Is there a way to view the source code of a function, class, or module from the python interpreter? (in addition to using help to view the docs and dir to view the attributes/methods)
Suppose I have a Python function as defined below:  def foo(arg1,arg2):     #do something with args     a = arg1 + arg2     return a   I can get the name of the function using foo.func_name. How can I programmatically get its source code, as I typed above?
Shape of confidence interval for predicted values in linear regression I have noticed that the confidence interval for predicted values in an linear regression tends to be narrow around the mean of the predictor and fat around the minimum and maximum values of the predictor. This can be seen in plots of these 4 linear regressions:    I initially thought this was because most values of the predictors were concentrated around the mean of the predictor. However, I then noticed that the narrow middle of the confidence interval would occur even if many values of were concentrated around the extremes of the predictor, as in the bottom left linear regression, which lots of values of the predictor are concentrated around the minimum of the predictor.  is anyone able to explain why confidence intervals for the predicted values in an linear regression tend to be narrow in the middle and fat at the extremes? Why do electrons not fully fill up all the orbitals sequentially? Why do electrons not fully fill up all the orbitals sequentially? By this I mean: why don't the electrons fully take up the previous orbit first and then move onto the next orbit? Take calcium for example, it's electron config is 2, 8, 8, 2. Why isn't it 2, 8, 10? Why does another orbit need to be created when there are still many spots to fill up?  (I know that this is a chemistry question in a physics forum, but I really could not find a chemistry or even a broader science type forum here ) Is time dilation an illusion? It is said that we can verify time dilation by flying a very accurate clock on a fast jet or spaceship and prove that it registers less time than the clocks on earth. However, the clocks on earth would be moving relative to the clock on the spaceship, and since time always dilates and never goes faster regardless of the direction of relative motion,  the clocks on earth should register less time than the clock on the spaceship.  Is this true? Whenever there is a fast-moving object such as a rocket do all clocks on earth really become slow?  If the rocket with the clock landed after moving at relativistic speed, would its clock and the earth's clock again show the same time since during its travel both appeared slow to each other?  Or is all this just an illusion, ie. the clocks just appear to be slow to each other but in actually run at normal speed, and neither is behind when the rocket actually lands? My tea bags are expired, can I still use them? This box of tea has an expiration date which has passed but I would like to know if I can still use it. What do you think? Do subdomains help/hurt SEO? If I have example.com, and blog.example.com, do search engines see those as one site or two? Will using subdomains hurt SEO? I have some technical reasons why I can't use example.com/blog. I need to run something as sudo without a password, so I used visudo and added this to my sudoers file:  MYUSERNAME ALL = NOPASSWD: /path/to/my/program   Then I tried it out:  $ sudo /path/to/my/program [sudo] password for MYUSERNAME:    Why does it ask for a password? How can I run/use commands as root with a non-root user, without asking for a password? releasing a second question concerning ordered stuff and set theory, which is very similar to my first question () which I'm putting here for reference.  The next problem that I'm stuck at in my book is this: we have an ordered triple $(a,b,c)$ and we want to define it using set theory. Why would $\{\{ a\} ,\{ a,b\} ,\{ a,b,c\}\}$ not work? The book requires from me to prove why it is not valid.  Additional info: I don't know how this matters but I'm gonna put it up anyhow. It is written within the book that the correct way to show it is $\{\{ a\} ,\{\{ a\} ,\{\{ b\} ,\{ b,c\}\}\}\}$  EDIT: Now, I consider that the correct case should matter. Besides pointing out why the first case is wrong I'm curious as to why the second one is correct How do you determine the winner of a hand? In Texas Hold'em poker, there are some cases where a particular card, often called kicker, acts as a tiebreaker between players to determine who wins the pot, or if the pot has to be shared.  For some combinations such as three or four of a kind, there is no doubt: the kicker is the 5th card of the chosen combination, and determines the winner.  