Hi Stackoverflow community  I have been trying to find a resource or reference that explains what the usage() method does. Unfortunately the word 'usage' is indexed so often in different contexts that I simply can't find a good resource. Would anybody be able to point me in the right direction?  public static void main(String[] args) {         if (args.length == 0) {             usage();          } else if ("parse".equals(args[0])) {             final String[] parseArgs = new String[args.length - 1];              etc ....   I know that in C getusage() is used to get memory and CPU usage statistics. Is this the same case in Java? Any pointers would be highly appreciated.  Mike
I need to check CPU and memory usage for the server in java, anyone know how it could be done?
I reviewed  in the First Posts queue.  Which said      i changed it to 'localsystem' and done. thanks much   So it obviously was a potential low quality post. But sometimes such answers can be spot on, so I checked it out, better safe than sorry. I turned out the post had been deleted. Great! So I clicked "No action needed". Then I got this:    You can imagine I felt "wrongfully accused".  I think that deleted posts should not be used for review audits, because the meaning of "No action needed" is not clear in this context. A word for someone who you share a half-sibling with This is probably best explained with an example.  Alice and Bob have a child, Erin. Bob and Carol have a child, Frank. Carol and Dan have a child, Grace. Clearly, Erin and Frank are half-siblings, because of their father, Bob. Similarly, Grace and Frank share their mother, Carol.  Erin and Grace have no parents in common, and are thus not half-siblings. However, is there a term for their relation? How do I get attention for old, unfixed bug reports and feature requests without official responses here on Meta? I posted a question here on Meta Stack Exchange, or on a per-site meta, regarding a bug I found in the system. I got no comments, or a few comments stating that this is a legitimate bug (and not by design). However, it's been quite a long time, and no official response was ever posted there.  Or, I had an idea for a new feature, but realized it's already requested, either by searching or posting a request myself only to have it closed as a duplicate of the existing one. It's been a while since the original request was filed, but no official response has been made.   I'm aware that staff members are , but either my post isn't about one of the indicated topic areas for which they're accepting escalation requests for that month, or I already flagged to request escalation but it was declined, so the instructions there don't apply for my post.  What can I do to draw attention to meta questions for the SE team, so they can give an official response, and possibly implement the bug fix or feature?  Note: This is different from other general questions which ask for how to get attention for unanswered questions, since the procedures on meta sites are different, and getting an official response isn't necessarily the same as getting a good answer. I was given the files for a mini linux, that boots directly into firefox. It works for all it should be doing, only that I do not get an internet connection.  We have 3 DNS servers in the network, which all work. I can ping them, too. But when trying to ping google.de or wget google.de I get a bad address error.  nslookup google.de works for some reason.  I tracked the issue down to my resolv.conf on the booted system not having the same contents as the resolv.conf that I put into the .iso file.  I tried understanding all the factors that go into creating and modifying resolv.conf. I'm not quite sure I got it all, but I definitely didn't find my solution there.  So as a last ditch effort, I tried making the resolv.conf file immutable using   :~# chattr +i /etc/resolv.conf   When rebuilding and booting again to my surprise my file was renamed to resolv.conf~ and in its place was the same standard file that has been haunting me.   The file contents make me believe it gets the information from the network itself. When starting the .iso in Virtualbox without internet access, my file is being kept as it is.  