Where is the best place in the stack network to ask questions about or recommendations for 3rd party resources, tools, etc...? The question I'd like to ask is:     I'm looking for a way to understand/test my .PHP code to see which method of doing something is more efficient and/or requires fewer server resources.       Does anyone know of a website, system, or method for testing different versions of code to see which requires the least amount of server resources and/or time?
Stuff like polls, recommendations based on subjective constraints, puzzles, webcomics etc. do not belong on the serious main SE sites, where professionals should be considered at work and having just a few spare minutes ("code's compiling") to answer questions, so they should not be distracted by such things. However, I'd also like to have a home for these things still using the SE engine. For the reason I mentioned before, this needs to be a separate place though. Let's call it four.[sitename-here].com.
"An error occurred when reviewing this item" On approving an edit, I just get this pop up since morning. At first I thought there might be some internet connection issue, but this is now the 3rd to 4th time I got the same error; also, the review is accepted because on refresh I can see my name with approved text beside, but it still throws this error.    I am on a Windows 7 machine, running Firefox 24 (Icognito/Private Mode)    Also, this happens only when edit(1) is written on an question/answer, I don't go to review queue and approve, these reviews were directly loaded from the notification beneath the question/answer.  Martijn Pieters reproduced the problem from the review queue three times; each time the improve option was picked, accepting the suggested edit but editing the post some more. The network console shows that posting to https://stackoverflow.com/review/task-reviewed fails, the server responds with a 404 error:  Request headers: POST /review/task-reviewed HTTP/1.1 Host: stackoverflow.com Connection: keep-alive Content-Length: 137 Accept: application/json, text/javascript, */*; q=0.01 Origin: http://stackoverflow.com X-Requested-With: XMLHttpRequest User-Agent: Mozilla/5.0 (Macintosh; Intel Mac OS X 10_7_5) AppleWebKit/537.36 (KHTML, like Gecko) Chrome/31.0.1650.63 Safari/537.36 Content-Type: application/x-www-form-urlencoded DNT: 1 Referer: https://stackoverflow.com/review/suggested-edits/3575396 Accept-Encoding: gzip,deflate,sdch Accept-Language: en,en-US;q=0.8,nl;q=0.6,nb;q=0.4,no;q=0.2,de;q=0.2,fr;q=0.2 Cookie: &lt;redacted&gt;  POST data: taskTypeId=1&amp;reviewTaskId=3575396&amp;taskResultTypeId=5&amp;fkey=f8791a329b445b658876f4d3afe7961e&amp;postCommentId=null&amp;taskResultSubtypeFlags=null  Response headers: HTTP/1.1 404 Not Found Cache-Control: private Pragma: no-cache Content-Type: application/json X-Frame-Options: SAMEORIGIN Date: Fri, 13 Dec 2013 12:04:53 GMT Content-Length: 0   On the  itself, no record is made of the accept; instead the suggested edit is recorded as approved by 3 people not including Martijn Pieters. In this case the improve review arrived too late.  In , improve again resulted in the error, but the Community account is shown rejecting the edit. How do I tell if a regular file does not exist in Bash? Is there any way of doing something like,  &lt;script runat=server&gt;     Platform.Load("core","1");     //initialize DE     var _Sent = DataExtension.Init("_Sent");     //retrieve data     var _Sent_data = _Sent.Rows.Retrieve();     Write("Length: " + _Sent_data.length); //returns 0 &lt;/script&gt;   What would the external key for a system dataview be? Why does $\lim_{n\to\infty}(1+\frac{1}{n})^n = e$ instead of $1$? On Wikipedia, it says that $\lim_{n\to\infty}(1+\frac{1}{n})^n = e$ :     It [e] is approximately equal to 2.71828,[1] and is the limit of (1 + 1/n)n as n approaches infinity, ... ()   When I evaluate $(1+\frac{1}{n})^n$ for $n = 10^8$, I get approximately $2.718281798347$ which indeed is pretty close to $e$.  But when I try to "solve" the limit using the laws of limits, I get  $$\lim_{n\to\infty}\left(1+\frac{1}{n}\right)^n = \left(\lim_{n\to\infty}\left(1+\frac{1}{n}\right)\right)^n$$  because of the power law  $$ = \left(\lim_{n\to\infty}(1)+\lim_{n\to\infty}\left(\frac{1}{n}\right)\right)^n$$  because of the addition law  $$=\left(1+0\right)^n = 1$$  but that would mean that $e=1$, which is obviously not true.  What am I missing / doing wrong?  