Inspired by the question   I understand the simple out of universe answer is likely "they hadn't come up with the ideas of the newer models yet". But I was wondering if there was some official in universe answer to explain why this would be. Would it not have been better for Skynet to send back a T-1000 first? Maybe a T-X or something? Surely they would have succeeded without Arnold to stop them.    My best guess is that the T-800 was more easily accessible in the shortest amount of time possible, as I imagine Skynet had to rush to use the time machine as quickly as possible once the Resistance had basically won. But is this addressed at any point?
I have seen only the first three movies, so I don't know whether the other movies/TV series deal with this question or not. My main point is that in the movies, the terminator that travels back furthest in time is of the worst quality, and the quality increases with the time travel (meaning they travelled from a later time). What is a good explanation for this?  Note: I am not interested in the obvious not-in-universe explanation that they wanted something better and bigger for each new movie.
$d_1(x_1,y_1)$ and  $d_2(x_2,y_2)$ are metric on $X$ and $d(x,y)$ is defined as: $$d(x,y)= \sqrt{d_1(x_1,y_1)^2+d_2(x_2,y_2)^2}.$$ I am trying to show this is a metric. Can you give me some clue about proving the triangle inequality for $d$ ? Thank you for your help. Ring Inside an Algebraic Field Extension app engine datastore auto-clears every time project runs Is it possible to use a spell scroll with a spell that requires a bonus action to cast? The DMG contains spell scrolls (on page 200), with the following rule:     If the spell is on your class's spell list, you can use an action to read the scroll and cast its spell without having to provide any of the spell's components.   This is all well and good for spells with a casting time of 1 action (which admittedly is most of them), but for spells with a bonus action casting time, how is it supposed to work?  Does it require:   Both an action and a bonus action?  Just an action? Just a bonus action? Something else I haven't thought of?   In case it needs saying, I'm not interested in speculation here - only RAW-based answers or explicit statements of developer intent should apply. Getting from Denver Amtrak to Fort Collins The eastbound Amtrak arrives Denver 6:38 PM (18:38).  How can I get to Fort Collins from there?   The  runs  from Denver International Airport to Fort Collins, but the airport is 40 km from the Amtrak station, so that's a major detour, that would mean taking bus FX from Market Street Station 7:18 PM, arriving at the airport at 8:27 PM, then the super shuttle 9:05 PM, arriving Fort Collins CSU at 10:55 PM; almost 4 hours after departing from Denver. Greyhound Lines appears to have a bus departing 12:45 AM, arriving 02:00 AM — although probably as quick as it gets, this is not exactly a comfortable time. RTD Denver has transportation to Longmont and  from Longmont to Fort Collins, but  appears to depart 7:05 PM — so I won't make it there when arriving by Amtrak.  A taxi would cost an estimated .   Is there any other way to get to Fort Collins when arriving by the eastbound Amtrak, any way that I've missed? I'm trying to enable alsa on different prefix than default through winetricks.  More specifically, the prefix that has Rosetta Stone on it, as it cannot see my microphone.  When I open winetricks, it only lets me select default.  I tried anyway, on default, and it did not resolve the issue.  I saw some answers online, through the terminal, but that didn't work either.  Maybe I have the syntax wrong?  steve@stevelap:~$ WINEPREFIX=~/.PlayOnLinux/wineprefix/Rosetta sh winetricks alsa sh: 0: Can't open winetricks steve@stevelap:~$ sudo WINEPREFIX=~/.PlayOnLinux/wineprefix/Rosetta sh winetricks alsa [sudo] password for steve:  sh: 0: Can't open winetricks   Could anyone please offer assistance?  Thanks! How do I unlock all the other ships in the hangar? If $11z^{10}+10iz^9+10iz-11 = 0$. Then possible value of $\mid z \mid,$ is Best way to recover mysql from a "chmod -R 777 /" with databases intact Syntax to transfer from remote to local scp by leapfrogging onto another host? Why is a black hole black? Why does "stigmata" [often] have penult stress? I have been studying the pronunciation of Greek-derived words in English, and I've found an odd anomaly. There are (at least) two possible pronunciation patterns for plural word-forms that end in -&#8288;mata (which correspond to singular word-forms that end in -&#8288;ma).   Antepenult stress (expected)  It appears that it is always possible to place the stress on the antepenult (third-to-last) syllable, such as:    /ˈlɛmə/, /ˈlɛmətə/  /ˈskiːmə/, /ˈskiːmətə/  /ˌtɛrəˈtoʊmə/, /ˌtɛrəˈtoʊmətə/~/ˌtɛrəˈtɒmətə/  /ˈstɪɡmə/, /ˈstɪɡmətə/   This is what would be expected from  (I believe most or all of these words came through Latin before entering English), since the penultimate "a" in the original Greek words is short.  Maybe Latin vowel quality and stress rules are not very relevant; certainly, few English speakers know about them nowadays. And even with antepenult stress, some of these pronunciations do not seem to follow all of the traditional rules for pronouncing Latin-derived terms in English. I was reminded by some comments in this  that  in antepenult stressed syllables, we would expect tense ("long") vowels to be shortened due to  (TSL), yielding pronunciations like /ˌtɛrəˈtɒmətə/ (which I just noticed is in fact listed in the Oxford English dictionary) and ?