I have a website lets say xyz.com for which i have the sitemap index at xyz.com/sitemap.xml  Within the sitemap index file there are multiple sitemap links which are hosted on a subdomain of xyz.com lets say sitemap.xyz.com.  So the structure of sitemap index file  is as follows  &lt;sitemapindex xmlns="http://www.sitemaps.org/schemas/sitemap/0.9"&gt; &lt;sitemap&gt; &lt;loc&gt; https://sitemap.xyz.com/sitemap1.xml &lt;/loc&gt; &lt;/sitemap&gt;  &lt;sitemap&gt; &lt;loc&gt; https://sitemap.xyz.com/sitemap2.xml &lt;/loc&gt; &lt;/sitemap&gt; &lt;/sitemapindex&gt;   Also i have submitted the sitemap index file in Google search console and google correctly shows the total count of pages from all sitemaps  Is this structure recommended or will there be any issue with this architecture   PS This question is not about cross domain sitemaps
Just out of curiosity, I have developed a small app analysing and generating sitemaps for a given domain.   Can I tell search engines to look for the sitemap of a given domain on my app using a dynamic url i.e. can you use cross-domain sitemaps.xml without validating you are owner of the destination domain?  For example :   http://example.com/mydomain.com/sitemap.xml
Inequality involving the integral of vector valued function Suppose $f :[a,b]\to \mathbb{R}^n$ is given by $f(t)=\langle f_1(t), \ldots, f_n(t)\rangle$, where each of the $n$ component functions is integrable over $[a,b]$. I think the following inequality   $$\left|\int _a^b f(t) \, dt\right|\leq\int_a^b\left|f(t)\right| \, dt$$  still hold but I don't know how to prove it. Any idea?  Thanks 100 apples are/is considered as a large number of apples Can players enchant items? I know that the DM can give you enchanted items, but can players spend gold and downtime to enchant their own? I've read a number of the helpful Q&amp;As on photons that mention the mass/mass-less issue. Do I understand correctly that the idea of mass-less (a rest mass of 0) may be just a convention to make the equations work?  From a layperson's view, it's difficult to understand how a particle of light (photon) can be mass-less. A physical object (everyday world-large or quantum-small) must have a mass. Yet, if my understanding is correct, the mass of a moving object/particle increases in proportion to its speed/velocity...so that at the speed of light, its mass would be infinite. A photon travels at the speed of light, but it obviously doesn't have infinite mass, right? Can someone formulate a practical explanation that can be understood by middle-school to high school kids? Much thanks for the help.    Wow--your answers to my original Q below clear up much of my confusion. I now have the daunting task of going over these nuggets and working up an equation-less (hopefully) explanation of the mass-less photon for non-physicist types.  Yes, from a layperson's view, it does seem remarkable that an existing piece of matter-- which has to be made of physical substance--could have zero mass at rest (though a photon is never at rest). It would be almost understandable if a piece of matter made of nothing had zero mass, but that  seems to be an oxymoron, and "nothing" would equate to nonexistent, right?  In case you might find it interesting: I'm working on a writing project that posits we inhabit a universe that consists of matter (physical stuff) only, and that the NON-physical (aka supernatural) does not (and cannot) exist. For instance, if a purported supernatural phenomenon is found to actually exist, then by definition, its existence is proof that it is mundane/natural. All it would take to disprove this premise is reliable proof that ONE supernatural event has occurred. Despite thousands of such claims, that's never yet happened.  Who else better than physicists to confirm my premise? However, I do wish the TV physicists would explain the terms they throw about, some of which mislead/confuse their lay viewers. Case in point: "The universe is made up of matter and energy" (without properly defining the term "energy" as a property of matter).  The result is that laypersons are left with the impression that energy must therefore be something apart from or independent of matter (ie, nonphysical). Their use of the term "pure energy" without specifying exactly what that means adds to the confusion. (Thanks to your replies on this forum, I now understand that "pure energy" refers to photon particles.) However, "psychics" and other charlatans take advantage of such confusion by hijacking terms like energy (as in "psychic energy"), frequencies, vibrations, etc to give perceived scientific legitimacy to their claims that a supernatural spirit world, etc., exists. As you may realize, the majority of people in the US (per 2009 Harris Poll) and around the world believe in the existence of nonphysical/supernatural stuff such as ghosts and spirits.  My purpose is to give laypersons the information they need to distinguish what's real from what's not.  Thanks so much for help...And, PLEASE, add any further comments you think might be helpful/insightful to better inform laypersons. In QGIS, I have been learning a few expressions to style my trail maps but still know little and am stumped on what to use to filter my symbol data. I am showing Parking locations on my map. I use a marker symbol as a background element, so I can do callouts. I created a data field and added values to display beside this symbol a number that references a list of parking addresses in the book's text. All good except if the field has no number to display, it is NULL, it does not display my marker symbol. I need to filter this, so it does show even when there is no value in the field. How do I go about proving this?  