(click for larger image)  They might also be called proficiencies. Are thy just the modifier of the appropriate skill or something else?
I'm trying to fill out the skills section on my first character, but when I look at the character sheets in the Starter Set as examples of how to make a character, the skills that are circled have higher modifiers than their Dexterity or Strength or whatever should make them.  I've filled out all skills but those. What do I add to the ability modifier to get those numbers?   My abilities are Strength 13, Dexterity 14, Constitution 11, Intelligence 15, Wisdom 8, and Charisma 8. Proficiencies are Arcana, Athletics, History, Investigation and Stealth. My saving throws are Strength and Dexterity.   I just started D&amp;D and have the Player's Handbook, DM's Guide, Monster Manual, and the Starter Set.
Is there a utility to replace one block type with another within a region? I'd like to be able to select a region (either with a graphical utility or command line) and be able to switch one block type with another, e.g. change all cobblestone in the region to stone. Does a program/mod exist that can do this? Is it possible to get a decimal output from doing division in Bash? Basically in Bash, what I'm trying to do is take a input of seconds from a user and find the hours. So basically if the user enter 35 the output should be 0.00972222.  But bash gives me is a zero.  heres the command I have:  echo "Enter the seconds you wish to convert to hours: " &amp;&amp; read sec &amp;&amp; echo " $((sec/3600)) is the amount of hours "   Is there a way I can make it so it prints out 0.00972222 if I enter 35.  Thanks! Why is uniform prior on log(x) equal to 1/x prior on x? I'm trying to understand Jeffreys prior. One application is for 'scale' variables like the standard deviation $\sigma$ (or its square, the variance $\sigma^2$) of Gaussian distributions. It is often said that using a uniform prior over $\sigma$ is not really non-informative and instead one should either:   Use instead $\ln \sigma$ as the free parameter, with a uniform prior (this is often called a log-uniform prior) Or keep using $\sigma$ as the free parameter but use $1/\sigma$ as the prior (which is not uniform).   Why are the above two methods/priors equivalent? I feel it has something to do with the fact that the derivative of ln $\sigma$ is $1/\sigma$ but I can't take the next step.   Also, why does this even matter, in simple language with minimal jargon? I see all these complicated explanations online involving the Fisher information matrix but in the end all I see is that the above log-uniform or $1/\sigma$ priors preferentially weight lower values of $\sigma$ more highly. Why? If possible, a simple analytic example or python snippet would be very helpful. Sum of principal minors Create WiFi hotspot on ubuntu Although many questions have already been asked regarding WiFi hotspot, I didn't get any of the solutions working for me.  I connect to the Internet using a 3G Dongle of Huawei 3772 (Vodafone). The connection type is Mobile Broadband connection. I have to share this Internet connection with my other devices like mobile phones and laptops.  How can I create a WiFi hotspot connection for this connection.  I am using Ubuntu 12.04 LTS.  I would like to note that I have already tried some help links from Ubuntu but, they are so confusing that I could not understand them. Applying MVT and IVT (?) to show something about f'''? (edit: actually, Taylor's Theorem using Lagrange remainder) I believe that the correct answer to this question will involve applying both the Mean Value Theorem and the Intermediate Value Theorem, perhaps several times.  However, I can't see how to proceed.  I went down what I thought were the typical paths and just reached dead ends.  Does someone maybe have a hint?  I think that with the appropriate nudge I should be able to solve this question.  If not, I'll edit and ask if someone knows how to solve the whole thing.  Here's the question:  Let $f: \mathbf R \to \mathbf R$ be such that $f$, $f'$, $f''$, and $f'''$ exist and are continuous on $\mathbf R$ and satisfying $f(-3)=-1$, $f(0)=0=f'(0)$, and $f(3)=8$.  Prove that there exists $\xi \in (-3, 3)$ such that $f'''(\xi) \ge 1$. Everytime I sudo apt-get update it always not complete and will say in the end  E: Read error - read (5: Input/output error) E: The package lists or status file could not be parsed or opened.   Same goes, when I try to install something and do sudo apt-get install &lt;some app&gt;  What should I do ? I admit, that my drive has bad sectors, could that be the reason? Is there anything else I can do? Does someone falling into a black hole see the end of the universe? If you willingly fall on your turn does it cost movement?  As a DM I'm thinking about how to handle things such as creatures who are immune to being prone, diving into the water from a height, or a flying creature diving off a cliff and taking a fall before taking flight. There are many circumstances where you can fall without taking damage or being knocked prone afterward, and I'm not sure how to determine movement following the dive.  For example, my character walks up to a ledge above a 10 foot drop to the ground below. After taking 5 feet of movement to step off the ledge, I allow myself to fall. When I hit the ground have I used 15 feet of movement or just 5? Baire: Show that $f\colon \mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}$ is a polynomial in an open bounded set Let $f\colon\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}$ be an infinitely differentiable function, and suppose that for each $x\in\mathbb{R},$ $\exists\  n=n(x)\in\mathbb{N}$ such that $f^{(n)}(x)=0$. For each fixed $n\in\mathbb{N}$, consider the sets $F_n=\{x\in\mathbb{R} : f^{(n)}(x)=0\}$ and let $I=[a,b]$ a finite closed interval.  