Example     Alice has 7 and 10   Bob has 7 and K   On the board are 7, 7, 2, 3, 4   In that case, both have a three of a kind. But because Bob has a king and Alice only a 10, he wins.  Most of poker websites explaining the rules clearly mention the role of the kicker applying to three of a kind and double pairs. But much fewer say something about colors, straights and full houses, and I found many contradicting answers. I also asked the question to some used online poker players and they also gave me contradicting answers.  I have tried to search for official tournament rules, but most of them only explain what happens with bad behaviors, bad deals, incorrect or confusing betting, showing cards when you shouldn't, acting when it's not your turn, etc. without mentioning subtleties about combinations at all.  To simplify my question, I will take three examples; I think it's better to start with examples before getting to the general answer if one exists. So, what's happening in the following 3 examples? Could you give a more generalized answer?  Example 1 - Flushes     Alice has 2&clubs; and 3&clubs;   Bob has 4&clubs; and 5&clubs;   On the board are 6&clubs;, 8&clubs;, 10&clubs;, 2&hearts;, 5&diams;   Contradicting answer 1: it's a tie, because the highest card included in the flush is the 10, which everybody chooses to include in their 5 showdown cards. Contradicting answer 2: Bob wins, because he has the greatest private card that is part of the flush  Example 2 - Straight     Alice has 6 and K   Bob has 6 and J   On the board are 4, 5, 7, 8, 10   Contradicting answer 1: it's a tie, because the greatest card in the straight is the 8 for both Alice and Bob Contradicting answer 2: Alice wins, because she owns an extra king, compared to the jack of Bob  Example 3 - Full house     Alice has 3 and 7   Bob has 3 and 6   On the board are 3, 3, 2, 2, 5   Contradicting answer 1: it's a tie, because one is supposed to choose only five cards to make a combination, and a full house is already five cards. There couldn't be any kicker, and thus their showdowns are strictly equals. Contradicting answer 2: Alice wins because of her extra 7, compared to the 6 of Bob  Thank you very much for your answers.  Note: I'm unable to post next to you, so I edit my own post; strange not be able to answer to an answer.  Ok, So if I summarize what you are saying :   In the flush case, Bob wins because at some point, their hand differs. Technically, I can continue comparing the highest private card to decide who wins. I had it correct. In the straight case, if the highest card of the straight is public, then it's technically always a tie, no matter what the players had as second private card (asuming that only one of the two cards was part of the straight). In a full house if both players have the same triplet and the same pair, it's always a tie, no matter what the players had as second private card (assuming again that only one of the two was part of the full house).   Please confirm me that what I summarized is correct.  Thank you for your answer. Filling only when one curve is below the other If $\forall x \in R, x^2-x \in Z(G)$, than $R$ is commutative Let $R$ be a ring such that for every $x\in R$ we have $x^2-x \in Z(G)$. Show that $R$ is a commutative ring.    My thoughts  What should I do? I could show that every $y \in R$ could be written in the shape $x^2-x$ but I don't know if that is true. We know that  $y \cdot(x^2-x) \ = \ (x^2-x)\cdot y$ for any $x,y \in R$, but that doesn't mean that $xy = yx$. Please give me a hint How do I escape a backtick ` within a code block?  This is probably a duplicate, since I'm sure it's a common concern, but I can't find a question that addresses this specifically.  How do I write List'1 with the "1" character still in the code-text format? File permissions and saving Let's say you open a file on which you have write permission. Meanwhile you change permissions and remove write permission while you still have the file open in some editor.  What will happen if you edit and save it? How would I give a simple example of a function $f$ differentiable in a deleted neighborhood of $x_0$ such that $\lim_{x\to x_0}f^\prime(x)$ does not exist? I cannot seem to think of an example.  A delete neighborhood is an open interval about $x_0$ which does not contain $x_0$. So, $(x_0-\delta,x_0+\delta)-\{x_0\}$ for some $\delta&gt;0$.  How would something be differentiable in a deleted neighborhood if at the point of the derivative, the limit does not exist. Presumably, the derivative ends up looking something like $\lim_{x\to x_0} \dfrac{1}{x}$, if it does not exist. Several times now I have inadvertently lost the .tex file that generated a PDF file with pdflatex. Given what I know of the internal structure of PDF files, it should be possible to embed a text file containing the original LaTeX file into the PDF file so that it can be extracted later.   