I tried changing /etc/dhcp/dhclient.conf to not get the information from the net, by deleting domain-name-server and domain-name-search from the request part of the file.  Didn't work unfortunately.  I don't have the NetworkManager installed. The iso is based on Ubuntu 14.04.  There is probably vital information missing. I'm happy to provide it.  UPDATE:  I think I found the file that clears resolv.conf.  It seems to be /usr/share/udhcpc/default.script  #!/bin/sh  # udhcpc script edited by Tim Riker &lt;Tim@Rikers.org&gt;  [ -z "$1" ] &amp;&amp; echo "Error: should be called from udhcpc" &amp;&amp; exit 1  RESOLV_CONF="/etc/resolv.conf" [ - n "$broadcast" ] &amp;&amp; BROADCAST="broadcast $broadcast" [ -n "$subnet" ] &amp;&amp; NETMASK="netmask $subnet"  case "$1" in     deconfig)         /bin/ifconfig $interface 0.0.0.0         for i in /etc/ipdown.d/*; do             [ -e $i ] &amp;&amp; . $i $interface         done         ;;      renew|bound)         /bin/ifconfig $interface $ip $BROADCAST $NETMASK          if [ -n "$router" ] ; then             echo "deleting routers"             while route del default gw 0.0.0.0 dev $interface ; do                 :             done              metric=0             for i in $router ; do                 route add default gw $i dev $interface metric $((metric++))             done         fi          echo -n &gt; $RESOLV_CONF # Start ----------------           [ -n "$domain" ] &amp;&amp; echo search $domain &gt;&gt; $RESOLV_CONF         for i in $dns ; do             echo adding dns $i             echo nameserver $i &gt;&gt; $RESOLV_CONF         done         for i in /etc/ipup.d/*; do             [ -e $i ] &amp;&amp; . $i $interface $ip $dns          done # End ------------------         ;; esac  exit 0   It's part of the udhcpc program. A tiny dhcp client, that is part of busybox  Will investigate further.    UPDATE2 AND SOLUTION:  I commented the part out (#Start to #End), that seemingly overwrites the /etc/resolv.conf file and sure enough. That was the culprit. So an obscure script caused all this trouble.  I changed the question to reflect, what actually needed to be known to solve my problem, so it would be easier to find for people with the same problem and so I could accept an answer.  Thanks for the help here in figuring things out. How much voltage/current is "dangerous"? Related:        From what I've heard:   110 V (or 220 V; household voltage pretty much) is dangerous (i.e. can kill you) I think there's consensus on this, no need to try :) 60 V (old telephone lines) is supposedly dangerous (never tried, only heard it once... probably won't try)   From what I know first-hand:   9 V is not dangerous (I've put a 9-V battery on my tongue, nbd... actually it kinda hurt!) 1.5 V can indeed be quite shocking with enough current (fell for one of those "Do you want some gum?" tricks back in high school...), but they sometimes do not use 1.5 V with the low amperage levels, some use a DC motor to vibrate and complete the trick.   So I guess there's two parameters here, voltage and current... but are there rough numbers on how much of each (or in combination, which I guess would be power) would be considered hazardous?  No old telephone lines have always been 48vDC well at least since from 1950s, if your skin is wet you can feel it slightly, like on your forearm.  Now the ring voltage is 90-110vAC with a 2 on 4 sec off cycle (USA).  It will ring your bell but good, should you be touching the wires when someone calls. The ring voltage rides on top of the 48vDC, so its present on the same two conductors that the voice voltage(DC) is on. Luckily it's 4 seconds off will give you a chance to get off the conductors with a scream (of pain). Nautilus does not show the left bar, how do I turn it back on? 15 year mortgage vs 30 year paid off in 15 I've found similar questions, but they all seem to focus on a preexisting 30 year mortgage and whether or not it makes sense to refinance to a 15.  My question is a bit different.  I have not yet bought a house but I am trying to decide which mortgage to go with.  As a result, I don't have to consider refinance fees and a change in interest rate.   The situation is that I can afford the payment on a 15 year mortgage and would prefer not to pay off a house for the next 30 years.  So I was going to go with a 15.  