I typed iptables -F by mistake, how can I undo it?    I see now strange activity on my routers IP, scanned it and saw that strange ports are open. How can I block these ports?
I made changes to iptables config file in /etc/iptables/filter in Ubuntu and want to reload them. I read the man page and also googled but couldn't find the information. Any help will be appreciated.
Let be the next equivalence relation on $B= \{R \subseteq \mathbb{N}\times\mathbb{N} \ | \ R \ is \ a \ well-order \ on \  \mathbb{N}\}$ : $$"R \equiv R' \leftrightarrow \ (\mathbb{N},R) \cong (\mathbb{N},R') \ are \ well-ordering \ sets \  isomorphic" $$  Which is the cardinality of $B/\equiv$?  Firstly, we can notice that each well-ordering set is isomorphic to an ordinal $\alpha \ $such that $\alpha &lt; \aleph_{1}$, and so it is enough to count how many ordinals are isomorphic to a subset of $\mathbb{N}$. For example, if we consider $A$ the set of the even numbers and $B$ the set of odd numbers with the usual order relation, $A \oplus B$ is isomorphic to $\omega + \omega$. Another example could be: if we consider the order of $\mathbb{N}$ that we use in Sharkowski Theorem, that order is isomorphic to $ \omega^{2} + \omega$. Working with prime numbers we could build also $\omega^{n} \ \forall n \in \mathbb{N}$, and so $\omega^{\omega}$ and maybe something bigger. However, we know that each countable ordinal is isomorphic to a subset of $\mathbb{Q}$, but I bet that the same result is not true for $\mathbb{N}$ because it is "too small".  What can I do? I studied propositional logic, and everyday I see applications of what I learned on the internet, in mathematical books and miscelaneous resources.        One particular case is sentences in the form $a \rightarrow b$ , that is, material implications. While I fully understand the mathematical logic approach to the study of those kinds of formulas, sometimes I get confused about what someone ( using implication sentences in the ordinary language ) is trying to say.        In ordinary language, I often see affirmations in the form of an implication.  One example would be someone affirming that "the moon is made of cheese" $\rightarrow 2+2=4$. [ Kleene, Mathematical Logic ].      I perfectly understand that if we choose the interpretation that gives the antecedent as false ( and the consequent as true ) we get that the whole implication is also true, but I would like to understand EXACTLY what he is trying to say when he AFFIRMS a sentence in the form of an implication. Is he saying that under the commonly agreed interpretation of that sentence ( antecedent = false, consequent = true ), that implication becomes true?      Another example, totally different, would be someone affirming that $x \in \mathbb{N} \rightarrow x \in \mathbb{N}$ or $x \in \mathbb{Z}_{&lt;0}$. Is he now affirming the same kind of sentence or saying something totally different?      When he affirms that sentence, is he saying that he finds the sentence to be a tautology?   Why didn't he say that?          Then, with these two examples we have an affirmation of the same kind of sentence (implication) meaning completely different things, in one case he affirms to say that under the commonly agreed interpretation of the sentence, it is true. In another case, he affirms to say that there's no interpretation that makes the sentence false.       Am I missing something? There is really that ambiguity in ordinary language, when people are affirming sentences?  Can't I just take some general instance of the affirmation of a sentence in the form $a \rightarrow b$ in ordinary language and know exactly what he's trying to say, regardless of the propositions he chooses the substitute $a$ and $b$ for?       Thanks a bunch. The pigeonhole principle - how to solve questions like that? We have two sequences , $(a_i)_{i=1}^{2n}$ and $(b_i)_{i=1}^{2n}$ such that  $1\leq a_i, b_i\leq n$ for every $i$.  Show that there are two sets of indexes $I, J \subseteq \left \{ 1,2, ... 2n \right \}$ such what $\sum_{i\in I}a_i=\sum_{j\in J}b_j$.  Well, the question didn't say anything about those sets being empty but I believe that's not what they meant. I don't know that to do with questions like these. There are obviously much more subsets that possible sums ($2^{2n}-1$ compared to $2n^2$) but it doesn't really help.  