lim (x,y)→(0,0) (yx^2)/(x^4+y^2) I don't know how to solve this multi-variable limit with polar coordinates. I tried but it gives me zero and the answer is that this limit doesn't exist.
Consider the following 2-variable function:     $$f(x,y) = \frac{x^2y}{x^4+y^2}$$   I would like to find the limit of this function as $(x,y) \rightarrow (0,0)$.   I used polar coordinates instead of solving explicitly in $\mathbb R^2 $, and it went as the following:  $$ x = r \cos \theta, \qquad y = r\sin\theta $$   Hence,  $$\lim_{(x,y) \to (0,0)} \frac{x^2y}{x^4 + y^2} = \lim_{r \to 0}\frac{r^2\cos^2\theta(r\sin\theta)}{r^4\cos^4\theta + r^2\sin^2\theta}$$  This simplifies to,  $$ \lim_{r \to 0} \frac{r^3 \cos^2\theta\sin\theta}{r^2(r^2\cos^4\theta + \sin^2\theta)}$$  Simplifying $r^3/r^2$, we finally get;  $$\lim_{r \to 0} \frac{r (\cos^2\theta\sin\theta)}{r^2\cos^4\theta + \sin^2\theta}$$  Now from the above, we find that as $r \to 0$ the limit is $0$.   I wanted to verify this answer so I checked on Wolfram Alpha. Explicitly without changing to polar coordinates, it said that the limit does not exist at $(0,0)$ and rightly so. Then how is it that with polar coordinates, the limit exists and is $0$? Am I doing something wrong in this method?  Also, what should I do in this situation, and when should I NOT use polar coordinates to find limits of multi-variable functions?
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I know we need 4 more votes anyway but still...  And no  tag please :) if a complex function $f$ is real-differentiable, then $f$ or $\overline{f}$ are complex-differentiable This is an exercise from Remmert's Theory of Complex functions.  Let $D\subset \mathbb{C}$ be a domain and $f:D\rightarrow \mathbb{C}$ a real-differentiable function. Assume that the following limit exists:  $ \mathrm{lim}_{h\rightarrow 0} \left|  \frac{f(c+h) - f(c)}{h}   \right|.$  Show that either $f$ or $\overline{f}$ is complex-differentiable.  I've tried showing that $\frac{\partial f}{\partial \overline{z}} = 0$ or $\frac{\partial \overline{f}}{\partial z} = 0$ by using the fact that there exist continuous functions $g$ and $h$ such that in $D$ one can write   $f(z) = f(c) + (z-c)g(z) + (\overline{z} - \overline{c})h(z)$   and that  $g(c)= f_{z}(c)$ and $h(c) = f_{\overline{z}}$ and then plugging this into the limit above. Does this approach works and I just can´t see how to do it? 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