Show that $$I=\bigcup_{n=0}^\infty(I\cap F_n).$$ Show that there is a non empty open set $A\subset I$ where $f$ is a polynomial.   My attempt:  If $x\in I$ then by hypotesis there is $n$ such that $f^{(n)}(x)=0$ then $x\in F_n$ so then $\bigcup F_n\supset I$ then $$I=I\cap\bigcup_{n=0}^\infty F_n=\bigcup_{n=0}^\infty(I\cap F_n).$$  Let $$B_k=\bigcap_{n=k}^\infty F_n.$$ I want to show that $I\cap B_k$ has non-empty interior for some $k\in\mathbb{N}$. Then there is $A\subset B_k$ and by Taylor's Theorem $f$ will be a polynomial. But I didn't know how to prove this. I tried using the following bigger set: $$B=I\cap\bigcup_{k=0}^\infty B_k=I\cap\bigcup_{k=0}^\infty \bigcap_{n=k}^\infty F_n.$$ I think that it suffices to show that $B^o\neq\emptyset$ maybe using the Baire's Theorem proving that $B$ is a not meagre set.   More general Problem  Let $f$ be an infinitely differentiable function on $[0,1]$ and suppose that for each $x \in [0,1]$ there is an integer $n \in \mathbb{N}$ such that $f^{(n)}(x)=0$. Then does $f$ coincide on $[0,1]$ with some polynomial? If yes then how. I thought of using Weierstrass approximation theorem, but couldn't succeed. Answer: The proof is by contradiction. Assume $f$ is not a polynomial. Consider the following closed sets: $$ S_n = \{x: f^{(n)}(x) = 0\} $$ and $$ X = \{x: \forall (a,b)\ni x: f\restriction_{(a,b)}\text{ is not a polynomial} \}. $$ It is clear that $X$ is a non-empty closed set without isolated points. Applying Baire category theorem to the covering $\{X\cap S_n\}$ of $X$ we get that there exists an interval $(a,b)$ such that $(a,b)\cap X$ is non-empty and $$ (a,b)\cap X\subset S_n $$ for some $n$. Since every $x\in (a,b)\cap X$ is an accumulation point we also have that $x\in S_m$ for all $m\ge n$ and $x\in (a,b)\cap X$. Now consider any maximal interval $(c,e)\subset ((a,b)-X)$. Recall that $f$ is a polynomial of some degree $d$ on $(c,e)$. Therefore $f^{(d)}=\mathrm{const}\neq 0$ on $[c,e]$. Hence $d&lt; n$. (Since either $c$ or $e$ is in $X$.) So we get that $f^{(n)}=0$ on $(a,b)$ which is in contradiction with $(a,b)\cap X$ being non-empty. Confusion about the definition of function Yesterday I was talking to one of my friends about the definition of function. The formal definition of function is given by Cartesian Products but my friend's question was whether it is possible to define a function without being acquainted with any concept of Cartesian Products.   To answer this question I told him the definition of a function may be given by defining a function $f$ from the set $X$ to $Y$, denoted by $f:X\to Y$, to be some "rule" (the word rule being an undefined concept) which associates, to each member of $X$, exactly one element of $Y$.     But my friend said that the definition using the concept of "rule" isn't rigorous and there are examples that don't obey the definition but still is a function in the Cartesian Product sense.    My questions are,   Why the definition of function using concepts such as "rule" isn't rigorous?  Is there really any example which doesn't obey the definition but still is a function in the Cartesian Product sense? Unexpected workspace change? My friend who has only recently downloaded blender has come across a workspace issue. He said he accidentally pressed a button and it has entirely changed his user interface/ Workspace. He can't open, save or do anything with the change.    This is a full window image! How to get a list of applications installed in Ubuntu dash? In Gnome, we have applications grouped up based on their type (like - games, accessories, et al). But in Unity, we need to manually type in the Unity to get the App.  Is there any keyword/utility to display the applications in GUI?  Ubuntu Version : 14.04 Hardware : Dell Inspiron 3437 $X/{\sim}$ is Hausdorff if and only if $\sim$ is closed in $X \times X$ $X$ is a Hausdorff space and $\sim$ is an equivalence relation.  If the quotient map is open, then $X/{\sim}$ is a Hausdorff space if and only if $\sim$ is a closed subset of the product space $X \times X$.  Necessity is obvious, but I don't know how to prove the other side. That is, $\sim$ is a closed subset of the product space $X \times X$ $\Rightarrow$ $X/{\sim}$ is a Hausdorff space. Any advices and comments will be appreciated. How to switch between tty and xorg session Reviewing suggested edit of own post after completing 20 reviews I've completed 20 suggested edits reviews today. Then, I came across a  and I approved it.   Then, I had a doubt that whether the review count has incremented or not, oh! it's not incrementing. System works fine.  But, take a look at review page,     The edit was already reviewed by one reviewer and then I reviewed it. As I'm the Owner of the post it's enough to approve the edit. But, the review history doesn't show the detail that I had approved it. It's misleading that only one vote of a reviewer who is neither the community user nor the OP nor the moderator, is enough.  So, what should we do in this type of situation?  Is it correct to make OP to review the suggested edit after completing daily limit?  Should we need to display/hide the OP has approved the edit in the review history? How can I compute the integral $\int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{dt}{1+t^4}$? I understand the idea of a focal length for a single lens, i e the distance from the lens to the point at which parallel rays of light converge. However, in the case of a photographic lens with multiple lens elements, where exactly is the focal length of the lens as a whole measured from? Comma after introductory words, phrases, clauses: unacceptable, obligatory or optional? how does capacitor work ? how do they conduct electricity ? Sorry, i am novice in electronics, trying to understand basic fundamental of electronics.  1. How does capacitor conduct current when two plates aren't physically connected.