When two objects are compared with each other, the latter term of comparison must exclude the former, as in &quot;Iron is more useful than any other metal&quot;. If we say &quot;Iron is more useful than any metal&quot;, that is the same thing as saying &quot;Iron is more useful than iron&quot;, since iron is itself a metal.  I do not understand this. Please, can someone explain what it means?
I was going through the topic "formation of comparative and superlative".       The rule says     When two objects are compared with each other, the latter term of comparison must exclude the former, as in "Iron is more useful than any other metal". If we say "Iron is more useful than any metal", that is the same thing as saying    "Iron is more useful than iron", since iron is itself a metal.   I am finding difficulty to relate the rule with example.
There are n letters addressed to n eople at different addresses. The n addresses are typed on n envelopes.  A disgruntled secretary shuffles the letters and puts them in the envelopes in random order, one letter per envelope.  Find the probability that at least one letter is put in a correctly addressed envelope. [Hint: use the inclusion-exclusion formula.] What is the probability approximately, for large n ?    My attempt at a solution:  P(all correct) = $\frac{1}{n!}$  P(n-1 correct) = ${n \choose n-1} \frac{1}{n!} = \frac{1}{1!(n-1)!}$  ${n \choose n-1}$ ways of selecting n-1 correct letters.  P(n-2 correct) = ${n \choose n-2} \frac{1}{n!} = \frac{1}{2!(n-2)!}$  ...  P(n-n correct) = ${n \choose n-n} \frac{1}{n!} = \frac{1}{n!(n-n)!} = \frac{1}{n!}$  This all looks ok to me, but I tested this for a case of 4 people, (I think the theoretical value should be $\frac{9}{24}$ but obviously that is not what I got. Can someone correct my logic please? 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