However, in looking at some mortgage calculators (which it is possible I am looking at incorrectly) it seems that there is no difference in getting a 30 year mortgage and just paying it off in 15 years.  The calculators seem to say that--assuming the same interest rate--you will pay the exact same interest over 15 years.  As a result, my thinking is, I can get the 30 and pay it like a 15.  If there really is no drawback then this gives me the ability to pay the normal 30 year payment if needed due to financial hardship (loss of employment etc.)  So my question is, am I missing something?  If not, why would anyone ever get a 15 year instead of just paying off a 30 year in 15 years?  In summary: Does it really cost the same amount of money overall to pay off a 15 year mortgage vs paying off a 30 year mortgage in 15 years?  PS: Please don't suggest taking the 30 year and investing the extra money.  I know this is an option and the one many would suggest.  However, for the purposes of this question please only consider 15 year vs 30 year paid off in 15. My mother is given a UK tourist visa for 2 years with a duration of stay as 180 days. It is a c type multiple entry visa. Is this 180 days is the total stay she can take or is it duration of stay per visit.  Thanks in advance for your reply. Followup to "".  It is argued that even a tiny residual charge would result in huge amounts of electricity in bulk matter, everything would be different, etc. I do not find that a convincing answer: suppose $n$ protons plus $n+1$ electrons are neutral. Why wouldn't we also expect there to be $n$ protons to every $n+1$ electrons? That is, there is no bulk matter problem if every $n$'th atom is a negative ion (for hydrogen).  Now, what empirical lower bound can we give for $n$ in that kind of scenario? What is an intuitive explanation for how PCA turns from a geometric problem (with distances) to a linear algebra problem (with eigenvectors)? I've read a lot about PCA, including various tutorials and questions (such as , , , and ).   The geometric problem that PCA is trying to optimize is clear to me: PCA tries to find the first principal component by minimizing the reconstruction (projection) error, which simultaneously maximizes the variance of the projected data.    When I first read that, I immediately thought of something like linear regression; maybe you can solve it using gradient descent if needed.  However, then my mind was blown when I read that the optimization problem is solved by using linear algebra and finding eigenvectors and eigenvalues. I simply do not understand how this use of linear algebra comes into play.  So my question is: How can PCA turn from a geometric optimization problem to a linear algebra problem? Can someone provide an intuitive explanation?  I am not looking for an answer like  that says "When you solve the mathematical problem of PCA, it ends up being equivalent to finding the eigenvalues and eigenvectors of the covariance matrix." Please explain why eigenvectors come out to be the principal components and why the eigenvalues come out to be variance of the data projected onto them  I am a software engineer and not a mathematician, by the way.  Note: the figure above was taken and modified from . Using the simple example below, what is the best way to return results from multiple tables using Linq to SQL?  Say I have two tables:  Dogs:   Name, Age, BreedId Breeds: BreedId, BreedName   I want to return all dogs with their BreedName.  I should get all dogs using something like this with no problems:  public IQueryable&lt;Dog&gt; GetDogs() {     var db = new DogDataContext(ConnectString);     var result = from d in db.Dogs                  join b in db.Breeds on d.BreedId equals b.BreedId                  select d;     return result; }   But if I want dogs with breeds and try this I have problems:  public IQueryable&lt;Dog&gt; GetDogsWithBreedNames() {     var db = new DogDataContext(ConnectString);     var result = from d in db.Dogs                  join b in db.Breeds on d.BreedId equals b.BreedId                  select new                         {                             Name = d.Name,                             BreedName = b.BreedName                         };     return result; }   Now I realize that the compiler won't let me return a set of anonymous types since it's expecting Dogs, but is there a way to return this without having to create a custom type?  