Recently I started learning Apex programming.  I was trying to get some examples, but I could not find enough to practice my code.  Please provide me links or exercises so that I could practice concepts like class, objects, soql, dml etc.
I am new to salesforce. I dont have coding background. Please let me know bst way to learn apex coding?
Is it acceptable to change the vid column of a term programmatically in the database? Non-na­tive speak­ers of­ten get con­fused about what the var­i­ous tens­es  and as­pects mean in English. With in­put from some of the folk here I've put to­geth­er a di­a­gram that I hope will pro­vide some clar­i­ty on the mat­ter.  I of­fer it as the first an­swer to this ques­tion. Con­sid­er it a liv­ing doc­u­ment. In­put is wel­come, and good sug­ges­tions will be  in­cor­po­rat­ed in­to the di­a­gram.    No­ta bene: What this is not is a dis­cus­sion of whether there are  more than two tens­es in English. , to which this ques­tion is not in­tend­ed to sup­ply ar­gu­ments one way or the oth­er.  Here, the aim is to pro­vide an overview of what con­struc­tions English-speak­ing peo­ple use for con­vey­ing in­for­ma­tion about ac­tions re­fer­ring to past, present, and fu­ture, and to pro­vide it first and fore­most to pre­cise­ly the peo­ple who are like­ly to use "tense" as a catch-all term in their search, rather than to lin­guists who know bet­ter.  Break­ing News There is now an ex­cel­lent ELU blog ar­ti­cle ti­tled  . It is high­ly rec­om­mend­ed read­ing. I am looking for a simple way to get a mime type where the file extension is incorrect or not given, something similar to  only in .Net. What is the true origin of the orcs? There are a bunch of theories about the true origin of the orcs. Tolkien tried out a few different origins for his Orcs throughout his life but died before he could fully revise The Silmarillion with his final view on their origins and nature.   There is a list of origins proposed by Tolkien():   Made of stone and slime through the sorcery of Morgoth; East Elves, where The Silmarillion contains a suggestion that Orcs are descended from East Elves captured by Melkor, their minds and bodies distorted and corrupted. Sentient beasts, another of Tolkien's theories proposes that Orcs may have begun as soulless animals of vaguely humanoid shapes, empowered by the will of the Dark Lord (Morgoth) and learning language only as parrots do. Fallen Maiar, there are hints in the History of Middle-earth series of books, (especially in Morgoth's Ring in the section "Myths Transformed"), that some Orc leaders, such as the First Age's Boldog, or the Great Goblin encountered by Bilbo and the Dwarves, may in fact have been fallen Maiar which had taken Orc form. Corrupted Men, while Tolkien at some point saw all Orcs as descended from the original corrupted and tortured Elves, later comments of his indicate, according to Christopher Tolkien in Morgoth's Ring "Myths Transformed" text X, that he began to feel uncomfortable with this theory. At about the same time he removed the references to the Thrall-Ñoldorin, he also began searching for a new origin for the Orcs. It seems Tolkien wanted to change the origin of the Orcs to make them corrupted and twisted Humans.  A mix of corrupted Elves and Men, A late idea of Tolkien seems to be that Orcs (or Orks, showing the late spelling change) had a mixed origin of Elves and Men. Some cross-bred with Men, Tolkien also suggested that Men were cross-bred with Orcs under Morgoth's lieutenant, Sauron (and possibly under Morgoth himself). The process was later repeated during the War of the Ring by Saruman. This possibly refers to the way the Uruk-hai and the Half-Orcs were created, in The Lord of the Rings.   Of all these theories, which is the most accepted, and which did Tolkien agree with the most? I always thought that orcs were made of East Elves, as explained in The Lord of The Rings, but the story goes beyond this, there are the stories in many other books that explain different things.  What can you tell me about this? Infinite coproduct of abelian groups One can see on every text (book, lesson, comments) that a direct sum/coproduct of abelian groups is the same as a finite product but in the infinite case, the direct sum/coproduct is only a subgroup of the product.  Why does an element in an infinite direct sum only have finitely many components different from the neutral elements?  I don't see where the "finite" comes from when I look at the universal property.  Also, in another situation, a condition of "finiteness" appears and I think that is because of the same structure: a freely generated group, vectors space, algebra etc... has elements that are finite product/sum of generating elements. Because, if one really wants an infinite "sum" (or sequence) one may just take a formal serie. That is a ring, hence also an abelian group. blink code(escape code) has been removed? Logistic regression with binary dependent and independent variables How to check if $\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac 1{n!}$ is converging or diverging by direct comparison test? $$\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac 1{n!}$$   I think we may compare it with $\frac{1}{n^n}$, and say that $\frac{1}{n!}&gt;\frac{1}{n^n}$. But I am not sure of the convergence or divergence of $\frac{1}{n^n}$ itself, so this turns out to be useless.  