I am managing a Dell R710 server used for some very large non-linear finite element analysis (FEA) computations. Occasionally, these runs will take upwards of 500GB of allocated memory. Since this machine only currently has 132GB of RAM, this additional memory allocation comes through the paging file.  The paging file is current on a spinning HDD array and is causing a huge bottleneck. I have investigated maxing out the memory (288GB) and adding a 400GB Intel 750 NVMe SSD as a dedicated pagefile disk. This should free up some of the pagefile IO bottleneck, but I want to make sure that we don't max out the pagefile and crash a large run.  Short of getting the 800GB Intel 750 for the understood max page file size of 864GB (3x 288GB), can I tell Windows to use the HDD array as a failover for extra pagedisk space? Is there any way to prioritize the SSD as primary for the pagefile? Thanks.
Suppose I have a 6 GB page file on an SSD and another 6 GB page file on a traditional mechanical 5400rpm SATA drive.  Does Windows take into account the difference in the performance characteristics between the two drives when deciding which page file to use?  If it matters, I'm asking about Windows 7 and higher.  I reviewed this  but it doesn't appear to factor in the case of dissimilar storage speeds.
How to scale a tikzpicture to \textwidth Growing a PostGIS geometry by a percentage Schengen visa category required for job interview I've seen the identity $\displaystyle \sum_{i \mathop = 0}^n \binom n i^2 = \binom {2 n} n$ used here recently.  I checked for proofs here   I couldn't have figured out the combinatorial proof by myself, and the inductive proof assumes you already know the answer...  So my question is : do you know how to prove directly through computation that $\displaystyle \sum_{i \mathop = 0}^n \binom n i^2 = \binom {2 n} n$ ? What is the logical form of the definition of validity? My text book gives the definition of validity as "An argument is valid IFF if the premises are true, then the conclusion must be true". Using a conditional elimination on the RHS of the IFF yields "An argument is valid IFF the premises are false or the conclusion is true".   Yet, this seems strange to me. Am I doing something incorrect with my manipulation or is this definition actually true? Surely the criteria for a valid argument goes beyond a false set of premises or a true conclusion. I was so good with windows, now I’m feeling like a complete idiot.  I have an SSD for ubuntu and want to install the majority of my programs to a separate HDD but I have no clue how. All searches I have tried only turn up with dual-boot installations.   (RESOLVED -> ) I am also having trouble locating "/etc/". Specifically, to modify Conky. Searching for this term only turns up instances where people are telling you to access this file, not how to get to it. Why does nothing show up in the Compositing tab? I am trying to follow Blender Guru's beginner tutorial. He went to the Compositor tab and was using it to Denoise an image but when I got there, no nodes show up. Can you guys help? I know that VARIABLE=value creates an environment variable, and export VARIABLE=value makes it available to processes created by the current shell. env shows the current environment variables, but where do they live? What comprises an environment variable (or an environment, for that matter)? My Ubuntu 16.04 keeps disconnecting from the Wi-Fi (eduroam). Why? I haven't noticed any pattern and I'm sure the Wi-Fi works perfectly because I have no problems with the same computer using Windows 10. The Wi-Fi doesn't turn off though, it simply disconnects from the network and reconnects after about a couple of minutes.  I ran this and got:  lspci -knn | grep Net -A2 03:00.0 Network controller [0280]: Qualcomm Atheros AR9462 Wireless Network Adapter [168c:0034] (rev 01) Subsystem: AzureWave AR9462 Wireless Network Adapter [1a3b:2234] Kernel driver in use: ath9k Kernel modules: ath9k   Also running dmesg  Among the many messages the last one is:  [ 3818.806656] wlp3s0: Limiting TX power to 5 dBm as advertised by 00:23:eb:39:28:21   Any idea why this is happening?  