I understand that you should never use variable names within the program, but I am using is strictly for debug purposes and would like to convey the name of the variable to the user for readability. I have a file like this: class MyClass(object):     def __init__(self):         pass      def foo(msg=&quot;&quot;):         debug(&quot;Called from the %s instance.&quot;) #quazi-print function that only prints when a DEBUG variable is True.         print(msg)  m = MyClass() m.foo(&quot;Test&quot;)  I would like to retrieve the m instance variable name from within the class itself. Though this is merely an example file, I am using it to convey to the user that a raw socket has been created at a certain attribute within an instance variable, and would like to show where it is (i.e. New socket at m.socket) Is this feasible with Python?
How do I find out a name of class that created an instance of an object in Python if the function I am doing this from is the base class of which the class of the instance has been derived?  Was thinking maybe  might have helped me out here, but it doesn't seem to give me what I want. And short of parsing the __class__ member, I'm not sure how to get at this information.
Comments are useful. Many, many posts need some small amount of meta discussion, and comments fulfill this need.   Comments are also noisy and distracting. Occasionally, someone will post an insightful and informative comment that complements the post its attached to... But more often, they're tangential, quickly irrelevant and in the way: stale comments show up first, making newer comments less visible.  The guidance here for a long time has been that comments are transient, . And yet, some do hang around for months or years because .   So let's fix that.   I propose that all comments older than 7 days be hidden by default unless the comment has been up-voted in the past 30 days. Hidden comments should be indicated by a note below the post ("add / show 3 more comments") and made visible to anyone who cares to click it.   This doesn't destroy anything, but it would get it out of the way of most readers - and hopefully encourage folks to edit it into the actual answers as a result.  Note: I previously suggested this . Other  have been . However, I'm not suggesting that comments be automatically deleted, and they should be hidden based purely on the age / activity of the comment itself, not of the post to which they're attached. What are the eigenvalues of $\operatorname{ad}x$? Let $x\in \operatorname{gl}(n,F)$ have $n$ distinct eigenvalues $a_1,\ldots,a_n$ in $F$. Prove that the eigenvalues of $\text{ad }x$ are precisely the $n^2$ scalars $a_i-a_j$ ($1\leq i,j\leq n$), which of course need not be distinct.   So we can represent $x$ by an $n\times n$ matrix $X$. We have $Xv_1=a_1v_1,\ldots, Xv_n=a_nv_n$ for eigenvectors $v_1,\ldots,v_n$.   Now, $\operatorname{ad}x$ takes $y\in \operatorname{gl}(n,F)$ to $xy-yx$. I need to show that some $y$ is taken to a scalar multiple of itself, where that scalar is $a_i-a_j$. What could be that $y$? Find the condition on $a$ and $b$ so that the two tangents drawn to the parabola $y^2=4ax$ from a point are normals to the parabola $x^2=4by.$  The required condition is $a^2&gt;8b^2$.I dont know how to prove it.I tried.  Let $(h,k)$ be the point from where tangents are drawn to the parabola $y^2=4ax$.Let $m_1,m_2$ be the slopes of the tangents.Equations of tangents are $y=m_1x+\frac{a}{m_1}$ and $y=m_2x+\frac{a}{m_2}$ and equations of normal to the parabola $x^2=4by$ is $y=m_1x-2bm_1-bm^3_1$ and $y=m_2x-2bm_2-bm^3_2$.  As $y=m_1x+\frac{a}{m_1}$ and $y=m_1x-2bm_1-bm^3_1$  are the same lines.Therefore,$\frac{a}{m_1}=-2bm_1-bm^3_1$  $bm^4+2bm^2+a=0$  And I am stuck.I cannot get the desired condition.Please help me. Why is the CDF of a sample uniformly distributed I read  that given a sample $ X_1,X_2,...,X_n $ from a continuous distribution with cdf $ F_X $, the sample corresponding to $ U_i = F_X(X_i) $ follows a standard uniform distribution.  I have verified this using qualitative simulations in Python, and I was easily able to verify the relationship.  import matplotlib.pyplot as plt import scipy.stats  xs = scipy.stats.norm.rvs(5, 2, 10000)  fig, axes = plt.subplots(1, 2, figsize=(9, 3)) axes[0].hist(xs, bins=50) axes[0].set_title("Samples") axes[1].hist(     scipy.stats.norm.cdf(xs, 5, 2),     bins=50 ) axes[1].set_title("CDF(samples)")   Resulting in the following plot:    I am unable to grasp why this happens. I assume it has to do with the definition of the CDF and it's relationship to the PDF, but I am missing something...  I would appreciate it if someone could point me to some reading on the subject or help me get some intuition on the subject.  EDIT: The CDF looks like this: How do you compare two folders and copy the difference to a third folder? You've got three folders:   folder current, which contains your current files folder old, which contains an older version of the same files folder difference, which is just an empty folder   How do you compare old with current and copy the files which are different (or entirely new) in current to difference?    I have searched all around and it seems like a simple thing to tackle, but I can't get it to work in my particular example. Most sources suggested the use of rsync so I ended up with the following command:  rsync -ac --compare-dest=../old/ new/ difference/   What this does however, is copies all the files from new to difference, even those which are the same as in old.  