I'm trying to prove it, but I can't find how.  If a divides b, and c divides d, then a*c divides b*d
I just need to check the reasoning in my proof is correct, I think it is valid although I'm not totally convinced because I can't follow the logic; does proving that $x$ is an integer prove that $ac|bd$?  Theorem: Let $a$, $b$, $c$, $d$ be integers. If $a|b$ and $c|d$, then $ac|bd$.  Proof: $aj=b$ and $ck=d$ for integers $j$, $k$. Then, $ac|bd$ implies $acx=ajck$ and thus $x=jk$ for some $x$. Since the product $jk$ is an integer, $x$ is an integer and thus $acx=ajck$ and thus $ac|bd$.
I am following the first volume of the course of theoretical physics by Landau. So, whatever I say below mainly talks regarding the first 2 chapters of Landau and the approach of deriving Newton's laws from Lagrangian principle supposing Hamilton's principle of extremum action. Please keep this view in mind while reading and answering my queries and kindly neglect the systems to which Action Principle is not applicable:  If we use homogeneity of space in Euler-Lagrange equations, we obtain a remarkable result i.e. the conservation of momentum for a closed system.  Now, this result, using the form of Lagrange for a closed system of particles, transforms into $ \Sigma F = 0 $ . Now, how from this can we conclude that the internal forces that particles exert come in equal and opposite pairs?  Is it because for 2 particles this comes out as $ F_{1} + F_{2} = 0 $ and we take the forces exerted by particles on one other to be independent of other particles (i.e. Superposition Principle) as an experimental fact?  I doubt it as whole of Newtonian Mechanics is derivable from Lagrangian Mechanics and supposed Symmetries. So, according to me, a fact like Newton's Third Law should be derivable from it without using an additional experimental fact.  I have an idea to prove it rigorously. Consider two particles $i$ and $j$. Let the force on $i$ by $j$ be $F_{ij}$ and on $j$ by $i$ be $k_{ij}F_{ij}$. Now the condition becomes $\Sigma (1+k_{ij})F_{ij}=0$ where the terms to be included and rejected in summation understood. As this must be true for any value of $F_{ij}$, we get $k_{ij}=-1$. I don't know if this argument or refinement of such an argument holds or not. I can see many questions arising in this argument and it's not very convincing to me.  I would like to hear from you people as to if it is an experimental result used or not? If not, then is the method given above right or wrong? If wrong, how can we prove it?  Addendum  My method of proof uses the fact of superposition of forces itself, so it is flawed. I have assumed that the coefficients $k_{ij}$ are constants and don't change in the influence of all other particles which is exactly what superposition principle says.  As the superposition of Forces can be derived by superposition of potential energies at a point in space and potential energy being more fundamental in Lagrangian Mechanics, I restate my question as follows:  Is the principle of superposition of potential energies by different sources at a point in space derivable from the inside of Lagrangian Mechanics or is it an experimental fact used in Lagrangian Mechanics?  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