I would test this but I have no tools to test it with.    If I have a beaker of water and weigh it on a measure.  Then I stick my fingers in the water (it doesn't over flow) does the weight change or does it pretty much stay the same (excluding fluctuations)  If I were to cut off my fingers then, and let them sink and hit the bottom would the weight change?  If I dropped something in that floated would the weight change?    Lastly, if I were to measure the water in a room filled with air. With a cieling 1 mile tall (atmospheric pressure = 1) and then measure the same water beaker in a room filled with air with a cieling 1 foot tall (atmospheric pressure = 1) would the measured weight change? Not the weight of the water but the weight of anything effecting the scale, including the air in the room, if that pushes down on the scale like I assume it does, I may be wrong
I found the problem described in the attached picture on the internet. In the comment sections there were two opposing solutions. So it made me wonder which of those would be the actual solution.  So basically the question would be the following. Assume we would have two identical beakers, filled with the same amount of the same liquid, lets say water. In the left beaker a ping pong ball would be attached to the bottom of the beaker with a string and above the right beaker a steel ball of the same size (volume) as the ping pong ball would be hung by a string, submerging the steel ball in the water as shown in the picture. If both beakers would be put on to a scale, what side would tip?  According to the internet either of the following answers was believed to be the solution.   The left side would tip down, because the ping pong ball and the cord add mass to the left side, since they are actually connected to the system. The right side would tip down, because of buoyancy of the water on the steel ball pushing the steel ball up and the scale down.   Now what would the solution be according to physics?
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I've been working on some animations recently, and I've noticed that I'm having poor luck with certain things, namely the fact that I don't really use Blender's graph editor very well.  One of the major issues that I have is pretty widespread among 3D graphics programs; when I create an animated object, it defaults to using a curved graph instead of a linear graph, which means that the most movement is at the middle of the animation, and stuff just practically stops near the beginning or the end. While this helps with organic camera movements or such, it's also not what I usually want. Can I set animation curves to default to linear? Proving the measure of an increasing sequence of measurable sets is the limit of the measures Show that if $A_1\subseteq A_2\subseteq A_3\subseteq\cdots$ is an increasing sequence of measurable sets (so $A_j\subseteq A_{j+1}$ for every positive integer $j$), then we have $$m\left(\bigcup_{j=1}^\infty A_j\right)=\lim_{j\to\infty}m(A_j)$$  Here is my proof: According to the $\sigma$-algebra property, $\bigcup_{j=1}^{\infty}A_j$ is a measurable set, so it makes sense to talk about $m(\bigcup_{j=1}^{\infty}A_j)$. Firstly, I prove that $\lim_{j\to\infty}m(A_j)\leq m(\bigcup_{j=1}^{\infty}A_j)$. This is because for any given positive integer $N$, $A_N\subseteq \bigcup_{j=1}^{\infty}A_i$, according to monotonicity, we have $m(A_N)\leq m(\bigcup_{j=1}^{\infty}A_i)$. Take the limit,we will have $\lim_{j\to\infty}m(A_j)\leq m(\bigcup_{j=1}^{\infty}A_j)$. Secondly, I prove that $m(\bigcup_{j=1}^{\infty}A_j)\leq \lim_{j\to\infty}m(A_j)$. For any given positive integer $N$, $\bigcup_{j=1}^N A_j = A_N$. According to monotonicity,we have $m\left(\bigcup_{j=1}^N A_j\right)=m(A_N)\leq \lim_{j\to\infty}m(A_j)$. Take the limit, we will have $m\left(\bigcup_{j=1}^\infty A_j\right) \leq \lim_{j\to\infty} m(A_j)$. Combine the above two arguments, we will see that $$m\left(\bigcup_{j=1}^\infty A_j\right)=\lim_{j\to\infty} m(A_j)$$$\Box$  The above is my proof, unlike many books, my proof does not use the property of countable additivity. So I doubt my proof is correct. Who can point out where are my mistakes? I am making a fudge recipe that calls for 1cup whole milk and 5 cups sugar. It also uses 2 sticks of butter and 25 marshmallows. I'm wondering if I can omit the milk and cut back on the sugar by using sweetened condensed milk.