What other way is there? I'm attempting to install Ubuntu 14.04.1 (the only version I have handy) onto my old Compaq Presario R3000 (this Ubuntu was recommended for this computer). The installation has stalled at about 60% and hasn't moved in an hour.  The message at the bottom says: Configuring bcmwl-kernal-source (i386).  I have no experience with Ubuntu (or with Linux, for that matter), coming from a strictly-Windows background). Can anyone offer some advice? I'm trying to prove that the rationals are not the countable intersection of open sets, but I still can't understand why   $$\bigcap_{n \in \mathbf{N}} \left\{\left(q - \frac 1n, q + \frac 1n\right) : q \in \mathbf{Q}\right\}$$   isn't a counter-example. Any ideas? Thanks! The below statement is a true/false exercise.  Statement: For all square matrices A and B of the same size, it is true that $(A + B)2 = A^2 + 2AB + B^2$.  My thought process: Since it is not a proof, I figure I can show by example and come to a valid conclusion based on such example.  My work:  Come up with a square matrix A and B let both be a 2 by 2 matrix(rows and cols must be same).  Matrix $A$:  $A = \begin{array}{ccc} 3 &amp; 5 \\ 4 &amp; 6 \\ \end{array} $  Matrix $B$:  $B =  \begin{array}{ccc} 5 &amp; 8 \\ 9 &amp; 4 \\ \end{array} $  $A + B =  \begin{array}{ccc} 8 &amp; 13 \\ 13 &amp; 10 \\ \end{array}$  $(A + B)^2 =  \begin{array}{ccc} 233 &amp; 234 \\ 234 &amp; 264 \\ \end{array}$  $A^2 =  \begin{array}{ccc} 29 &amp; 45 \\ 36 &amp; 56 \\ \end{array}$  $(AB) =  \begin{array}{ccc} 60 &amp; 44 \\ 74 &amp; 56 \\ \end{array}$  $2(AB) =  \begin{array}{ccc} 120 &amp; 88 \\ 234 &amp; 112 \\ \end{array}$  $B^2 =  \begin{array}{ccc} 97 &amp; 72 \\ 81 &amp; 88 \\ \end{array}$  $A^2 + 2AB + B^2 =  \begin{array}{ccc} 246 &amp; 205 \\ 265 &amp; 256 \\ \end{array}$  Based my above work, the answer is false.   Is there another way to approach the problem? It seems like a lot of work needed to be done for a true/false question which raised my suspicion about whether there is a better way to look at the problem. Do you capitalize both parts of a hyphenated word in a title? Do you capitalize both parts of a hyphenated word in a title?  "My Ex-Wife Hates Me"  or  "My Ex-wife Hates Me" How to tell a wlan card supports RFMON mode Can someone please tell me how to check if a wlan card supports promiscuous mode I'm writing a script and I would like to pass the results from bc into a variable. I've declared 2 variables (var1 and var2) and have given them values.  In my script I want to pass the results from bc into another variable say var3 so that I can work with var3 for other calculations.  So far I have been able write the result to a file which is not what I'm looking for and also I've been able to echo the result in the terminal but I just want to pass the result to a variable at moment so that I can work with that variable.  echo "scale=2;$var1/var2" | bc Why can't we see the selected reasons when there are pending close votes for a question? When users vote to close a question, the original poster can't see the selected reason why until after the question is already closed.  If they could see this information, they might be able to edit the question to make it more acceptable and averting the need to close it.  For example, the owner of this  cannot see the reason why his question is being voted to close: Why does old PMOS/NMOS logic needed multiple voltages like  +5, -5, and +12 volts? For example, old Intel 8080 processors, old DRAMs, e.t.c...  I'm interested in the causes on the physical/layout level.  What was the purpose of these additional voltages?  Yes, this question is about stuff which was used 35 years ago. Why is "can I get" replacing "could I have"? I noticed the other day when serving the public that when asking for something, people were saying "Can I get an xyz, please". The previous time I had such a job it was "Could I have an xyz", or "May I have..." if they were being very polite.  Does anyone know when this trend started and what caused it? Did Luke attempt to retake the Jedi Temple on Coruscant? After the New Republic gains control of Coruscant through the Galactic Concordance, did Luke Skywalker attempt to reclaim (or even visit) the former and still very much intact Jedi Temple, now converted to be the deceased Emperor's palace?   If Luke is so insistent on saving a tree just because it belongs to the Jedi and the Empire stole it, then shouldn't reclaiming the Jedi Temple be even higher priority?  If he did, is he aware of the Sith shrine beneath it? Which is something even Yoda does not know. And if he didn't, why didn't he? Many people (at least in Germany) think that Italians add olive oil to the boiling water for spaghetti. However, Italians tend to tell the opposite (from my experience).  So, can you please state objective reasons for or against adding olive oil to the boiling water for spaghetti? vertical alignment of text in tikz node The output from the following script \documentclass{article} \usepackage{tikz} \usepackage{graphicx} \begin{document} \begin{tikzpicture}   \node(title)[text width = 0.25\textwidth, text height = 3 cm, draw]{title};   \end{tikzpicture} \end{document}  is  How can I vertically align the text in the node? Specifying the text depth as in \node(title)[text width = 0.25\textwidth, text height = 1cm, text depth = 1 cm, draw]{     title line 1\\     title line 2\\     title line 3};  Does not result in the text being vertically centred.