 even if the doctrine was absolute immunity. So what do you say about that? Two things in response to that. First, to the last point, that allegation that this was really motivated by an improper private purpose could be made in every single case. No, I understand that. But it would have to be made. I'm just trying to assess. Even if we had the doctrine of absolute immunity, that same allegation and the facts related to it would come in because the person would be arguing that he was not acting in his official capacity. He wasn't doing something