I'm having trouble enabling my hibernate feature. I have installed Ubuntu 12.04 LTS 64bit using Wubi on my Asus N53SN hybrid laptop ( Intel + Nvidia). After Updating through ubuntu Update manager AND turning off my Nvidia card using Bumblebee, I no longer have an issue with suspending (aka standby, right?) my laptop and the laptop fan running at the full speed all the time. Oh and I also installed Jupiter and have set it on power saver ( CPU temp= 48 centigerades. is it ok?). any ways, I thought these were important to know in order for my problem to be solved.  So when I tried to hibernate using uswsusp, it seemed like ubuntu was doing some things, the colorful screen went black with white texts, it didn't turn off; but everything went back to normal (but there were no sound/wireless problem). having a 8gb ram, I checked my swap size and I thought that I should increase it. I did that using this code that is available on the WubiGuide:  sudo su swapoff -a cd /host/ubuntu/disks/ mv swap.disk swap.disk.bak dd if=/dev/zero of=swap.disk bs=1024 count=2097152 mkswap swap.disk swapon -a free -mrm swap.disk.bak   (I thought 2gbs is ok since I won't have 2gb of applications running to take ram memory. maybe I am wrong here.) then, I try : sudo s2disk but I get:     s2disk: Could not use the resume device (try swapon -a). Reason: No such device   I do what he (!) asks, but nothing happens. I again try to run s2disk, but I get the same error.  can you help me out? I think since I have no trouble with with suspend then I am just one step away from having hibernate.  EDIT: I came across this question   I didn't think that this would interfere. So there is no way to hibernate with a swab FILE?
I installed Ubuntu on my Windows 7 Sager laptop using Wubi. Hibernate (i.e. suspend to disc) is not an option from the power icon, only suspend, shutdown, etc. Hibernate is also not an option from my battery/lid close options. I understand that hibernation is disabled by default in Ubuntu 12.04. I tried running pm-hibernate but I get the following message:  Looking for splash system... none  s2disk: Snapshotting system   and then the computer just hangs with a black screen. According to the documentation  if this fails then I can't enable hibernate but it offers no help in making pm-hibernate succeed.  Could swap be my problem? It looks like I have very small swap:  user@ubuntu:~$ cat /proc/swaps Filename                Type        Size    Used    Priority /host/ubuntu/disks/swap.disk            file        262140  0   -1   The advice on  is only for the author's set up (e.g. I don't have an Ubuntu install disk since I used Wubi) and he says that 'INFO: This will not work for 12.04, resume from hibernate work differently in 12.04.'  Any advice? I really need to get hibernate working to use my laptop as a, er, laptop.  Thanks
I flagged a post today, typed out a fairly thorough explanation, clicked the button... and got told that I'd already flagged this post (for something else, which I'd forgotten about) so this flag wasn't allowed.  (This happens if the first flag is still active.)  The dialogue with my explanation was gone at this point, so if I wanted to communicate with the moderators about that, I was going to have to start over.  (In case you're wondering how this could happen, one flag was related to the post itself and one was related to the user -- there being no way to flag a user directly, you have to hang it off of a post.  But I've also seen this with cases where the first flag hangs around unhandled for a week or two and I've forgotten about it.)  Since the system is going to detect that I've already flagged a post and reject a second flag, can it do that after I click the "flag" link instead of waiting until the end of the process?  (Or gray out the link so I can't click it in the first place?)  2015-12-18: someone suggested to me in chat today that this had been implemented, so I tested again.  The behavior has not changed: I flagged a post using "other", then flagged it again (also "other") before the first flag was handled, and the flag was rejected only after I'd typed the message.  (I did this on a site where I'm a moderator so I could then clean up after myself.) Which side of wave-particle duality to choose in a given situation How does one know whether, in treating a certain problem, one should consider particles as waves or as point-like objects? Are there certain guidelines regarding this? Group cohomology intuition Group cohomology is one thing I don't seem to get my head around.  