I'd be glad to hear ideas, hints or solutions. Can somebody help me understanding the fouries series coefficients?  I know that if we have:  $$f(t) = \sum_{n=1}^N A_n \sin(2\pi nt + Ph_n) \tag{where $Ph_n$ = phase}$$  And because of the $\sin(a+b)$ formula: $$ f(t) = \sin(2\pi nt + Ph) = \sin(2\pi nt )\cos(Ph_n) + \cos(2\pi nt )\sin(Ph_n)$$ Then:  $$\sum_{n=1}^N A_n \sin(2\pi nt + Ph) = \sum_{n=1}^N (A_n\sin(2\pi nt )\cos(Ph_n) + A_n\cos(2\pi nt )\sin(Ph_n))$$ And by definition: $$a_n = A_n\cos(Ph_n)$$ $$b_n = A_n\sin(Ph_n)$$ Then:  $$f(t) = \sum_{n=1}^N A_n \sin(2\pi nt + Ph) = \sum_{n=1}^N (a_n\sin(2\pi nt ) + b_n\cos(2\pi nt ))$$ Where does the $A_n$ in the first formula come from? Could somebody explain me where does the $\frac{a_0}{2}$ in the formula below come from? $$f(x) = \frac{a_0}{2}+\sum_{n=1}^\infty (a_n \cos(nx) + b_n \sin(nx))$$  And the most important:  How can I proof the formulas for the $a_n$ and $b_n$ coefficients?  PLEASE, I'm searchinf for these answers for DAYS. The set of all finite subsets of the natural numbers is countable Accessing my Windows 7 files from my Ubuntu account I have just installed Ubuntu on my computer and I have windows 7 as my other operating system. is there a way that I can access my windows 7 files from my Ubuntu installation? A topological space is extremally disconnected iff every two disjoint open sets have disjoint closures Show that for any topological space $X$ the following are equivalent:         $X$ is extremally disconnected   Every two disjoint open sets in $X$ have disjoint closures.      My attempt at a solution  Assume every two disjoint open sets in $X$ have disjoint closures. Let A open in $X$, $A$ and $X \setminus \overline{A} $  disjoint open set $\overline{A} \cap (\overline{X \setminus \overline{A}} )= \emptyset$,  $(\overline{X \setminus \overline{A}} ) \subset X \setminus \overline{A}$, which implies that $X \setminus \overline{A}$ is closed in $X$. Thus $\overline{A}$ is open in $X$. So we obtain $X$ is extremally disconnected.  Otherwise Let $X$ is extremally disconnected. Then the closure of every open set is open.  So $X$ is completely separated. Let $A$, $B$ two disjoint open sets.  Then there exist a continuous function $g:X \rightarrow [0,1]$ such that  $g(A)=0$, $g(B)=1$  How can I continue? Some of my Apps Icons are changing to a generic app icon, and I have no idea why. Tried to restart the system and nothing. 3 days ago i updated my Skype and then the icon is gone. Prove that $∂A$ is closed given $∂A = \text{Cl}(A) − \text{Int}(A)$ Similar questions have been asked, but none with the given information. My textbook doesn't give me the fact that  $∂A = \text{Cl}(A) − \text{Int}(A)$. If that were the case, I could just state that definition and note that it's the intersection of closed sets.   I have very little knowledge of set theory and proofs, so I'm not sure how else to prove this. As always, I appreciate any help.  The question comes from “Introduction to Topology: Pure and Applied” by Colin Adams and Robert Franzosa.   "Let $A$ be a subset of a topological space $X$. Prove that $∂A$ is closed given  $∂A = \text{Cl}(A) − \text{Int}(A)$" Ampere's law and external currents In Ampere's law, the current outside the curve taken is not included in the expression. Does it mean that the magnetic field calculated by using the law gives the contribution of only the currents crossing the area bounded by the curve? I asked this question at stackoverflow and have been kindly redirected here.  I'd like to align some equations in Latex using the AMS packages. Each equation has two equal signs that need to be aligned. So something in the line of  A = B = C D = E = F   I've tried using the align-environment like this  \begin{align} A &amp;= B &amp;= C \\ D &amp;= E &amp;= F \end{align}   This works in principle (it aligns), however it adds ridiculously large spaces before the second equal sign in each line. But I just want the line to runs as if there was no additional alignment tab. Only when I replace for example "B" by "BBB" I want the equal sign before "F" to shift to right the exact amount of space.  