I'm starting to dabble with options and I bought the March 20 AAPL 330 call option for $5. AAPL is currently trading around $324 today. If I sell the call option today I will make a small profit on my option, but i'm curious what happens if I don't sell the option and it is in the money at the expiration date and I don't have enough money to actually exercise the option. Does it just expire worthless and I basically lost $500?  Is the idea to always plan to sell a call option if you don't plan to actually exercise it?
As a follow up to my other , I would like to know whether the following is possible:  I have $20,000 in my brokerage account The price of a call option with $300 strike price is $5.00 (1 contract = 100 shares) I buy 20 contracts of these $300 calls (cost is 20 * 5 * 100 = $10,000) The price of the underlying goes up, making my option in-the-money  I decide to exercise my options. Exercising my calls means that I buy 20 * 100 = 2,000 shares of the underlying at $300 per share. However, I only have $10,000 left in my brokerage account and am unable to pay for the shares (2,000 * 300 = $600,000). What now? How does this work? Do brokers recognize that my position is profitable, and buy and sell the underlying for me as soon as I exercise my calls? In other words, do I need to worry about being able to pay for the shares of the underlying if I decide to exercise my options? Can I just take my profit without bothering with the shares at all?
Having a UV maping problem, does anyone know what this is, and how to fix it? Function pointers, Closures, and Lambda I am just now learning about function pointers and, as I was reading the K&amp;R chapter on the subject, the first thing that hit me was, "Hey, this is kinda like a closure." I knew this assumption is fundamentally wrong somehow and after a search online I didn't find really any analysis of this comparison.  So why are C-style function pointers fundamentally different from closures or lambdas? As far as I can tell it has to do with the fact that the function pointer still points to a defined (named) function as opposed to the practice of anonymously defining the function.  Why is passing a function to a function seen as more powerful in the second case, where it is unnamed, than the first where it is just a normal, everyday function that is being passed?  Please tell me how and why I am wrong to compare the two so closely.  Thanks. 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