I understand $H^0$ as being the "fixed points" but when it comes to anything higher I have no idea what the notions are meant to be capturing...if anything.  For example I can see that 1-cocycles are homomorphisms with a specific property but that property doesn't seem to mean anything to me...and I think it should!  Is there an intuition or example that explains the meaning or is it just something that "stuck" and seems to work in lots of places? Let $T(n,x)$ be the nth Chebyshev polynomial of the first kind and let $U(n-1,x)$ the $(n-1)$th Chebyshev polynomial of the second kind. Would any one kindly help show that   1) $n$ is prime iff $T(n,x)$ is irreducible in $\mathbb{Z}[x]$.  2) $n$ is prime iff $U(n-1,x)$, expressed in powers of $(x^2-1)$, is irreducible in $\mathbb{Z}[x]$.   Many Thanks!!    No "ordering" is implied here. The wording of the question was done in similar fashion  as any question in any math/research question. I do not see how a person who is asking for help would be ordering people to help.   Any way back to the topic,  For the first part of the question, I noticed that if n is prime, then T(n,x) satisfies  Eisenstein's Irreducibility Criterion. But I am not sure how to show if T(n,x) is irreducible then n is prime. forecast using arima models I am trying to predict values using arima(0,1,1). After doing predict(mod,n.ahead=5) (in R) am getting the same value for all the predictions:   5947.681 5947.681 5947.681 5947.681 5947.681    Is it correct? UK Visa Refusal: Provenance of funds/parking I have applied recently for a general visitor visa to the UK to spend 10 days during Christmas with my British unmarried partner and it has been turned down.   The Entry Clearance Officer stated on his refusal notice the following:     I note that you have never previously travelled to the UK or any country with similar immigration requirements and you therefore do not have a history of travel and compliance to consider.      You have submitted an employment letter to confirm your occupation in KSA but I am required to also assess your personal, domestic and economic circumstances in determining whether you are genuine visitor travelling to the UK for the period and purpose you state.      You claim an income of SAR ........ per month which equal ........ GBP and from the evidence submitted this appears to be your sole source of income.   I note that this monthly income is reflected on your bank statements. However, the bank statement you have presented show a recent large deposit that are in excess of your stated income and inconsistent with the account history. You haven't provided evidence toward the origin of this recent deposit and in the absence of reasonable evidence I am not satisfied that these bank statements accurately reflect your personal circumstances.      In view of the above, I am not satisfied you have demonstrated that your circumstances are as you claim and therefore I am not satisfied that you're travelling to the UK for the period and purpose you stated. 41(i)and(ii).   Its true that I have deposited that sum of money right before I apply and it was a commission I received from work earlier this month.   So, could you please give me your advice on the above as I am planning to apply again soon. and how to avoid my application being refused again? How do you remove duplicates from a list whilst preserving order? Is there a built-in that removes duplicates from list in Python, whilst preserving order? I know that I can use a set to remove duplicates, but that destroys the original order. I also know that I can roll my own like this:  def uniq(input):   output = []   for x in input:     if x not in output:       output.append(x)   return output   (Thanks to  for that .)  But I'd like to avail myself of a built-in or a more Pythonic idiom if possible.  Related question: I noticed that sometimes my code gets highlighted in different colors when rendered.   