/ˈskɛmətə/ (which is not). (Compare to genus~genera /dʒiːnəs/~/dʒɛnərə/, and perhaps opus~opera /oʊpəs/~/ɒpərə/). However, there are other Latinate plural forms that typically don't have trisyllabic laxing (matrices, also I think helices), or where both the lax- and tense-voweled pronunciations coexist (codices, apices), so I guess the apparent lack of it in schemata should not be surprising. (There are even some exceptions to TSL in singular nouns like obesity.)  Penult stress (unexpected)  The other pronunciation seems to exist only for a couple of words, in which the penultimate "a" is commonly stressed and broadened: stigma ~ stigmáta  (listed by both the Merriam-Webster dictionary and the ), and also sometimes schéma ~ schemáta /skiːˈmɑːtə/ (listed only by the ). (Neither the Merriam-Webster dictionary nor the Oxford Learner's Dictionaries list *"lemmáta").  I'm wondering why this pronunciation exists. It's an irregular plural either way, and putting the stress on the penultimate syllable creates a stress change between the singular and the plural forms.  (It's true that all of these words are rare, and some people might pronounce some of their plurals differently. The pronunciations I give here are simply the ones listed in dictionaries.)  The plural form "stigmata" is probably most common in religious or theological contexts (where it refers to the wounds of Christ), so at first I wondered if the penultimate stress was supposed to be closer to the original Greek pronunciation, but according to , the stress is on the antepenult in Greek as well.  So, what's up with this? Did the stress perhaps change in Latin over time, is this a tradition of Greek accentuation that I'm not familiar with, is this a simple matter of ignorance of the original position of the stress that has now become entrenched with time and usage, or is this somehow explainable by established English stress patterns? (For example, do English speakers have some natural preference for a penultimate stress on polysyllabic words?)  If nobody knows of a reason, I suppose I can just put it down to people encountering the word mainly in text, not knowing which syllable to stress, and choosing the penult because it sounds better to them.  (I asked this question a while back on , but nobody knew of any reason.) Best File Management Practices when you have thousands of Files Google Maps API v3, jQuery UI Tabs, map not resizing Trigger Setup Wizard at next boot using command-line I am looking for a way to use ADB to trigger Setup Wizard at next boot. I know I can run the following command and get it to pop up. However, I can't figure out what triggers it to start at boot.  adb shell am start -a android.intent.action.MAIN -n com.google.android.setupwizard/.SetupWizardTestActivity   The phone I am currently using is stock and I would like to keep it that way.   I've read the  question: Ubuntu 20.04 brightness adjust not working I am unable to adjust brightness levels through Gnome. I had the same issue with 18.04 but it was resolved there (honestly, I can't remember how).  lspci|grep VGA 00:02.0 VGA compatible controller: Intel Corporation Core Processor Integrated Graphics Controller (rev 18)  xrandr --output LVDS-1 --brightness 0.95 &lt;-- this works through the terminal excerpt from /etc/default/grub GRUB_CMDLINE_LINUX_DEFAULT="quiet splash acpi_backlight=vendor"   Thank you in advance. Find and replace text within multiple files This might be a completely wrong question, but this is bothering me since many days ago. Given the mass (Sun) curves the space around it, gravitation is the result of such curved space (Correct me if I am wrong, source: A Documentary film). Given any point on a circle with center same as center of the mass, curvature in the space should be equal (Intuition).   Planets rotate around the Sun because of the curve in the space they should follow a circular path and the distance between planet and Sun should be at a distance.  Given the fact that earth has a elliptical orbit around the sun, and the distance between Earth and Sun varies according to position of the earth. Why do we have a elliptical orbit not a circular orbit. What does "end to end" mean in deep learning methods? How to determine the direction of a wave propagation? In the textbook, it said a wave in the form $y(x, t) = A\cos(\omega t + \beta x + \varphi)$ propagates along negative $x$ direction and $y(x, t) = A\cos(\omega t - \beta x + \varphi)$ propagates along positive $x$ direction. This statement looks really confusing because when it says the wave is propagating along $\pm$ x direction, to my understanding, we can drop the time term and ignore the initial phase $\varphi$ while analyzing the direction, i.e. $y(x, 0) = A\cos(\pm\beta x)$, however, because of the symmetry of the cosine function, $\cos(\beta x)\equiv \cos(-\beta x)$, so how can we determine the direction of propagation from that?  I know my reasoning must be incorrect but I don't know how to determine the direction. So if we don't go over the math, how to figure out the direction of propagation from the physical point of view? Why $-\beta x$ corresponding to the propagation on positive x direction but not the opposite?