 The question is whether he's using his official power, not the reason for his using official power. So as long as he's using his official power in exchange for a bribe, I think there's a strong argument that that would be protected activity now under Article 2 of the Constitution. Meaning that the president would get away with taking that bribe, you think? Right. He'd be untouchable and there'd be no disincentive, at least personal disincentive, from taking the bribe or