If $\gcd(a,b)=1$ and $\gcd(a,c)=1$, then $\gcd(a,bc)=1$. I'm very confused with gcd proofs. Power Supply Capacity Formula Given that I am building a home computer from scratch and I have several components (MB, CPU, HDD, Video, Sound, etc) which have specific power requirements, is there a formula for me to calculate the size/capacity of the Power Supply I will need? I want to be able to expand the setup later on also... Will “Erase Ubuntu16.10 and reinstall” keep my Win7 installation? Finding where source has branched from git How do you challenge the closing of one of your questions? As a newcomer to StackOverflow, I recently asked my first . I wanted to start with a fairly safe general question, to get the feel for how the site worked. My question was intended to be programming-related, but my original wording was not clear enough, so another user decided to close it.  I've re-phrased my question, and had received one useful answer before the question was closed, but I'm not sure what the procedure is after your question is closed to allow people to post answers again...  I've checked the FAQ and About pages, searched the SO questions, but have had no luck. Could someone point me in the right direction as to how I get my question re-opened, or if it is possible to do at all? What is the scope of variables in JavaScript? How does one obtain a Witcher 3 Troll Mutagen from a non-quest specific troll, at least one of which you never exchange dialogue with? I have played the Witcher 3, exchanged dialogue with 5 trolls already, and decided not to kill them. All 5 trolls were involved in specific quests. I have killed two trolls of which I did not exchange dialogue. I have yet to receive a Troll Mutagen.  How does one obtain a Witcher 3 Troll Mutagen from a non-quest specific troll, at least one of which you never exchange dialogue with? Update help center on syntax highlighting to point to an actual list of options Reading the help center article on syntax highlighting, one of the paragraphs within it reads:     You can use either , like lang-cpp or lang-sql, or you can specify a tag, and the syntax highlighting language associated with this tag will be used:   Note the link in there, which goes to .  Problem is, a long time ago we removed the list of options from several questions/answers across meta Stack Exchange because it was a pain trying to keep all of them updated. It makes a lot more sense to just have one list that we keep updated, and the most logical place for that list was in the , which is where it now resides.  Can the link in the help center be updated to point directly to the list, rather than to a post that explains that the list has been moved? Python Script to Add Fields to Feature Classes I have to try to add a field called 'Name' to a bunch of different feature classes using python, and then access the name of the feature class to fill in the field. I have no idea how to even start this! I know I need a loop but that's all I know. Adding Basemaps from Google or Bing in QGIS How To Reduce Noise In Cycles Render So this is my first try with cycles and I was wondering what can I do to make the image clearer? What's the difference between the server version and the desktop version? While reviewing "First Posts" on Stack Overflow, I often come across new users posting comments as answers. It seems (at least to me) they are not doing this because they are unaware of how Stack Overflow works but because they can't comment on any question they are forced to put it as answer.  I have found duplicate questions for my request like:   ,  and    but the best explanation I have found is an  to .     I think the main reason this isn't supported is there's no way to   downvote comments, which would make them attractive to spammers. If   somebody comments on the top answer in a question the only way to get   rid of it is for six people to flag it. Comment flags don't show up on   10k tools, so it needs to be six people that happen to stumble across   the spam comment, or a moderator that checks the list manually. People   can comment every 15 seconds, so that can get out of hand pretty   quickly. Comments also aren't listed on the user's profile page, so   it's hard to see at a glance if a user has been spamming   So I am suggesting allowing new users (with less than 50 reputation points) to comment only 5 times every day or only 25 times times until they reach 50 reputation points or any other variation of it. Why there are real numbers with infinite digits, but no such natural numbers (or another reason why real numbers are uncountable) This question is me trying to understand (again) why there can be no one-to-one correspondence between the sets of natural and real numbers.  The source of confusion is this: if we abstract completely from the properties and operations on numbers and just think of them as strings of digits, it appears to be possible to list all the real numbers between $0$ and $1$ and all positive integers having the same digits in the same (or reverse) order, for example:  $$0.1 \to 1$$  $$0.01 \to 10$$  $$0.0101 \to 1010$$  $$0.110101 \to 101011$$  I use binary expansion for simplicity.  Since irrational numbers have infinite expansions, we would have to consider some kind of 'infinite natural numbers', like:  $$101110001\dots$$  or  $$\dots101110001$$  I think the main (and only) reason why such numbers don't exist is this requirement:   We need the sets of real and natural numbers to be ordered. We need to be able to do arithmetics on real and natural numbers.   Obviously, if we consider any of two types of 'infinite natural numbers' and the usual absolute value, we find that it's impossible to order them, or do arithmetics with them.  The only way is to change the norm (to $p-$adic norm for example).  While with the real numbers it's still possible to order them, and do arithmetics with them when they have infinite amount of digits in their expansion (or at least in principle).     Is my reasoning correct? Are the two requirements (ordering and arithmetics) enough to explain why natural numbers with infinite amount of digits do not exist, while real numbers do?   This confusion is not restricted to me alone, see  for example How to get the location of a program in Ubuntu? For example I have Oracle, how to get the folder racine (location) of Oracle?