What is syntax highlighting? How does it work? Why isn't my code being highlighted correctly? How do I report a bug or request a new language? How do I use syntax highlighting? What languages are currently available on Stack Exchange? Can't login with Stack Exchange OpenID when HTTPS-Everywhere plugin is active - apparent protocol mismatch I can't seem to log in with my Stack Exchange OpenID. When I try, I get the error message:     Unable to log in with your OpenID provider:      The openid.return_to parameter (.) does not match the actual URL (.) the request was made with.   It works if I disable the HTTPS-Everywhere plugin in Firefox, but if I then re-enable the plugin and go to a site on which I am not logged in (in which case login is normally nearly seamless), it fails again with the same error message, or at least something very similar.  I'm not aware of having done anything that might have caused this, although I will admit I don't recall seeing https:// in the address bar on Stack Exchange before (I do now, and that's a good thing IMO!). I was using the site  and it worked fine then, but not now... Pass a PHP string to a JavaScript variable (and escape newlines) What is the easiest way to encode a PHP string for output to a JavaScript variable?  I have a PHP string which includes quotes and newlines.  I need the contents of this string to be put into a JavaScript variable.  Normally, I would just construct my JavaScript in a PHP file, à la:  &lt;script&gt;   var myvar = "&lt;?php echo $myVarValue;?&gt;"; &lt;/script&gt;   However, this doesn't work when $myVarValue contains quotes or newlines. Meaning of $\int \phi^\dagger \hat A \psi \:\mathrm dx$ While analysing a problem in quantum Mechanics, I realized that I don't fully understand the physical meanings of certain integrals. I have been interpreting:    $\int \phi^\dagger \hat A \psi \:\mathrm dx$  as "(square root of) probability that a particle with state $|\psi\rangle$ will collapse to a state $|\phi\rangle$ when one tries to observe the observable corresponding to $\hat A$" $\int \phi^\dagger  \psi \:\mathrm dx$ as "(square root of) probability that a particle with state $|\psi\rangle$ will collapse to a state $|\phi\rangle$".   All integrals are over all space here, and all $\phi$s and $\psi$s are normalized.  Now, I realize that  interpretation of the first integral doesn't really make sense when put side by side with the second one.   For example, when $|\phi\rangle$ is an eigenstate of $\hat A$, I get two different expressions for "the square root of probability that one will get the corresponding eigenvalue of $\psi$ when one tries to observe the observable corresponding to $\hat A$". As far as I can tell, $\int \phi^\dagger \hat A \psi \:\mathrm dx \neq\int \phi^\dagger  \psi \:\mathrm dx $, even if $|\phi\rangle$ is an eigenstate of $\hat A$. I am inclined to believe that the second integral is the correct answer here (it comes naturally when you split $|\psi\rangle$ into a linear combination of basis vectors). But I am at a loss as to the interpretation of the first integral.  So, my question is, what are the physical interpretations of $\int \phi^\dagger \hat A \psi \:\mathrm dx$ and $\int \phi^\dagger  \psi \:\mathrm dx$?  (While I am familiar with the bra-ket notation, I have not used it in this question as I don't want to confuse myself further. Feel free to use it in your answer, though) How to divide aleph numbers Recently, I was wondering how division of aleph numbers would work. First, I thought about how finite cardinality division would work. What I came up with was that the result of $A/B$ where $A$ and $B$ are both cardinalities, is the number of times that each element of $B$ had to be mapped to an element of $A$ in order to ensure that all elements of $A$ were mapped to.  Extending this to aleph numbers, specifically, I thought that $\aleph_1/\aleph_0$ would be $\aleph_1$. The reasoning behind this is that there are an infinite ($\aleph_1$) number of real numbers between any two natural numbers. As such, that mapping would need to be applied.  Can anyone validate this idea? Is this how division of aleph numbers actually works, or am I totally off base?  Thanks. When doing a clean re-installation of El Capitan (highest supported version) from a bootable USB on an older Mac (MBP, 15-inch, Late 2008), I get this error:  An unexpected error occured while signing in. AMD-Action:authenticate:SP  The error shows up, while logging in with the Apple ID into the App Store in the installer.  