I just set up Eclipse with Salesforce, and when I try to Refresh from Server, it tells me  "unable to perform synchronize check with remote server Invalid username, password, security token; or user locked out Your project may be out of sync."  When I try to Deploy to Server, it gives me that, and then asks for my password, and then it works. But when I try to refresh from server, it just gives me that error and then doesn't ask for anything.  Is there a way to fix this?  Edit:  I asked a similar question before , that solution worked then, but it's not working anymore.   Edit: Is anyone out there? I reinstalled windows on my computer, reinstalled Force.com IDE, and I still cannot get this to work.
Eclipse is giving me this error when I try to copy an object back to the Force.com server: "unable to perform synchronize check with remote server Invalid username, password, security token; or user locked out Your project may be out of sync."  This is my first try at using Eclipse, so it may not be set up right.  Can anyone help?  Thanks!  Edit: screenshot of trying to deploy:
How do we know that $F = ma$, not $F = k \cdot ma$ It seems intuitive that $a\; \propto \frac{F}{m}$, as the greater the force that is applied on an object, the greater its acceleration will be. Inversely, the greater the mass of the object, the slower the acceleration will be.  However, when rewriting proportions as equations, you must introduce a constant of proportionality, and in this case of a direct proportion, if $a \propto \frac{F}{m}$ then when rewriting as an equation you will have $$a = k\cdot\frac{F}{m}$$  In order to get the standard formula $F = ma$ this constant must be $1$. However, how do we know that this is the case? How do we know that the constant isn't $2$ and the formula $F = \frac{1}{2}ma$, for instance? What is an example of a transformation on a posterior distribution such that the MAP estimate will be non-invariant? Suppose that we have a posterior distribution $p(\theta\mid y)$ and we wish to define a transformation on $\theta$ such that $\phi = f(\theta)$. I know that generally such transformations will not affect the MLE as it is on the data space, but will result in non-invariance on the Maximum A Posteriori (MAP) estimate as it is a function of the parameter space. I am wondering if there is an example to illustrate this? Thanks. It has come up in game a couple of times that a player might want to cast a spell that has a casting time of 1 bonus action using their "main" action (if they have another bonus action they also want to take on that turn, such as giving bardic inspiration, or controlling a Bigby's hand, etc.)  On the face of it, it seems obvious that something (a bonus action) that is usually much faster than a full action could be done as your full action.  Although the question comes up most often with respect to spellcasting, if I house rule this, I would rule that any bonus action can be taken as a regular action instead; however, I would not allow the same type of bonus action to be taken twice (so no giving bardic inspiration to two allies on the same turn, for instance).   Are there any abusive or overpowered combinations I should be wary of if I were to allow a character to take 2 bonus actions instead of one regular action and one bonus action on a turn?   The issue of casting two bonus-action spells would not come up because the rule against casting 2 spells on your turn unless one of them is a cantrip with a casting time of 1 action would still be in effect:  PHB p. 203 (under Bonus Action casting time)     You can't cast another spell during the same turn, except for a cantrip with a casting time of 1 action.   I know it's hard to prove/justify a negative answer to a question like this, but I'd be happy to get answers that say you don't think there would be any issues if you describe how you came to that conclusion. input() error - NameError: name '...' is not defined Let a be a positive number. Then $\lim_{n \to \infty}[\frac{1}{a+n}+\frac{1}{2a+n}+\cdots +\frac{1}{na+n}]$ Delete all data in Postgres database Is it possible to train a neural network without backpropagation? Many neural network books and tutorials spend a lot of time on the backpropagation algorithm, which is essentially a tool to compute the gradient.  Let's assume we are building a model with ~10K parameters / weights. Is it possible to run the optimization using some gradient free optimization algorithms?   I think computing the numerical gradient would be too slow, but how about other methods such as Nelder-Mead, Simulated Annealing or a Genetic Algorithm?  All the algorithms would suffer from local minima, why obsessed with gradient? How can I add vertices to intersection of two edges? I need to put a point at the intersection of two edges. Below is a picture with red circles around where I need points to be placed. How can I get fireworks? What are the requirements for making fireworks appear at the end of a level in the original Super Mario Bros.? I've made some high resolution pixel art in PS by drawing it down at the pixel level and then increasing the image size with the nearest neighbor setting to keep it crisp. In the web browser, however, I need to display these images as icons with a dynamic size, so I can't just size the images correctly to begin with, and the broswer seems to blur the images when rendering them smaller, while vector images seem to stay more crisp as they shrink.   So I'm wondering if there's a way to convert the pixel art neatly into vector. I'm aware of the trace function in illustrator, but it seems to do a rough job iirc. How can one prove that $\lim_{n \to \infty}a^{1/n}=1$ for every $a>0$? Prove that $\lim_{n \to \infty} a^{\frac{1}{n}} = 1$ if $a &gt;0$.  In my textbook, we are given a suggestion to let $a^{\frac{1}{n}} = (1+h_n)$ and then show that the $h_n$ term goes to zero using a Theorem that states the following conditions:  $\lim_{n \to \infty} = \infty,$ if $a &gt;1, 1,$ if $a = 1,$ and 0, if $\vert a \vert &lt; 1$. I apologize for not formatting the above cases appropriately; I could not figure out how to use a giant left brace to group them altogether.  If I rewrite it as $a^{n^{-1}}$, then I thought that this might help, but I don't think the Binomial Theorem would then apply since the exponent is negative. Furthermore, the problem is only concerned with the positive, real $n$-th roots. I am quite stuck on this problem and any suggestions or advice would be greatly appreciated.   