How do I reply to comments of users whose name contains characters not normally found in English?  For example:   Upside down letters Symbols not present in keyboard Maybe name in a different language etc...   I mean I have to type their name to reply, how do I do it?  Edit:  Is there a way other than copy and paste to do this?
Once in a while you wish to address a comment to someone in particular, so you type @ and then you pause ... because the username is  or .  Short of using copy-paste to get their username right (which is even more cumbersome on a mobile device), is there another way around this? In a few cases I've noticed that the system will attempt to "promote" a comment to a reply, but I'm not sure if that's very reliable.  Should user names at least start with a normal letter?  Update  The auto-complete feature seems to normalize Zalgo'ish usernames, so typing the letter L will trigger the suggestions as expected; this is of course knowing that the name actually spells "lawrence", which may not always be obvious.  Knowing the way of the symbol ninja would surely help to type Ω using only the elbows as well, but not everyone is blessed with the same keyboard layout.  Suggestion  It would be nice to have a reply feature like this:        When ↳ reply is clicked, it will automatically populate the comment box with @username pre-filled in.   Additional notes  To clarify, I'm not suggesting to put the "reply" on all comments, as proposed , because in most cases the owner of a post is already notified of a new comment; this would strictly be to effect cross-commenter communication.
It's my understanding that "easily" is the regular adverb for "easy", e.g. "He makes friends easily".  But in some collocations one still uses "easy", e.g. "Take it easy", "Rest easy" or "Slow down easy". Is there any rule when "easy" would be used over "easily", or does one just have to know these collocations? Why are POSIX Find Parameters Different from Other Program styles? Why is a parameter in the POSIX find command added with a single hyphen for multi-character parameter names, while most other programs use single hyphen to indicate multiple single-character flags, and double-hyphens to indicate single parameter names with multiple characters?  This seems inconsistent, and I'm curious as to  A. why it's really not inconsistent, or  B. the history of that decision. Restoring Windows XP PATH variable I installed an application that screwed my PATH variable. Now I cannot run anything from the command prompt. Is there any way I can restore PATH variable? Zlib-compatible compression streams? If I want to solve the equation $4x = e^x$, is there a way to solve for $x$ without graphing and looking for intersection? Cantor's diagonal argument can be used to show that a set $S$ is always smaller than its power set $\wp(S)$.  The proof works by showing that no function $f : S \rightarrow \wp(S)$ can be surjective by constructing the explicit set $D = \{ x \in S | x \notin f(s) \}$ from a function $f$ and showing that no element of $S$ maps to $D$.  This proof works because all bijections are surjections, so if no surjection from $S$ to $\wp(S)$ exists, then there cannot be a bijection between $S$ and $\wp(S)$.  My question is whether it is possible to run a "reverse diagonalization" that works by instead showing that there is no injection from $\wp(S)$ to $S$.  I am curious about this because I have never seen Cantor's theorem proved this way (or, more generally, any diagonal argument structured like this).  Is it possible to take Cantor's diagonal argument and "reverse" it to show that there cannot be an injection from $\wp(S)$ to $S$, rather than showing that there can be no surjection from $S$ to $\wp(S)$?  Thanks! Why does water take a "wet" path? Allow me to explain what I mean... ((I am asking this question in the physics section in hopes of finding a "physics" argument))  I shall make it clear what I mean by demonstrating an experiment...  Hold your hand upright with your index finger pointing up towards the sky. Now drop about 2-3 drops of water right on top of your finger. Water drop should (theoretically) stay there. Now tilt your hand ever so slightly towards one side. The water drop rolls down your finger down your wrist leaving a trail towards the tilted side right?  Now's here comes my question. Now if you bring your finger and the hand to the initial upright state and place another water drop on the same finger. Now we see that the water drop takes the same trail! Why does it happen?  My argument: The water trail which was previously left off reduced the friction in that path by filling the gaps between the molecules. Hence the new drop tends to slide more on that path and hence ends up travelling in it.  ((This "effect" is also observed when tear drops keep rolling down in the same path. But that could just be because that path is the steepest.)) Suppose a book consists of three sections:     The book is/was divided into three sections.   I am thinking the past tense option "was" should be used, because the act of dividing the book into three sections happened at the time of writing. Is my analysis good? variable-sized "such that" pipe How to format numbers as currency strings In  (ignoring Hawking radiation), why is a  black? Why nothing, not even light, can escape from inside a black hole? To make the question simpler, say, why is a  black hole black? Is it possible in Ruby to get a reference to methods of an object ( I would like to know if this can be done without procs/lambdas ) , for example , consider the following code :   class X   def initialize     @map = {}     setup_map   end    private   def setup_map     # @map["a"] = get reference to a method     # @map["b"] = get reference to b method     # @map["c"] = get referebce to c method   end    public   def call(a)     @map["a"](a) if a > 10     @map["b"](a) if a > 20     @map["c"](a) if a > 30   end    def a(arg)      puts "a was called with #{arg}"   end    def b(arg)      puts "b was called with #{arg}"   end    def c(arg)     puts "c was called with #{arg}"   end end   Is it possible to do such thing ? I would like to avoid procs/lambdas because I want to be able to change the behaviour of A,B,C by subclassing . Coordinating conjunction immediately followed by parenthetical — Is a comma needed or not? states:     If a dependent clause, or an introductory phrase requiring to be set off by a comma, precedes the second independent clause, no comma is needed after the conjunction.   Strunk's example illustrates the point:     The situation is perilous, but if we are prepared to act promptly, there is still one chance of escape.   However, I would be tempted to put a comma after the "but," like this:     The situation is perilous, but, if we are prepared to act promptly, there is still one chance of escape.   So, I know you're thinking, "Well, Strunk's Rules of Usage says that you're wrong. No comma."   But is Rules of Usage really the best source? I'd like to see this rule in a more contemporary and authoritative source, like the Chicago Manual of Style.  There are many instances —  — where the comma is included before a parenthetical comment that comes after a coordinating conjunction.  Any authoritative source on the issue? Starting services in batch file on windows 7 Raster calculator reclass 0 as 0 QGIS I want to process a raster with values 0-16. I want to set all values between 1 and 15 as 1, a value of 16 as 0 and cells with a value of 0 as 0.   How do I maintain a cell value of 0?  I have tried the following:  ("raster_name@1" !=0 AND "raster_name@1" &lt;= 15*1)+("raster_name@1" = 16*0)   Results in: Values of 16 as 0, values 1-15 as 1, values 0 also = 1  I also tried:  ("raster_name@1" !=0 AND "raster_name@1" &lt;= 15*1)+("raster_name@1" 16*0)+("raster_name@1" = 0*0)   Results in: Values of 16 as 0, values 1-15 as 1, values 0 = 2  Please, can you explain how to retain cells with a 0 value as 0? I'm stuck on a question which asks to prove that any continuous integer-valued function of a real variable is constant. In my lecture notes we are told that a map is continuous if the preimage of any open set is open.  How do I use this to answer the question? A full answer would be greatly appreciated as I can't seem to figure out how to solve it in my  notes, in analysis books or anywhere online. For which Natural $n\ge2: \phi(n)=n/2$ For linear regression, we can check the diagnostic plots (residuals plots, Normal QQ plots, etc) to check if the assumptions of linear regression are violated.  For logistic regression, I am having trouble finding resources that explain how to diagnose the logistic regression model fit. Digging up some course notes for GLM, it simply states that checking the residuals is not helpful for performing diagnosis for a logistic regression fit.  Looking around the internet, there also seems to be various "diagnosis" procedures, such as checking the model deviance and performing chi-squared tests, but other sources state that this is inappropriate, and that you should perform a Hosmer-Lemeshow goodness of fit test. Then I find other sources that state that this test may be highly dependent on the actual groupings and cut-off values (may not be reliable).  So how should one diagnose the logistic regression fit? Why does a mirror split my laser beam? What goes wrong if we add a mass term for gauge bosons without the Higgs mechanism?