Thanks in advance. Get image pixels of prescribed color The package babel with the ngerman option (and most other languages as well, but not english) provides the shorthand "|, which prevents a ligature at the given position (see p. 81 of the , e.g. Auf"|lage will result in the word Auflage without an fl-ligature (as is desired because, in German, you don't want ligatures across morpheme borders).  However, when placed in a macro, "| doesn't work anymore. Why is this and how can I circumvent it?  \documentclass{article}  %\usepackage[T1]{fontenc}% doesn't help \usepackage[ngerman]{babel}  \newcommand{\foo}{"|}  \begin{document}  ff  f"|f  f\foo f  \end{document} using a class defined in a c++ dll in c# code I have a dll that was written in c++, I need to use this dll in my c# code. After searching I found that using P/Invoke would give me access to the function I need, but these functions are defined with in a class and use non-static private member variables. So I need to be able to create an instance of this class to properly use the functions. How can I gain access to this class so that I can create an instance? I have been unable to find a way to do this.   I guess I should note that the c++ dll is not my code. We always say that tree levels are classical but loop diagrams are quantum.  Let's talk about a concrete example： $$\mathcal{L}=\partial_a \phi\partial^a \phi-\frac{g}{4}\phi^4+\phi J$$ where $J$ is source.   The equation of motion is $$\Box \phi=-g \phi^3+J$$  Let's do perturbation, $\phi=\sum \phi_{n}$ and $\phi_n \sim \mathcal{O}(g^n) $. And define Green function $G(x)$ as $$\Box G(x) =\delta^4(x)$$  Then   Zero order:  $\Box \phi_0 = J$   $\phi_0(x)=\int d^4y G(x-y) J(y) $  This solution corresponds to the following diagram:  First order:  $\Box \phi_1 = -g \phi_0^3   $  $\phi_1(x)=-g \int d^4x_1 d^4x_2 d^4x_3 d^4x_4 G(x-x_1)G(x_1-x_2)G(x_1-x_3)G(x_1-x_4)J(x_2)J(x_3)J(x_4) $  This solution corresponds to the following diagram:  Second order:  $\Box \phi_2 = -3g \phi_0^2\phi_1  $  $\phi_2(x)= 3g^2 \int d^4x_1 d^4x_2 d^4x_3 d^4x_4 d^4x_5 d^4yd^4z  G(x-y)G(y-x_1)G(y-x_2)G(y-z)G(z-x_3)G(z-x_4)G(z-x_5) J(x_1)J(x_2)J(x_3)J(x_4)J(x_5) $ This solution corresponds to the following diagram:  Therefore, we've proved in brute force that up to 2nd order, only tree level diagram make contribution.  However in principle the first order can have the loop diagram, such as  but it really does not occur in above classical calculation.  My question is:   What's the crucial point in classical calculation, which forbids the loop diagram to occur? Because the classical calculation seems similiar with quantum calculation. How to prove the general claim rigorously that loop diagram will not occur in above classical perturbative calculation. Hide text using css I have a tag in my html like this:  &lt;h1&gt;My Website Title Here&lt;/h1&gt;   Using css I want to replace the text with my actual logo. I've got the logo there no problem via resizing the tag and putting a background image in via css. However, I can't figure out how to get rid of the text. I've seen it done before basically by pushing the text off the screen. The problem is I can't remember where I saw it. An excited electron loses energy in the form of radiation. The radiation constitutes photons which move at a speed $c$. But is the process of conversion of the energy of the electron into the kinetic energy of the photon instantaneous? Is there a a simple way to visualize this process rather than math? How to properly hook up various maps types in Cycles? I created some texture maps in MindTex to use in Blender, but I can't figure out how to properly hook them up. The maps I have:  - Diffuse  - Normal  - Height   - Specular   - Gloss   - Self Illumination  - Reflection  - Ambient Occlusion   MindTex (left) vs. Blender (right)  As you can clearly see it's a pretty big difference.  is my material node setup in Blender. In the examples I don't actually use self illumination or reflection images, but including this in the answer would be helpful. How to implement keyboard shortcuts on websites I am having Problems converting user rights. I want to assign the following rights to certain files/folders but dont know hat to translate them into a format which chmod will work with like chmod 755.  -rwxrwxrwx    will be?  And  drwxr-xr-x   will be?  And finally  -rw-r--r--   will be? Aufbau principle in modern quantum theory How does linear regression use the normal distribution? In linear regression, each predicted value is assumed to have been picked from a normal distribution of possible values. See below.  