If I have a domain with the URL example.com/section-1/abc, should there also be a dedicated web page for example.com/section-1 from a SEO point of view?   Assume that there is no bread crumb navigation or any links to this page.
Question, is it ok for one of the pages levels to 404? (SEO-wise)  Let's say I have a sitemap like this:  example.com --/services   --/foo   --/bar --/sectors   --/my-sector   --/another-sector   --/the-sector   --/stuff --/about-example --/contact --/etc --/etc   This makes a lot of structural sense. However, from a design point of view, I think having a page to show all the sectors (example.com/sectors) is pointless since all of the sector pages can be accessed from the home page, main navigation, and in each sector page.  Would there be any SEO consequences if the /sectors page were to 404?  Note: in the sitemap 'example.com/sectors' would not be included.
How to print file content only if the first line matches a certain pattern? Php string not working in Wordpress Functions.php (trying to fetch 1st category for each blog that post appears in the sidebar) I am trying to fetch 1st category for each blog post that appears in the sidebar of any blogpost landing page. I tried multiple options to add the 2nd block code to the 1st block at the line &quot;.wp_get_post_categories ($post_id).&quot; but I could not find any solution. Please help me with that and if you need closer to the code just let me know. 1st Block $related_blog .=&quot;&lt;div class='related-blog'&gt;                             &lt;div class='row'&gt;                                 &lt;a href=&quot;.get_the_permalink().&quot;&gt;                                                                  &lt;div class='col-lg-4 col-md-4 col-xs-4 blog-image'&gt;                                         &lt;img src=&quot;.$image_related[0].&quot;&gt;                                     &lt;/div&gt;                                      &lt;div class='col-lg-8 col-md-8 col-xs-8 blog-text'&gt;                                         &lt;strong&gt;&lt;p class='related-blog-title'&gt;&quot;.get_the_title().&quot;&lt;/p&gt;&lt;/strong&gt;                                 &lt;/a&gt;                                 &lt;span class='related-blog-sidebar-content '&gt;&quot;.substr(get_the_content(),0,250).&quot;...&lt;/span&gt;                                                                  &lt;p class='related-blog-sidebar-category'&gt;                                 &quot;.wp_get_post_categories ($post_id).&quot;                                                                &lt;/p&gt;                                                                  &lt;a class='related-blog-sidebar-link' href=&quot;.get_the_permalink().&quot;&gt;Read More                                 &lt;/a&gt;                                      &lt;/div&gt;                             &lt;/div&gt;                         &lt;/div&gt;&quot;;  2nd Block &lt;?php $category = get_the_category(); ?&gt; &lt;a  href=&quot;&lt;?php echo get_category_link($category[0]-&gt;cat_ID); ?&gt; &quot;&gt; &lt;?php echo $category[0]-&gt;cat_name; ?&gt; &lt;/a&gt; "He added" vs. "Did he add" (inversion after negative adverb) Markdown does not allow for bold italic, then bold, then bold italic I am trying in one of my posts to do this:  ***how many*** **and** ***where***   Which for some reason comes out like this:    Why is that happening?  Shouldn't the middle word be bold?  Is this  for markdown or is it (as I assume) a ? I want to generate some formatted output of data retrieved from an MS-Access database and stored in a DataTable object/variable, myDataTable. However, some of the fields in myDataTable cotain dbNull data. So, the following VB.net code snippet will give errors if the value of any of the fields lastname, intials, or sID is dbNull.     dim myDataTable as DataTable    dim tmpStr as String    dim sID as Integer = 1     ...    myDataTable = myTableAdapter.GetData() ' Reads the data from MS-Access table    ...     For Each myItem As DataRow In myDataTable.Rows      tmpStr = nameItem("lastname") + " " + nameItem("initials")      If myItem("sID")=sID Then         ' Do something     End If      ' print tmpStr     Next   So, how do i get the above code to work when the fields may contain dbNull without having to check each time if the data is dbNull as in ? How can I uninstall a nvidia driver completely ? As expected, Nvidia drivers have reduced my customizations. I can't login to Unity 3D session. I can't find any content to help me to uninstall the driver and I don't know what to do as I have never uninstalled them before. Installing QGIS with ECW support on Mac? Does this sentence have too many subjunctives? Time traveler asks archaeologist for help in transporting a girl from dinosaur Earth to present day Many decades ago, I read a short story about a time traveler who asks an archaeologist for help.  He convinces the archaeologist that he can time travel by bringing him back a freshly killed dinosaur (small one.)  The time traveler needs help because when traveling back in time to the age of the dinosaurs he met a girl and wants to transport her back to the present.  However only one person can travel in time at a time so he needs the archaeologist at the other end to wait for the girl.  The archaeologist agrees to help.  Unfortunately after the traveler goes back he and the girl find themselves in the middle of a battle between aliens on Earth.  They are chased by a dinosaur and never make it back to the present.  