The image shows experimental data for the ratio of cross sections $$R=\frac{\sigma(e^+e^-\rightarrow\text{hadrons})}{\sigma(e^+e^-\rightarrow\mu^+\mu^-)}.$$ I am wondering why $R$ is so large for the $Z$ resonance. I thought that it would only depend on the branching ratios of the $Z$ decay into hadrons and muons, but this gives $R\approx 20$ which is much too small.
Below is experimental data for the ratio $$R=\frac{\sigma(e^+e^-\rightarrow hadrons)}{\sigma(e^+e^-\rightarrow\mu^+\mu^-)}$$ as a function of the centre of mass energy $\sqrt s$. I am interested in the peak at around $100GeV$ which corresponds to the resonance of the $Z^0$ boson. There are two ways of looking at this that I have in mind:  We can effectively ignore the electromagnetic process around this energy, and so each process should have it's own Breit-Wigner peak centred on the mass energy of the $Z^0$. The ratio of these is just a constant. Thinking in terms of Feynman rules and again ignoring the electromagnetic process around this region, each process has the same propagator and vertex factors (roughly - ignore quark mixing) and there are some extra factors due to different quarks being possible and colour degeneracy, but still the ratio should be a constant (one possible issue here is interference between Feynman diagrams which I have neglected?).  So my question is why does the peak exist in the data?
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