I tried with different Apple IDs,  Also tried running these commands in the Recovery Terminal and restarting: csrutil clear csrutil enable Help with Axis Placement when extruding I am just learning Blender. I am going through the .  The first part was good. I was able to follow it. Coming from SketchUp, it is taking some adjustment. But I am getting it.  I am just starting the second video. At the beginning, the instructor selects the top of the mug to extrude it. When he presses the E key and Enter, the red, green blue axis moves to the center of those vertices. That does not happen when I press the E key and Enter.   This is only 1:30 into the video.  How can I get the axis in the middle of this circle of vertices?  The next step is to scale. I need the reference point in the middle of this circle of vertices. I cannot left-click accurately enough to position the axis/reference point.  I am using 2.69. The video uses 2.64. A question about causality and Quantum Field Theory from improper Lorentz transformation Related post   In Peskin and Schroeder's QFT p28, the authors tried to show causality is preserved in scalar field theory.  Consider commutator $$ [ \phi(x), \phi(y) ] = D(x-y) - D(y-x) \tag{2.53} $$ where $D(x-y)$ is the two-point correlation function,  $$D(x-y):= \langle 0 | \phi(x) \phi(y) | 0 \rangle  = \int \frac{d^3 p}{ (2\pi)^3} \frac{1}{ 2E_{\mathbf{p}}} e^{-ip(x-y)}\tag{2.50}$$  P&amp;S argued that each term in the right-hand-side of (2.53) is Lorentz invariant, since $$\int \frac{d^3p }{ (2\pi)^3} \frac{1}{2E_{\mathbf{p}}} = \int \frac{ d^4 p }{ (2\pi)^4} (2\pi) \delta(p^2-m^2)|_{p^0&gt;0} \tag{2.40}$$ is Lorentz invariant.  Since there exists a continuous Lorentz transformation in the spacelike interval $(x-y)^2&lt;0 $ such that $(x-y) \rightarrow - (x-y) $ and $D(y-x)=D(x-y)$, (2.53) equals zero in the spacelike interval. In timelike interval, since such continuous Lorentz transformation does not exist, (2.53) is non-zero in general.  My question is, consider a non-continuous Lorentz transmation in the timelike interval, $PT$, namely time reversal times parity transformation. I can also let  $(x-y) \rightarrow - (x-y) $. Why (2.53) in the timelike interval is non-zero?  I guess $PT$ will let (2.40) go to $p^0&lt;0$ branch. But I am not sure if it breaks the Lorentz invariant of (2.40) and (2.50). Finding $ \int^1_0 \frac{\ln(1+x)}{x}dx$ There is supposed to be a clean solution to the integral below, maybe involving some symmetry $$ \int^1_0 \frac{\ln(1+x)}{x}dx$$ I have tried integration by parts as followed: $\ln(x+1)=u$ ,$\frac{1}{x+1} dx = du$ and also $\frac{1}{x}dx=dv$, $\ln(x)=v$. Then, the integral becomes $$\int^1_0 \frac{\ln(1+x)}{x}dx=- \int^1_0 \frac{\ln x}{1+x}dx$$ which does not make this easier. I have also tried using the identity $\int_a^bf(x)~dx=\int_a^bf(a+b-x)~dx$. So let $I = \int^1_0 \frac{\ln(1+x)}{x}dx$ and also $I = \int^1_0 \frac{\ln(2-x)}{1-x}  $. Then $$2I= \int^1_0 \ln(1+x)+\ln(2-x)$$ which is not any easier, either. Any ideas? :) Evaluating $\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\frac{1}{(x^2+b^2)^2}dx$ Assigning point IDs to respective start and end attributes of polyline? I have two shapefiles, Point and Polyline. I'm trying to populate my polyline layer with the point data ID (systemID) where the lines start to where they end; eg. create two columns (from and to). The lines already have flow direction assigned to them. I am using ArcHydro tools but Arcpy is also fine.  In ArcHydro I have tried using Attribute Tools > Generate From/To Nodes for lines but it creates values for To and From that are not from my point data. My other alternative was using Feature to Vertices and joining the result to my point data table to get the systemID. But then I would have to update the polyline layer as well. I am sure there is a easier way of doing it.  Note: not all the lines have points at the vertices, blank values are fine for them. Redirect after user login If the $n^{th}$ partial sum of a series $\sum a_n$ is $S_n = \frac{n-1}{n+1}$, find $a_n$ and the sum. If the $n^{th}$ partial sum of a series $\sum a_n$ is $S_n = \dfrac{n-1}{n+1}$, find $a_n$ and the sum.  By definition,  the sum of the series is the $\lim n\to\infty$ of it's $n^{th}$ partial sum.  $$\text{ Sum = } \lim_{n\to\infty} = \dfrac{n-1}{n+1} = 1$$  I am asked to find $a_n$. How do I do this? What is the procedure?