In case it helps (maybe the command is fine and the fault lies elsewhere), this is how I tested this:   I made the three folders. I made several text files with different contents in old. I copied the files from old to new. I changed the contents of some of the files in new and added a few additional files. I ran the above command and checked the results in difference.   I have been looking for a solution for the past couple of days and I'd really appreciate some help. It doesn't necessarily have to be using rsync, but I'd like to know what I'm doing wrong if possible. Thanks to the internet, graphic design and programming are becoming increasingly overlapping fields.   As a programmer, I constantly find myself needing basic knowledge of Graphic Design, but have trouble locating thorough yet concise graphic design learning resources, and instead usually find bits and pieces of knowledge applicable to the task at hand.  Can you guys offer some tips or recommend some good books, tutorials, blogs, and websites which provide a beginner level overview of web design that have been, in your experience, effective and high quality learning materials. I'm not looking for tips on how to use image editing tools, but assuming a basic grasp of those, which resources and advice will best help a new designer create professional looking designs? I've recently come across several statements to the effect "there are questions science can't answer", mostly from proponents of  and , but also from  and  as well.   However it seemed to me that there was an inherent contradiction in statements of the type "Science doesn't have all the answers" or "Science can't answer all questions". This is hinged on what is meant by "answering a question". It seems to me that to answer any significant question is to provide 2 things:    An accurate and objective explanation of the current state of affairs, in terms of relationships, causes and effects.  Based on that explanation, a method for making decisions if one is faced with future scenarios similar to or related to the current state of affairs, and for predicting future states of affairs with a certain amount probability, i.e the explanation is useful for future purposes.   But then if a field of inquiry is able to provide accurate, objective and useful information regarding a question, doesn't that field simply become part of science?   As examples:    If some school of mysticism is demonstrated to truly improve the happiness and well being of it's practitioners, then wouldn't that school's mystical teachings simply be incorporated into mainstream psychology and psychotherapy?  Similarly, if a political ideology is proven to provide better economic conditions and less crime, less pollution, etc...then this ideology's principles would become an accepted part of social sciences?     To put it more simply: Science has all the answers, because science IS anything that can provide objective and useful answers to a question.  Am I not talking about the demarcation problem per-se (at I least I think I am not), because even disciplines which are agreed upon as failing various demarcation criteria (such as astrology or intelligent design) are still trying (and failing) to be scientific in the sense I mentioned above. If they did start to provide answers, science would have to take them into account. Moreover, various philosophical schools of ethics are trying to be scientific in their explanatory framework, they are just not able to provide verifiable and falsifiable statements to prove their precepts (and probably would do so if possible).   My questions then are:    Per those who claim that science can't answer all questions, what type of question are they talking about? Do they have a demarcation criteria for such questions? (I'm not asking for examples, there are already plenty in the links I posted above).  If a field starts providing objective, accurate answers, doesn't it just become a subfield of science?   Is there a second demarcation problem between "carckpot" pseudosciences (such as astrology or numerology) which are providing the wrong answers and legitimate fields of inquiry (such as political theory or ethics) which are trying to provide answers but so far have failed to provide verifiable and falsifiable statements or accurate predictions? I want to prove that if we have a commutative integral domain $D$ with field of fractions $F\neq D$ then $F$ is not finitely generated as a $D$-module. (In this question it may be the case that $1\not\in D$.)    My original plan was to localize at a maximal ideal and then use Nakayama's lemma but as we don't have a $1$ our localization may not be local (in fact we need not have maximal ideals).  So I'm a bit lost as to where to go?  Thanks for any help. JSF doesn't support cross-field validation, is there a workaround? File sync error (AUTH_FAILED) Recently I started getting a File sync error on all 3 of my PCs running Ubuntu One.  One is running Ubuntu, the other 2 are running Windows 8.  Looking at the list of clients on the web, none of them were there anymore.    I found this article:      On how to fix the issue for my Ubuntu PC and it worked perfectly.  Now I am looking for a similar fix for Windows but haven't found one yet.  I've tried un-installing Ubuntu One and re-installing it, but it must still be holding the keys somewhere because it never asked me to login again.    Does anyone know where I can clear these keys to get my files syncing on Windows again? Find the maximum value of $ f(x) = \int^{x}_{0} \sqrt{(x^2-x)^2+y^4}~dy$ Find the maximum value of $f(x)$ when $0 \leq x \leq 1$ and $$ f(x) = \int^{x}_{0} \sqrt{(x^2-x)^2+y^4}~dy$$   I'm guessing that the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus can't be used because the integrand is a function of $x$.  