The archaeologist meanwhile is digging for evidence that the traveler went back in time and the story or my recollection of it ends with that. Covariance of Poisson and Conditional Binomial RV's Problem Statement  Let $X$ and $Y$ be random variables such that $X \sim \text{Poisson}(\lambda)$ and $Y|X \sim \text{Binomial}(x+1,p)$. Find $\text{Cov(X,Y)}$.  Attempt at a Solution  I would like to be able to write $Y$ as $X + Z$ where $Z$ is Poisson and independent of $X$, since then by  the variance is easy to compute. To this end, write $Y|X$ as a sum of independent binomials: $ Y|X = Z_1|X + Z_2|X, $ where  $Z_1|X \sim \text{Binomial}(1,p)=\text{Bernoulli}(p)$ and $Z_2 | X \sim \text{Binomial}(x,p).$ Then $Z_2 \sim \text{Poisson}(\lambda p)$, which we can obtain by directly computing the pdf: \begin{aligned} P(Z_2 = z) &amp;= \sum_x P(Z_2=z, X=x)\\ &amp;= \sum_x P(Z_2=z\mid X=x)P(X=x) \\ &amp;= \sum_{x=y}^\infty \frac{e^{-\lambda} \lambda^x}{x!}\frac{x!}{z!(x-z)!}p^z(1-p)^{x-z} \\ &amp;= \frac{(\lambda p)^z}{z!}e^{-\lambda p} \sum_{x=z}^\infty \frac{[\lambda(1-p)]^{x-z} e^{-\lambda(1-p)}}{(x-z)!} \\ &amp;= \frac{(\lambda p)^z}{z!}e^{-\lambda p}. \end{aligned} However, I cannot get the same approach to simplify for $Z_1|X$, which instead involves the CDF of $X$. I also tried this approach on $Y|X$ directly, hoping to obtain a sum in the form of the expectation of $X$, but I can't seem to reduce it. Even if I could, I'd still need to compute $E[XY]$ for the covariance. I suspect there may be a better approach than grinding through several more sums. A financial planner treated us in a dismissive fashion and I want to say that he "gave us the back of his hand" but that phrase doesn't seem to have the meaning of dismissive. Does it or is there a similar idiom? state that "at best" is an idiom. But, what is the grammatical function of "at best" (for example, in the below sentences?)        Their response to the proposal was, at best, cool.   The government's response seems to have been at best confused and at   worst dishonest.   If he drops the course now, at best he’ll get an incomplete, and he could fail.      Thanks The value of $\lim_{n \to \infty}\int_{0}^{1}nx^ne^{x^2}dx$ Is "aren't I" correct grammar? I need to find a way of proving that the square roots of a finite set    of different primes are linearly independent over the field of    rationals.    I've tried to solve the problem using elementary algebra  and also using the theory of field extensions, without success. To  prove linear independence of two primes is easy but then my problems  arise. I would be very thankful for an answer to this question. I have a Windows Server 2012 R2 Domain.  Yesterday, a computer’s (running Windows 10 Pro) network drive stopped working.  After further investigation (gpresult /h) it appears ALL group policy objects are failing with the reason Inaccessible, Empty, or Disabled.  I have confirmed that all the GPOs still exist and are enabled on both (redundant and local) domain controllers.  Furthermore, there are 20 other machines on the same domain and LAN with absolutely no problems.  However, there is one other computer that I tested which presented with the same problem!  Does that mean the problem is with the servers?  gpresult /r reports that one client is getting GPOs from local DC1, and the other from DC2.  So it is not a problem related to a specific DC.  gpupdate /force fixed nothing (though it claimed that policies were applied).   I tried deleting the registry entries for local policies (following this guide ) and rebooting - same problem.    I found this support page from Microsoft (), but it claims it only applies to Windows 7 or earlier clients.  All my machines (both server and client) are running 64-bit versions and are fully updated.  I have rebooted all of them just to be sure. Computation of likelihood when $n$ is very large, so likelihood gets very small? Possible Duplicate:          As answered in  I want to use git diff --color=always filename | less -r to get a colored output of my git diffs. Since I use this a lot it would be nice to set up an alias for this. But how to include the filename in this command?  I tried the following without success:  alias gdiff='git diff --color=always $1 | less -r'   Typing gdiff example.php displays the content of example.php with less but ignores the diff part.  Any ideas? When Dirac found his equation for the electron $(-i\gamma^\mu\partial_\mu+m)\psi=0$ he famously discovered that it had negative energy solutions. In order to solve the problem of the stability of the ground state of the electron he invoked Pauli's exclusion principle and postulated that negative energy states well already filled by a "sea" of electrons. This allowed him to predict the positron, viewed as a hole in the sea.  This interpretation was ultimately discarded owing to its inapplicability to bosons and difficulties with explaining the invisibility of the infinite charge of the sea.  According to my understanding, the modern argument goes something like this. There is a discrete symmetry of the lagrangian called charge conjugation $\psi \rightarrow \psi^c$ which allows the negative energy solutions to be interpreted as positive energy solutions for a second mode of excitation of the electron field with opposite charge, called positrons. The decay of electrons to positrons is then suppressed by the $U(1)$ gauge symmetry of the lagrangian forcing conservation of electrical charge.  According to this interpretation What Dirac would have missed was the lagrangian formalism. Is this historically and physically correct? Python: Invalid Token