I am using the textbook Introduction to Analysis by Arthur Mattuck. Fastest way to clamp a real (fixed/floating point) value? Is there a more efficient way to clamp real numbers than using if statements or ternary operators? I want to do this both for doubles and for a 32-bit fixpoint implementation (16.16). I'm not asking for code that can handle both cases; they will be handled in separate functions.  Obviously, I can do something like:  double clampedA; double a = calculate(); clampedA = a &gt; MY_MAX ? MY_MAX : a; clampedA = a &lt; MY_MIN ? MY_MIN : a;   or  double a = calculate(); double clampedA = a; if(clampedA &gt; MY_MAX)     clampedA = MY_MAX; else if(clampedA &lt; MY_MIN)     clampedA = MY_MIN;   The fixpoint version would use functions/macros for comparisons.  This is done in a performance-critical part of the code, so I'm looking for an as efficient way to do it as possible (which I suspect would involve bit-manipulation)   EDIT: It has to be standard/portable C, platform-specific functionality is not of any interest here. Also, MY_MIN and MY_MAX are the same type as the value I want clamped (doubles in the examples above). Explanation of terminal objects using limits I understand terminal objects, but I falter when trying to achieve them using the approach of diagrams, the category of constant diagrams $\mathcal{C}^{\mathcal{J}}$ and limits.  I have the empty category 0, now I have a diagram $D: \mathcal{J} \to \mathcal{C}$. However this diagrams image should be empty, because there are no objects or morphisms to map. At this point, I'm confused, because I can't get to the universal property $\forall c \in \mathcal{C}. \exists! f: c \to T$ anymore, because I'm missing T. (EDIT: I get that this is how it is supposed to be)  But continuing with the category of constant diagrams, even if I have a constant diagram mapping everything to one object / morphism, there is nothing to map, so the functors image is still empty. So now I'm missing both $T$, and any kind of $c$.  EDIT: It seems to me, have I chosen 1, instead of 0, I would have come up with that is considered the definition of the terminal category. What am I missing? I have a Storex eZee Tab 702 tablet. My Google Play Store was working very well until a few weeks ago, when it started saying,     Error while retrieving information from server [DF-DFERH-01]   I tried to clear the cache, clear the data, force stop, and downloading another Google Play Store, but I'm still having the same problem.  How can I fix this issue? What happens when a caster targets an object that looks like a creature with a spell that targets only creatures? There are many spells which explicitly target creatures:     Choose one creature within range   The target creature is normally supposed to make a saving throw in this case.  What happens when the caster chooses a creature, that is actually an object? For instance, a scarecrow, a mannequin, an illusion, or a corpse.  Examples:   An evil mage is hiding in the bushes. He casts an illusion of himself on the road, using the Silent Image spell. A PC sorcerer walks down the road, sees the illusion and casts Magic Missile on it. A cleric is standing near a pile of dead bodies. He has suspicions that a few corpses are actually undead creatures. He casts Sacred Flame on every corpse, see which if them succeed, hence, reveals the undead. A wizard casts Acid Splash on a mannequin, trying to damage it with acid.   Possible outcomes I can think of are:   The caster cannot even try to cast the spell, regardless of their information about what the target actually is. The caster tries to cast the spell, the casting fails, not expending the spell slot. The caster casts the spell, it expends the spell slot, then fails. The caster casts the spell, but it hits the original and not the illusion. The caster casts the spell, it flies to the target illusion but deals no damage to it (passes through it).   References in the rules and Sage advice  I was trying to investigate, but it didn't make things clearer:    has an answer, that Magic Missile won't hit. It says nothing about if it can be targeted at all, it leaves it up to the DM. Magic Missile automatically finds the original, even when the caster targets an illusion. At least . Now . This supports the counter-intuitive option 4.   on the other hand   , if there were no perceivable effects (let's say you can try to cast the Command spell on an illusion). That assumes that casters can waste their spells on illusion, which means they at least can target it. This supports options 3 and 5. What is a “protected” or "highly active" question? Chrome 100% CPU usage, again - software_reporter_tool.exe software_reporter_tool.exe belonging to Chrome running at 100% cpu, fan full speed.  Deleting it doesn't fix anything, because it gets redownloaded again! Disabling "Protect me from bla bla" doesn't make it stop running.  Please anyone have any solutions? Let $S$  be a square of unit area. Consider any quadrilateral whose $4$ vertices lie on each side square $S$. Let the length of the sides of this quadrilateral be $a,b,c,d$. Then prove that $$2 \leq a^2+b^2+c^2+d^2 \leq 4$$     This problem appeared in IIT JEE $1997$ (re-exam).I really do not know know how to approach this problem properly.I have managed to prove $a^2 + b^2 + c^2 +d^2  \leq 4$ but not the initial inequality. I have an array of Foo objects. How do I remove the second element of the array?  I need something similar to RemoveAt() but for a regular array. I have a correlation matrix of security returns whose determinant is zero. (This is a bit surprising since the sample correlation matrix and the corresponding covariance matrix should theoretically be positive definite.)  My hypothesis is that at least one security is linearly dependent on other securities. Is there a function in R that sequentially tests each column a matrix for linear dependence?  For example, one approach would be to build up a correlation matrix one security at a time and calculate the determinant at each step. When the determinant = 0 then stop as you have identified the security who is a linear combination of other securities.  Any other techniques to identify linear dependence in such a matrix are appreciated.