I know that words like  cuppa, fella, attaboy and attagirl  are contractions of, respectively,  cup of tea, fellow, that's the/a boy and that's the/a girl.  I wonder if there is a term which would describe the process through which the orthography of these contracted words changed to what they call  (writing words as they are pronounced). For example, the British  comes from cup of tea but it renders just cup of. As for attaboy, it comes from , but there were stages (&quot;That's the boy&quot;—&quot;'at's a boy&quot;—&quot;atta boy&quot; – there is even a variant of at her, boy!) Also, cuz just popped into my mind because (!) it became so short. Kinda seems to be kind of (!) in between. So from a proper English orthography there is a shift towards phonemic orthography in informal English. Is there a term for this? Does anyone know of any reliable investigations of this process? Edit: The question indicated as already existing does shed some light, but the accepted answer is relaxed pronunciation. And the question seems to focus on speech and pronunciation. My question is rather about this tendency to write in this way in informal writing. It may be though that such term does not exist in orthography. The result is phonemic orthography; just wondered if the process leading to it has a name.
In linguistics, is there a term describing this phenomenon, i.e., when the syllables of two words are slurred together in the spoken language?  They are not contractions. While contractions are acceptable in any register, this combination of words is very informal and hardly ever found in formal writing.  kinda (kind of)   sorta (sort of)   coulda (could have)   shoulda (should have)   lotta (lot of)   oughta (ought to)   betcha (bet you)   lemme (let me)   tseasy (it's easy)   willya (will you)  Inasmuch as English Language speakers (just like the speakers of any natural language) have a tendency to join word sounds in speech, examples abound and a complete list would be hard to produce. I’m looking for a word or phrase describing this linguistic phenomenon as it occurs in speech.
State-of-the-art algorithms for the training of neural networks with GRU or LSTM units I recently read a lot about neural networks using GRU or LSTM units. There are many easy to use frameworks like tensorflow that do not even require high knowledge about programming. Unfortunately, I never really found good information on how the training of those networks work. Simple backpropagation might probably not work for gated recurrent networks or is just too inefficient for networks with such a high number of variables to learn.  So my question is:  What are the state-of-the-art algorithms used for the initialization and training of neural networks with GRU or LSTM units? I am not looking for frameworks to use, but for initialization and update equations for the internal parameters. Did Dolores Umbridge Have Any Association with Voldemort (or Death Eaters) before His Return? I noticed that Dolores Umbridge was born during the first Wizarding War, so it's very likely she wasn't a Death Eater then (but she is pretty evil -- who knows?).  After that Voldemort was not around in a way that could affect many people, and most wouldn't know he was planning to rise again.  During that time, and up through Voldemort's return (in Goblet of Fire), did Umbridge have any connection with the Death Eaters or with Voldemort?  Was she doing what she did on her own, or was it because of an association with Voldemort or his allies? Can I get a rebate after using my HSA? In thinking about Sturm-Liouville theory a bit I see I have no actual idea what is going on.  The first issue I have is that my book began with the statement that given  $$L[y] = a(x)y'' + b(x)y' + c(x)y = f(x)$$  the problem $L[y] \ = \ f$ can be re-cast in the form $L[y] \ = \ \lambda y$.  Now it could be a typo on their part but I see no justification for the way you can just do that!  More importantly though is the motivation for Sturm-Liouville theory in the first place. The story as I know it is as follows:  Given a linear second order ode   $$F(x,y,y',y'') = L[y] = a(x)y'' + b(x)y' + c(x)y = f(x)$$  it is an exact equation if it is derivable from a differential equation of one order lower, i.e.  $$F(x,y,y',y'') = \frac{d}{dx}g(x,y,y').$$  The equation is exact iff  $$a''(x) - b'(x) + c(x) = 0. $$  If $F$ is not exact it can be made exact on multiplication by a suitable integrating factor $\alpha(x)$.  