Could anyone help me out on that one? It's kind of driving me crazy since I don't get the idea of that strange behavior and I just can't find any solution. Maybe alignat could help, but I don't really get how that environment works.  Cheers, Oliver finding $\int_0^\infty \dfrac{dx}{1+x^4}$ through complex analysis I'm looking for some way to run a batch file (.bat) without anything visible to the user (no window, no taskbar name, .etc..).  I don't want to use some program to do that, I'm looking for something cleaner. I've found  that uses VBScript, but I don't really like using VBS, either. I'm from Western Pennsylvania. Until I moved away, I never realized that when I omitted the to be from phrases like needs to be cleaned, my usage was different than what most English speakers are accustomed to. Is it wrong? Shortcuts in Objective-C to concatenate NSStrings Something has changed in server 16.04 LTS, I can't find tty1, but I need to make an auto-login on tty1 (in console mode), in 14.04 LTS I can make this work.  I can't find /etc/init/tty1.conf  How to, or a link? I know what you're thinking: "of course it has, for example, it can be used to tell you how many times you can go around a circle". But that isn't really true, now is it? You'd be dead or the world would go under long before an infinite amount of loops had been reached.  Are there any practical applications for the concept of infinity? Is it a useful concept in maths at all?  I know that Donald E. Knuth has argued that for all practical purposes, a very, very large number has the same effect as infinity, in his book "Things a Computer Scientist Rarely Talks About" (can't remember the exact quote, nor find it online, unfortunately).  Examples are appreciated. Few days ago I got sample of toroidal core from my friend. I don't know any technical details of core just know OD-10cm, ID-6cm, height- 5cm and wet about 1.845 kg(M4 grade CRGO). I want to make toroidal transformer using this core but how to calculate core area and maximum VA capacity of core.I take some photos and attach. How to adapt the color of a label using pgfplots I created this style that shifts the labels and put them on the bottom of the ybars.  However, I have a problem with the bars that have too short length (for example, see the 8.7 and 5.1 in the example below). I want to check if the values are less than some threshold, or the length of the bar is shorter than the label (number) then change its color.  How can I overlay another label on top of the one in white when the bar is shorter? or maybe change the color of the label to a gradient color? or just overlay the part that is outside of the bar?    \documentclass{standalone}  \usepackage{tikz} \usepackage{pgfplots} \usepackage{pgfplotstable} \usetikzlibrary{calc}  \begin{document} \makeatletter \begin{tikzpicture} \begin{axis}[ ybar, every node near coord/.style={   check for zero/.code={ % If meta=0, make the node a coordinate (which doesn't have text)     \pgfmathfloatifflags{\pgfplotspointmeta}{0}{         \pgfkeys{/tikz/coordinate}     }{}   },   check for zero, color=white, text opacity=1, font=\footnotesize, inner ysep=0.5pt, },% % Bottom nodes  calculate full offset/.code={     \pgfkeys{/pgf/fpu=true,/pgf/fpu/output format=fixed}     \pgfmathsetmacro\testmacro{((\pgfplotspointmeta-\pgfkeysvalueof{/pgfplots/ymin})*10^\pgfplots@data@scale@trafo@EXPONENT@y)*\pgfplots@y@veclength}     \pgfkeys{/pgf/fpu=false} },% nodes near coords bottom/.style={     every node near coord/.append style={         /pgfplots/calculate full offset,         yshift=-\testmacro,         rotate=90, anchor=west,%I need the rotate text here and not in the          %general style, as the ybar redefines the style     } },% ymin=0, nodes near coords={\pgfmathprintnumber[fixed zerofill,precision=1]{\pgfplotspointmeta}}, nodes near coords bottom, ] \pgfplotstableread{ % set real imag mag 1 8.7 2 5.1 3 91.8367  }\mydata \addplot table[x index=0,y index=1,header=false] {\mydata}; \end{axis} \end{tikzpicture} \makeatother \end{document}   * EDIT *  I need to create some special gradient on each label that is below the bar height. For example, I need to adapt something like  to each label that is not showing. However, I cannot find a way to put the macro in the style section of the codes. Or is there any equivalent solution? grouped bar chart with pgfplots