I've done the base step, but how do I prove it is true for $n+1$ without using a fallacy? $$4(n!)&gt;2^{n+2}\quad \text{for } n\geq 4$$ Please help.
I just want to know if my proof to this question is correct. First, I proved it was true for $n = 4$. $$4!&gt;2^4$$ $$24&gt;16$$ Then, I assumed that it was true for $n=k$. $$k!&gt;2^k$$ Afterwards, I tried to prove it for $n=k+1$. $$(k+1)!&gt;2^{k+1}$$ $$(k+1)k!&gt;(2)(2^k)$$ Since $k!&gt;2^k$, am I allowed to simply do $$(k+1)(2^k)&gt;(2)(2^k)$$ $$(k+1)&gt;2$$ and this is true for all $k\geq3$. Would the last two steps be illegal because I only assumed that $k!&gt;2^k$ is true?
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