This equation is exact iff  $$(\alpha(x)a(x))'' - (\alpha(x)b(x))' + \alpha(x)c(x) = 0 $$  If you expand this out you get the Adjoint operator  $$L^*[\alpha(x)] \ = \ (\alpha(x)a(x))'' \ - \ (\alpha(x)b(x))' \ + \ \alpha(x)c(x) \ = 0 $$  If you expand $L^*$ you see that we can satisfy $L \ = \ L^*$ if $a'(x) \ = \ b(x)$ &amp; $a''(x) \ = \ b'(x)$ which then turns $L[y]$ into something of the form  $$L[y] \ = \ \frac{d}{dx}[a(x)y'] \ + \ c(x)y \ = \ f(x).$$  Thus we seek an integratiing factor $\alpha(x)$ so that we can satisfy this &amp; the condition this will hold is that $\alpha(x) \ = \ \frac{1}{a(x)}e^{\int\frac{b(x)}{a(x)}dx}$  Then we're dealing with:  $$\frac{d}{dx}[\alpha(x)a(x)y'] \ + \ \alpha(x)c(x)y \ = \ \alpha(x)f(x)$$  But again, by what my book said they magically re-cast this problem as  $$\frac{d}{dx}[\alpha(x)a(x)y'] \ + \ \alpha(x)c(x)y \ = \ \lambda \alpha(x) y(x)$$  Then calling  $$\frac{d}{dx}[\alpha(x)a(x)y'] \ + \ ( \alpha(x)c(x)y \ - \ \lambda \alpha(x) )y(x) \ = \ 0$$  a Sturm-Liouville problem.  My question is, how can I make sense of everything I wrote above? How can I clean it up &amp; interpret it, like at one stage I thought we were turning our 2nd order ode into something so that it reduces to the derivative of a first order ode so we can easily find first integrals then the next moment we're pulling out eigenvalues &amp; finding full solutions - what's going on? I want to be able to look at $a(x)y'' \ + \ b(x)y' \ + \ c(x)y \ = \ f(x)$ &amp; know how &amp; why we're turning this into a Sturm-Liouville problem in a way that makes sense of exactness &amp; integrating factors, thanks for reading! I would like to prove inductively that $${2n\choose n}=\sum_{i=0}^n{n\choose i}^2.$$  I know a couple of non-inductive proofs, but I can't do it this way. The inductive step eludes me. I tried naively things like $${2n+2\choose n+1}={2n+2\over n+1}{2n+1\choose n}=2\cdot {2n+1\over n+1}{2n\choose n},$$  But I don't think it can lead me anywhere. I would like the proof to be as simple as possible. How to prove this question? If a graph with $n$ vertices and $n$ edges it must contain a cycle? He is loved.   This is something that I've always kind of wondered.  In a sentence like this, is loved a verb or an adjective? Can it be considered either? Update iOS 5.1.1 on iPad 1 to at least iOS 6 How to roll back Ubuntu to a previous version? Connecting two Ethernet PHY without magnetics? In a (tentative) new design I want to connect two 100 Mbit/s Ethernet PHY similar to , separated by few inches on the same PCB, with same ground plane (but different power supplies). I have the choice of one of my PHY, but the other is embedded in an as-yet-unspecified PCIe to Ethernet IC (perhaps Gigabit but used in 100 Mbit/s mode), and it is critical that this PHY thinks there is a bona fide 100 Mbit/s Ethernet connection.  I could use the following         &ndash; Schematic created using   but I would like to achieve the same without the magnetics, in order to save on cost, purchasing headaches, and if at all possible power consumption.  I can imagine an RC network, perhaps as simple as in this , found thanks to a ; or maybe engineered with attenuation and lowpass, but that will not emulate the fact that with real magnetics, when there is a negative pulse on TX1P, there is a positive pulse on TX1M and RX2M. I am uncertain about if that would prevent some PHYs from working normally.  Anything to suggest that one is confident will work for practically any PHY around? I'm flying Etihad Airways to Melbourne and I've a 14 hours layover at Abu Dhabi.  Some say that as long as you are inside the airport terminal you don't require a transit visa while some say you need a transit visa if your layover is more than 10 hours.  Can I stay inside the airport without a transit visa? A site (or scraper) is copying content from Stack Exchange. What should I do? of Stack Overflow, all content posted on Stack Exchange sites by their users (i.e. you wonderful people) has been provided to the whole universe under . For my fellow non-lawyers, that license basically means:   Anyone can use any Stack Exchange posts at any time without having to ask for permission Making money off of the copied content is permitted You don't even have to copy stuff from here verbatim; you can just use it as a starting point and make whatever edits you want There are just two rules you have to follow:   You have to provide . Simple links to the original post and author info are just fine. You have to  and allow other people to use your content, as long as they follow these very same rules. How meta!    (If you ever forget any of that, and want to refresh your memory, the license info is linked to in the footer of every page.)  There are, in fact, a lot of people who republish varying amounts of our content for assorted reasons. Unfortunately, there are some Stack Content Republishers Attributing Poorly and/or Excelling at Ranking (SCRAPERs, for short).  In this context, "attributing poorly" means any use that doesn't follow our attribution rules or make any other reasonable attempt at give credit. This can get pretty egregious; I've seen SCRAPERs that not only don't link back to SE originals, but also use fake author info and post dates to make it harder to find originals. By "excelling at ranking," I'm referring to copycat sites that end up higher in Google results than the original SE sites do for the same content. That's not necessarily wrong, but in some cases, it indicates inappropriate SEO hackery.  So, the question is: what can you do if you spot a SCRAPER? Why do we care about eigenvalues of graphs?  Of course, any novel question in mathematics is interesting, but there is an entire discipline of mathematics devoted to studying these eigenvalues, so they must be important.  I always assumed that spectral graph theory extends graph theory by providing tools to prove things we couldn't otherwise, somewhat like how representation theory extends finite group theory.  But most results I see in spectral graph theory seem to concern eigenvalues  not as means to an end, but as objects of interest in their own right.  I also considered practical value as motivation, e.g. using a given set of eigenvalues to put bounds on essential properties of graphs, such as maximum vertex degree.  But I can't imagine a situation in which I would have access to a graph's eigenvalues before I would know much more elementary information like maximum vertex degree.  (EDIT: for example, dtldarek points out that $\lambda_2$ is related to diameter, but then why would we need $\lambda_2$ when we already have diameter?  Is this somehow conceptually beneficial?)     So, what is the meaning of graph spectra intuitively?  And for what practical purposes are they used?  Why is finding the eigenvalues of a graph's adjacency/Laplacian matrices more than just a novel problem? !! Do not use the future tense after unless   [✓]  I won't go unless you go   [✘] [I won't go] unless you will go. [✘]   Why not? Even if the above is prescriptive, what may be some reasons? In my separate question , I quote: unless = if not. If not can precede future tense; so why can't unless?  Footnote:  motivated this. In Oracle, I can re-create a view with a single statement, as shown here:  CREATE OR REPLACE VIEW MY_VIEW AS SELECT SOME_FIELD FROM SOME_TABLE WHERE SOME_CONDITIONS   As the syntax implies, this will drop the old view and re-create it with whatever definition I've given.  Is there an equivalent in MSSQL (SQL Server 2005 or later) that will do the same thing? GTA V for PC exited unexpectedly I recently ordered the GTA V PC from Steam and when I finished installing and launch the game. It gave me "Grand Theft Auto V has exited unexpectedly". I tried "safe mod" and every option available, but none of them work. I checked some forums and found a lot of people having the same problems. What could be the possible cause? I'm using a laptop with these specs:  CPU: i7 4700m GPU: AMD HD8970M RAM: 8GB  I'm pretty sure my laptop is way beyond the minimum specs. Does someone know how can I enter the game? I have a set of 10 tables and each has an extra column that I don't want. Specifically, these tables are descriptions of database tables exported by phpMyAdmin, and they all have a "MIME" column that I would like to remove. Is there a way to do this other than using string manipulation / find and replace?   I have tried setting the column to p{0in}, but the column title still remains. How to disable requiretty for a single command in sudoers? I want to disable requiretty so that I can sudo within scripts, but I'd rather only disable it for a single command rather than everything. Is that possible within the sudoers config? Install java Runtime Environment Find all subgroups of $\mathbb{Z}\times\mathbb{Z}$. Find all subgroups of $\mathbb{Z}\times\mathbb{Z}$.   I can find all the infinite subgroups of the form $n\mathbb{Z}\times m\mathbb{Z}$, where $n,m$ run over $\mathbb{Z}$. But I don't know how to write out all the finite subgroups in a uniform expression.  Any suggestions? Thanks in advance.