Any help would be greatly appreciated. Cross-referencing between different files I want to cross-reference between different .tex files, just because I want to put every chapters separately.  Let's say in file chapterI.tex I have \label{a} and I want to access this in file chapterII.tex using something like \ref{a}. How to do this exactly in LaTeX, moreover if LEd have an easy feature to cover this, it will be better (I have put those both files in the same project).  I found another question with similar title, but I just didn't really understand. It's here: . Do Cleric's domain spells add slots? I'm a little bit confused with the whole spell system and additions to them. If I pick for instance Tempest Domain Spell, are the spells additional to the other ones? (2 at level 1) So do that make it 3 spells? Does the domain add slots too?  And also, I've read about people choosing multiple domains, is that possible? Show that every group of prime order is cyclic Proof that the real numbers are countable: Help with why this is wrong I was just thinking about this recently, and I thought of a possible bijection between the natural numbers and the real numbers.  First, take the numbers between zero and one, exclusive.  The following sequence of real numbers is suggested so that we have bijection.    0.1, 0.2, 0.3, 0.4, 0.5, 0.6, 0.7, 0.8, 0.9, 0.01, 0.02, ... , 0.09, 0.10, 0.11, ... , 0.99, 0.001, 0.002, ... , 0.999, 0.0001, etc.  Obviously, this includes repeats, but this set is countable.  Therefore, the set of all numbers between zero and one is a subset of the above countable set, and is thus countable.  Then we simply extend this to all real numbers and all the whole numbers themselves, and since the real numbers, as demonstrated above, between any two whole numbers is countable, the real numbers are the union of countably many countable sets, and thus the real numbers are countable.    Please help me with this.  I understand the diagonalization argument by Cantor, but I am curious specifically about this proof which I thought of and its strengths and flaws.  Thanks. C#: code error while changing the active directory user's password A few months ago I set full disk encryption during installation of Ubuntu 17.10. Now, I've decided to upgrade. The upgrade ran to the end without any problems. However, after reboot I am not able to log into my encrypted disk.  Where can be the problem? I am 100% sure I press the "right keys" on the keyboard, but technically I don't know what I am writing because of "*" characters and maybe after upgrade my keyboard layout changed. I use some characters which might be somewhere else on the keyboard. What language is default after upgrade?   By the way, I've already tried Caps-lock, but still no luck.  Help will be really appreciated. I am not a fan of installing my system and all backups over and over again. Construction of uncountably many non-isomorphic linear (total) orderings of natural numbers I would like to find a way to construct uncountably many non-isomorphic linear (total) orderings of natural numbers (as stated in the title).  I've already constructed two non-isomorphic total orderings. They are $$ 1 &lt; 2 &lt; 3 &lt;\ldots\\ 1 &gt; 2 &gt; 3 &gt;\ldots $$ where "$&lt;$" and "$&gt;$" are  strict total ordering relations.  Thanks in advance for your help. Extract reply addresses from all emails in an outlook folder (sent on behalf of) I've got to send a bulk email out to a bunch of people in reply to emails they sent me. I've got all the original emails stored in a single outlook folder. I want to extract all of the reply addresses from the emails in that folder so I can send an email to all of them.  The article  shows you how to export the FROM address of these emails, however a large amount of them came from a web service that sends emails 'on behalf of' the person I'm trying to mail to. So I need the reply-to address, and the export wizard doesn't do that.  Does anyone have a tip on how to do this? This is Outlook 2007 on Exchange 2010. Why would spacetime curvature cause gravity? It is fine to say that for an object flying past a massive object, the spacetime is curved by the massive object, and so the object flying past follows the curved path of the geodesic, so it "appears" to be experiencing gravitational acceleration. Do we also say along with it, that the object flying past in reality exeriences NO attraction force towards the massive object? Is it just following the spacetime geodesic curve while experiencing NO attractive force?  Now come to the other issue: Supposing two objects are at rest relative to each other, ie they are not following any spacetime geodesic. Then why will they experience gravitational attraction towards each other? E.g. why will an apple fall to earth? Why won't it sit there in its original position high above the earth? How does the curvature of spacetime cause it to experience an attraction force towards the earth, and why would we need to exert a force in reverse direction to prevent it from falling? How does the curvature of spacetime cause this?  When the apple was detatched from the branch of the tree, it was stationary, so it did not have to follow any geodesic curve. So we cannot just say that it fell to earth because its geodesic curve passed through the earth. Why did the spacetime curvature cause it to start moving in the first place?