I'm not even sure if what I did is good. If $a_n$ converges, suppose to $L$ as its limit then we have: $L\cdot \frac 1 L=1$.  If it does not converge then $a_n$ may tend to infinity or won't have a limit. From 1 we can change it to $\displaystyle\limsup_{n\to\infty}a_n\cdot \frac 1 {\displaystyle\liminf_{n\to\infty}a_n} \ge 1$ and from BW, every sequence has a converging subsequence, and since for converging subsequences: $\liminf a_n\le \limsup a_n$ we have $\frac {\limsup a_n} {\liminf a_n}=\limsup a_n\cdot \limsup\frac 1 {a_n} \ge 1$.   This should probably be in absolute value since one of those subsequnce limits can be negative, but it isn't in absolute value in the question.
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Show that $u:U\to\mathbb{R}$ given by  $$u(x)=\ln\left(\ln\left(1+\frac{1}{|x|}\right)\right)$$ is in $W^{1,n}(U).$  My attempt at the proof is as follows:  To show that $u\in W^{1,n}(U)$ it suffices to show that $|Du|\in L^{n}(U)$. Consider $$u_{x_i}=\frac{1}{\ln\left(1+\frac{1}{|x|}\right)}\frac{1}{1+\frac{1}{|x|}}|x|^{-2}\frac{x_i}{|x|},$$ which simplifies to, $$u_{x_i}=\frac{1}{\ln\left(1+\frac{1}{|x|}\right)}\frac{1}{1+\frac{1}{|x|}}\frac{x_i}{|x|^3}.$$ Thus, $$|Du|=\frac{1}{\ln\left(1+\frac{1}{|x|}\right)}\frac{1}{1+\frac{1}{|x|}}\frac{1}{|x|^2}$$ which can be manipulated to, $$|Du|=\frac{1}{\ln\left(1+\frac{1}{|x|}\right)}\frac{1}{1+|x|}\frac{1}{|x|}.$$  Moreover, since $U=B(0,1)$ we can bound the second term from above which gives, $$|Du|\leq\frac{1}{\ln\left(1+\frac{1}{|x|}\right)}\frac{1}{|x|}$$  Thus, we can instead show that $$\int_U\left(\frac{1}{\ln\left(1+\frac{1}{|x|}\right)}\frac{1}{|x|}\right)^n&lt;\infty.$$  Converting this into polar coordinates we have with $r=|x|$, $$\int_0^R\int_{\partial B(0,r)}\left(\frac{1}{\ln\left(1+\frac{1}{r}\right)}\frac{1}{r}\right)^n\,dSdr=\int_0^R\left(\frac{1}{\ln\left(1+\frac{1}{r}\right)}\frac{1}{r}\right)^n\int_{\partial B(0,r)}dSdr$$ Note that $\int_{\partial B(0,r)}\,dS=n\alpha(n)r^{n-1}$, which is the surface area of $B(0,r)$. 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