I am Eritrean traveling from Sudan to Italy. I have got a Schengen  visa to Italy, my question is, can I transit through UK without any other additional visa, mean with that Italian schengen visa only.
I am travelling to Budapest and therefore have a Schengen Visa. I hold an Indian passport and a valid US visa. I'm travelling from Chicago-Heathrow-Budapest and returning by Budapest-Dublin-Chicago.  Would I need a transit visa for UK/Ireland?  UPDATE  Hoping this will help someone someday.   I was not allowed to board my return flight (BUD-DUB-ORD) because I do not hold an overnight Irish Transit Visa. They said I could have transited happily if the connecting flight was in the same day, but because I would have to originally land at 10 PM and catch the connecting flight next morning at 10 AM, I needed a transit visa. Well, I thought it was BS, but couldn't help comply with the rules. I booked another last minute ticket and flew via Warsaw via LOT.
How to show $(a^b)^c=a^{bc}$ for arbitrary cardinal numbers? One of the basic (and frequently used) properties of cardinal exponentiation is that $(a^b)^c=a^{bc}$.  What is the proof of this fact?  As Arturo pointed out in his comment, in computer science this is called . Is there a proof from the first principle that for the Lagrangian $L$,    $$L = T\text{(kinetic energy)} - V\text{(potential energy)}$$  in classical mechanics? Assume that Cartesian coordinates are used. Among the combinations, $L = T - nV$, only $n=1$ works. Is there a fundamental reason for it?  On the other hand, the variational principle used in deriving the equations of motion, Euler-Lagrange equation, is general enough (can be used to to find the optimum of any parametrized integral) and does not specify the form of Lagrangian. I appreciate for anyone who gives the  answer, and if possible, the primary source (who published the answer first in the literature).      Notes added on Sept 22: - Both answers are correct as far as I can find. Both answerers were not sure about what I meant by the term I used: 'first principle'. I like to elaborate what I was thinking, not meant to be condescending or anything near to that. Please have a little understanding if the words I use are not well-thought of. - We do science by collecting facts, forming empirical laws, building a theory which generalizes the laws, then we go back to the lab and find if the generalization part can stand up to the verification. Newton's laws are close to the end of empirical laws, meaning that they are easily verified in the lab. These laws are not limited to gravity, but are used mostly under the condition of gravity. When we generalize and express them in Lagrangian or Hamiltonian, they can be used where Newton's laws cannot, for example, on electromagnetism, or any other forces unknown to us. Lagrangian or Hamiltonian and the derived equations of motion are generalizations and more on the theory side, relatively speaking; at least those are a little more theoretical than Newton's laws. We still go to lab to verify these generalizations, but it's somewhat harder to do so, like we have to use Large Hadron Collider. - But here is a new problem, as @Jerry Schirmer pointed out in his comment and I agreed. Lagrangian is great tool if we know its expression. If we don't, then we are at lost. Lagrangian is almost as useless as Newton's laws for a new mysterious force. It's almost as useless but not quite, because we can try and error. We have much better luck to try and error on Lagrangian than on equations of motion. - Oh, variational principle is a 'first principle' in my mind and is used to derive Euler-Lagrange equation. But variational principle does not give a clue about the explicit expression of Lagrangian. This is the point I'm driving at. 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