Or do I have to create my own class for DogsWithBreedNames and specify that type in the select?  Or is there another easier way? How to pass parameters to an alias? For bash script, I can use "$@" to access arguments. What's the equivalent when I use an alias? Mathematical journal for an undergraduate I want to make someone a present by subscribing for him to a mathematical journal. (It should appear every month or every two months). The contents should be comprehensible to an undergraduate in mathematics, and be about a broad selection of topics (for example not only analysis).   I expect the content to be something like proposing interesting problems and then giving solutions with some references for further study. Are there some famous journals you could suggest me? I have over 400 open-ended responses. The total has been coded by one rater, and a 10% identical sample of the total has been coded by 2 raters. There is a choice of 14 nominal codes, of which the rater can use any number per case, though most cases have between 1-4 codes. Which statistical test is the most appropriate to determine if I have inter-rater agreement on the 10% sample?   Also am I right in assuming that I will need to treat each code as a variable and look for the level of agreement for each variable?   I'm using SPSS 21.  Much thanks, Kellie How do I interpret the Mann-Whitney U when using R's formula interface "Is the same" or "are the same"? Which is the correct one?     On average, the polyunsaturated fat content in one teaspoon of the olive oil and canola oil is the same        On average, the polyunsaturated fat content in one teaspoon of the olive oil and canola oil are the same Proof of the L'Hôpital Rule for $\frac{\infty}{\infty}$ I ask for the proof of the L'Hôpital rule for the indeterminate form $\frac{\infty}{\infty}$ utilizing the rule for the form $\frac{0}{0}$.   Theorem: Let $f,g:(a,b)\to \mathbb{R}$ be two differentiable functions such as that:  $\forall x\in(a,b)\ \ g(x)\neq 0\text{ and }g^{\prime}(x)\neq 0$ and $\lim_{x\to a^+}f(x)=\lim_{x\to a^+}g(x)=+\infty$ If the limit $$\lim_{x\to a^+}\frac{f^{\prime}(x)}{g^{\prime}(x)}$$ exists and is finite, then  $$\lim_{x\to a^+}\frac{f(x)}{g(x)}=\lim_{x\to a^+}\frac{f^{\prime}(x)}{g^{\prime}(x)}$$  My attempt:  Since $\lim_{x\to a^+}f(x)=+\infty$, $$\exists \delta&gt;0:a&lt;x&lt;a+\delta&lt;b\Rightarrow f(x)&gt;0\Rightarrow f(x)\neq 0$$  Let $F,G:(a,a+\delta)\to \mathbb{R}$, $F(x)=\frac{1}{f(x)}$, $G(x)=\frac{1}{g(x)}$. Then by the hypothesis $\lim_{x\to a^+}F(x)=\lim_{x\to a^+}G(x)=0$, $$\forall x\in(a,b)\ \ G(x)\neq 0\text{ and }G^{\prime}(x)=-\frac{1}{g^2(x)}g^{\prime}(x)\neq 0$$ The question is, does the limit $$\lim_{x\to a^+}\frac{F^{\prime}(x)}{G^{\prime}(x)}=\lim_{x\to a^+}\frac{-\frac{1}{f^2(x)}f^{\prime}(x)}{-\frac{1}{g^2(x)}g^{\prime}(X)}=\lim_{x\to a^+}\frac{g^2(x)f^{\prime}(x)}{f^2(x)g^{\prime}(x)}$$ exist?   The limit $$\lim_{x\to a^+}\frac{f^{\prime}(x)}{g^{\prime}(x)}$$ exists by the hypothesis but we don't know if the limit $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to a^+}\frac{g^2(x)}{f^2(x)}$ exists to deduce that the limit $$\lim_{x\to a^+}\frac{F^{\prime}(x)}{G^{\prime}(x)}$$ exists to use the L'Hôpital Rule for the form $\frac{0}{0}$.  EDIT: After discussing it with other users in the site, we came to the conclusion that this proof is only partial and can't logically be continued to yield the Theorem.  As a result, the rule for the $\frac{0}{0}$ form can't be used to proove the rule for the  $\frac{\infty}{\infty}$ form. Mr. Tavares and myself have already given two different proofs (with the pretty much the same main idea) of the Theorem in question using Cauchy's Mean Value Theorem. You can read them below. You can also read the proof Rudin gives for a stronger version of the Theorem (that does not suppose that $\lim_{x\to a^+}f(x)=+\infty$) in his book Principle of Meathematical Analysis. If you have any objections in either proofs please let me know. Thank you. How can Star Trek: Countdown ever be considered canon? Is there a word for someone who somewhat delights in their illnesses/medications? Does League of Legends have a tournament that is recognized as the 'Most Important'?