Show that the congruence equation  $x^8 \equiv 16 \pmod p$ has a solution for every prime $p$. Let $g$ be a primitive root， then the equation is equivalent to $8  \ ind_g(x)\equiv 4 \ ind_g(2) \pmod {p-1}$. It suffices to show that $2\mid ind_g(2)$.
I'm still making my way along in Niven's Intro to Number Theory, and the title problem is giving me a little trouble near the end, and I was hoping someone could help get me through it.  Now $x^8\equiv 16\pmod{2}$ is solvable with $x\equiv 0\pmod{2}$, so I assume $p$ is an odd prime. From a theorem earlier in the text,      If $p$ is a prime and $(a,p)=1$, then the congruence $x^n\equiv a\pmod{p}$ has $(n,p-1)$ solutions or no solution according as $a^{(p-1)/(n,p-1)}\equiv 1\pmod{p}$ or not.   So since $(16,p)=1$, the problem reduces to showing that $16^{(p-1)/(8,p-1)}\equiv 1\pmod{p}$ holds for all $p$. I note that $(8,p-1)$ can only take values $2,4,8$. For $2$, the above equivalence is then $4^{p-1}\equiv 1\pmod{p}$, which is true by Fermat's little Theorem. For $4$, it is then $2^{p-1}\equiv 1\pmod{p}$, which again holds by FlT. However, the case where $(8,p-1)=8$ is throwing me off. At best I see that $16^{(p-1)/8}\equiv 2^{(p-1)/2}\pmod{p}$, but I'm not sure how to show this is congruent to $1$ modulo $p$. Maybe there's a more elegant way to do it without looking at cases. Thanks for any insight.
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