But why is each predicted value assumed to have come from a normal distribution? How does linear regression use this assumption? What if possible values are not normally distributed? Find $\lim_{n \to \infty} \left[\frac{(n+1)^{n + 1}}{n^n} - \frac{n^{n}}{(n-1)^{n-1}} \right]$ (a question asked at trivia) My friend's trivia league had this math question:  $$\lim_{n \to \infty} \left[\frac{(n+1)^{n + 1}}{n^n} - \frac{n^{n}}{(n-1)^{n-1}} \right]$$  After computing a few values, one could guess the answer is $e$ = 2.718...But how can we prove that is the limit?  Someone offered up a hand-wavy proof like this:  \begin{align} \lim_{n \to \infty} \left[\frac{(n+1)^{n + 1}}{n^n} - \frac{n^{n}}{(n-1)^{n-1}} \right] &amp; = \lim_{n \to \infty} \left[\frac{(n+1)(n+1)^{n}}{n^n} - \frac{n \cdot n^{n-1}}{(n-1)^{n-1}} \right] \\ &amp;= \lim_{n \to \infty} \left[(n+1)\frac{(n+1)^{n}}{n^n} - n\frac{n^{n-1}}{(n-1)^{n-1}} \right] \\ &amp;= \lim_{n \to \infty} \left[(n+1)\left(1 + \frac{1}{n} \right)^n - n\left(\frac{n - 1 + 1}{n-1} \right)^{{n-1}} \right] \\ &amp;= \lim_{n \to \infty} \left[(n+1)\left(1 + \frac{1}{n} \right)^n - n\left(1 + \frac{1}{n-1} \right)^{n-1} \right] \\ &amp;= \lim_{n \to \infty} \left[(n+1)e - n \cdot e \right] \\ &amp;= \lim_{n \to \infty} e \\ &amp;= e \end{align}  The part about substituting $e$ is hand-wavy since technically this is an indeterminate form of $\infty - \infty$. And using $e$ as as upper bound did not lead me to an easy proof either.  Is there a way to rigorously prove the limit? I tried a few approaches: (a) sandwiching the limit--I could prove $e$ was a lower bound, but I could not find a suitable upper bound converging to $e$, (b) using L'Hopital's rule with no luck, (c) using the mean value theorem--but that also got complicated.  So this is a pretty tough problem to ask at trivia! Is there a way to prove this limit formally?  Sources  Trivia question:   Thread on trivia:   Hand-wavy proof:   Idea for mean value theorem: Quite often, the phrase "x for x's sake" is used in English, and so one could describe someone as being "argumentative for argument's sake" to describe someone who is arguing for the sake of arguing.  However, is there an adjective that means the same thing?  For example, it could be used in the context:     I don't want to be [X], but [argument...]   ... indicating that your argument is necessary and not intended to irritate. Need help with proof for Dedekind cuts on $\mathbb{Q}^+$ I am working on a proof about Dedekind cuts on the positive rational numbers. I have been stuck for a while on the following point and would appreciate any help.  Given $x\in \mathbb{Q}^+$ such that $x^2&lt;2$, how to find $y\in \mathbb{Q}^+$ such $y&gt;x$ and $y^2&lt;2$? We had in our lecture on numerical analysis the following: Let $\mathrm{Lin}(X,Y)$ be the set of all linear maps $X\rightarrow Y$. Let $A\in\mathrm{Lin}(\mathbb R^l,\mathbb R^n)$ and $B\in\mathrm{Lin}(\mathbb R^n,\mathbb R^m)$ and $\|C\|_{op}:=\max_{\|x\|\leq1}\|C(x)\|$. Then our lecturer followed $\|A\circ B\|_{op}\leq\|A\|_{op}\cdot\|B\|_{op}$. So he didn't prove it and so I've tried it by my own. My attempt: $$\begin{aligned} \|A\circ B\|_{\mathrm{op}} &amp;= \max_{\|x\| &lt; 1}\|(A \circ B)(x)\| \\ &amp; \leq \max_{\|x\| &lt; 1} \|A\|_{\mathrm{op}} \|B(x)\| \\ &amp;= \|A\|_{\mathrm{op}} \max_{\|x\|\leq1}\|B(x)\|\\ &amp;= \|A\|_{\mathrm{op}}\|B\|_{\mathrm{op}} \end{aligned}$$ But this seems too easy. I am really interested in a nice proof so anybody could help? Thanks a lot! Prove by induction: $\sum\limits_{k=1}^{n}sin(kx)=\frac{sin(\frac{n+1}{2}x)sin\frac{nx}{2}}{sin\frac{x}{2}}$ $\sum\limits_{k=1}^{n}sin(kx)=\frac{sin(\frac{n+1}{2}x)sin\frac{nx}{2}}{sin\frac{x}{2}}$  Base case: For $n=1$  $sinx=\frac{sinx\cdot sin\frac{x}{2}}{sin\frac{x}{2}}=sinx$  Induction hypothesis: For $n=m$  $\sum\limits_{k=1}^{m}sin(kx)=\frac{sin(\frac{m+1}{2}x)sin\frac{mx}{2}}{sin\frac{x}{2}}$  Induction step: $n=m+1$  $\sum\limits_{k=1}^{m+1}sin(kx)=\frac{sin(\frac{m+2}{2}x)sin\frac{(m+1)x}{2}}{sin\frac{x}{2}}$  Prove: $\frac{sin(\frac{m+1}{2}x)sin\frac{mx}{2}}{sin\frac{x}{2}}+sin(m+1)x=\frac{sin(\frac{m+2}{2}x)sin\frac{(m+1)x}{2}}{sin\frac{x}{2}}$  Left side: $\frac{sin(\frac{m+1}{2}x)sin\frac{mx}{2}+sin\frac{x}{2}sin(m+1)x} {sin\frac{x}{2}}$  How to prove this equality? I used $sin(u)sin(v)$ identity but that didn't help.