I am aware of no technology for doing this, but perhaps you are. Does anybody have something like this? Say I have a Zombie token, , and  on the battlefield. Can I sacrifice the Zombie token to activate both the Altar's and Seer's abilities?  Similarly, if I have one card in hand, and  and  on the battlefield can I discard the one card to both of their abilities?  If I have a  with 3 charge counters can I activate both of its abilities by tapping it to add a counter, and tapping it to remove 3 counters and destroy a permanent without untapping it in between? I am trying to add jQuery to my page (it is not being added by default). The file is adding to the page but after drupal.js causing the error:  SCRIPT5009: 'jQuery' is undefined  drupal.js, line 5 character 1    The code that adds drupal.js to the page in common.inc  ... 'misc/drupal.js' =&gt; array(           'data' =&gt; 'misc/drupal.js',           'type' =&gt; 'file',           'scope' =&gt; 'header',           'group' =&gt; JS_LIBRARY,           'every_page' =&gt; TRUE,           'weight' =&gt; -1,           'preprocess' =&gt; TRUE,           'cache' =&gt; TRUE,           'defer' =&gt; FALSE,         ), ...   In my module hook_init I have:    drupal_add_js('misc/jquery.js', array(     'group' =&gt; JS_LIBRARY,     'weight' =&gt; -20,     'cache' =&gt; TRUE,   ));   I would think with a lower weight it would load before drupal.js?  The header of the page contains the following scripts:  &lt;script type="text/javascript" src="http://mysite.com/misc/drupal.js?mqdxrf"&gt;&lt;/script&gt; &lt;script type="text/javascript" src="http://mysite.com/misc/jquery.js?mqdxrf"&gt;&lt;/script&gt; &lt;script type="text/javascript" src="http://mysite.com/misc/jquery.once.js?mqdxrf"&gt;&lt;/script&gt; &lt;script type="text/javascript" src="http://mysite.com/sites/default/files/languages/nl_c9aC92_wtuULa79-hTFcGPM53oqk1yKwciOa_Q3yO28.js?mqdxrf"&gt;&lt;/script&gt; &lt;script type="text/javascript" src="http://mysite.com/sites/all/modules/lang_dropdown/msdropdown/jquery.dd.js?mqdxrf"&gt;&lt;/script&gt; &lt;script type="text/javascript" src="http://mysite.com/sites/all/modules/lang_dropdown/lang_dropdown.js?mqdxrf"&gt;&lt;/script&gt; &lt;script type="text/javascript" src="http://mysite.com/sites/all/modules/devel/devel_krumo_path.js?mqdxrf"&gt;&lt;/script&gt; Antisymmetric Relations Removing trailing newline character from fgets() input Counter example for $(A \times B) \cap (C \times D) = (A \cap C ) \times (B \cap D)$ Edit: The previous title didn't really ask the same thing as the question (sorry about that), so I've changed it. To clarify, I understand that the action isn't always a minimum. My questions are in the points 1. and 2. below.  I understand that &quot;principle of least action&quot; is somewhat of a misnomer, since we find that to determine the path taken by a system, we need only impose the condition that the action be stationary, i.e., that $\delta S$ should vanish to first order for small variations of the path, and this leads to the Euler-Lagrange equations. In The Classical Theory of Fields, Landau &amp; Lifshitz discuss the relativistic action for a free particle:  So for a free particle the action must have the form $$S = -\alpha \int_a^b ds$$ (...) It is easy to see that $\alpha$ must be a positive quantity for all particles. In fact, as we saw [earlier], $\int_a^b ds$ has its maximum value along a straight world line; by integrating along a curved world line we can make the integral arbitrarily small. Thus the integral $\int_a^b ds$ with the positive sign cannot have a minimum; with the opposite sign it clearly has a minimum, along the straight world line.  There is also a footnote, addressed a couple of paragraphs earlier, but which is relevant:  Strictly speaking, the principle of least action asserts that the integral $S$ must be a minimum only for infinitesimal lengths of the path of integration. For paths of arbitrary length we can say only that $S$ must be an extremum, not necessarily a minimum.  I have two questions regarding this:  How is the condition &quot;the action must be a minimum for infinitesimal displacements&quot; formulated? I've never heard of that outside of Landau &amp; Lifshitz's books, and in Mechanics they mention it as well but doesn't go into detail. Is this discussed a bit more somewhere?  If for the whole path the action only needs to be stationary, how can we make the argument for the negative sign? If the action had to be a minimum then it would make sense, but surely the fact that $\delta S$ = 0 isn't affected by an overall sign?