Thank you. What is hard reset and what is factory reset? It is mentioned at  that one should do Factory reset or hard reset. I'm a bit confused about what is hard reset?  Factory reset I suppose is using the option in settings to reset phone to the factory state i.e. when it was unboxed. "Stack Overflow requires external JavaScript from another domain" message is error 404  Well, it seems that Wget picks it up so the last statement is false and the exact message is:  Error 6 (net::ERR_FILE_NOT_FOUND): The file or directory could not be found.   and it loads in Chrome once after I clear the cache but not after. C# "internal" access modifier when doing unit testing I'm new to unit testing and I'm trying to figure out if I should start using more of internal access modifier. I know that if we use internal and set the assembly variable InternalsVisibleTo, we can test functions that we don't want to declare public from the testing project. This makes me think that I should just always use internal because at least each project (should?) have its own testing project. Can you guys tell me why I shouldn't do this? When should I use private? Close and flag links do nothing on mobile site What is $dx$ in integration? Is there a way to crack the password on an Excel VBA Project? Are battery packs allowed in hand luggage? Proof Verification : Prove -(-a)=a using only ordered field axioms I need to prove for all real numbers $a$, $-(-a) = a$ using only the following axioms:     Thanks to many members of the Mathematics Stackexchange Community, I have the following proof worked out:  Theorem: The Additive Inverse Identity is Unique  $ ( \forall a,b,c \in \mathbb{R} )(a+b=0) \land (a+c=0) \\ ( \forall a,b,c \in \mathbb{R} )(a+b=a+c) \\ ( \forall a,b,c \in \mathbb{R} )(b=c) \\ \text{QED} \\ $  Theorem $\textbf{a} \cdot \textbf{0 = 0}$  $ \begin{align} a \cdot 0 &amp;= a \cdot 0 \\ a \cdot (0 + 0) &amp;= a \cdot 0 \\ a \cdot 0 + a \cdot 0 &amp;= a \cdot 0 \\ a \cdot 0 + a \cdot 0 + (-a) \cdot 0 &amp;= a \cdot 0 + (-a) \cdot 0 \\ a \cdot 0 &amp;= 0 \\ &amp;\text{QED} \\ \end{align} $  Theorem: $-\textbf{1} \cdot \textbf{(a) = (}-\textbf{a)}$  $ \begin{align} a \cdot 0 &amp;= 0 \\ a \cdot \left[ 1 + (-1) \right] &amp;= a + (-a) \\ 1 \cdot a + (-1) \cdot a &amp;= a + (-a) \\ -1 \cdot (a) &amp;= (-a) \\ &amp;\text{QED} \\ \end{align} $  Theorem: $-\textbf{(}-\textbf{a) = a}$  $ \begin{align} 0 &amp;= 0 \\ -a \cdot 0 &amp;= 0 \\ -a \cdot \left[ 1 + (-1) \right] &amp;= 0 \\ -a \cdot 1 + -a \cdot (-1) &amp;= 0 \\ -a + \left[ -(-a) \right] &amp;= 0 \\ -(-a) &amp;= a \\ \text{QED} \\ \end{align} $  Does everything look alright? Have I missed anything?  Also--why is it necessary to show that the additive inverse is unique?  Many thanks in advance. c stdout print without new line? I know people love to close duplicates so I am not asking for a reference to start learning statistics (as ).   I have a doctorate in mathematics but never learned statistics. What is the shortest route to the equivalent knowledge to a top notch BS statistics degree and how do I measure when I have achieved that.   If a list of books would suffice (assuming I do the exercises lets say), that's terrific. Yes, I expect working out problems to be an implicit part of learning it but I want to fast track as much as realistically possible. I am not looking for an insanely rigorous treatment unless that is part of what statistical majors generally learn. How do I rigorously show $f(z)$ is analytic if and only if $\overline{f(\bar{z})}$ is? I'm doing a bit of self study, but I'm uncomfortable with a certain idea. I want to show that $f(z)$ is analytic if and only if $\overline{f(\bar{z})}$ is analytic, and by analytic I mean differentiable at each point. Here $f$ is a complex valued function.  What I do is write $f(z)=u(x,y)+iv(x,y)$, where $u$ and $v$ are real functions of two variables. Then $\overline{f(\bar{z})}=u(x,-y)-iv(x,-y)$.  These two forms look very similar, in the sense the one function being differentiable should immediately imply the other is differentiable, since the only thing really changing might be a $-$ sign popping out due to the chain rule.   How can I more rigorously express that $f(z)$ is analytic iff $\overline{f(\bar{z})}$ using this? Many thanks.