id
stringlengths
9
14
conversations
listlengths
2
2
text
stringlengths
231
5.9k
PubmedQA74100
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Telemetry monitoring is a widely used, labor-intensive, and often-limited resource. Little is known of the effectiveness of methods to guide appropriate use. Our intervention for appropriate use included: (1) a hospitalist-led, daily review of bed utilization, (2) hospitalist-driven education module for trainees, (3) quarterly feedback of telemetry usage, and (4) financial incentives. Hospitalists were encouraged to discuss daily telemetry utilization on rounds. A module on appropriate telemetry usage was taught by hospitalists during the intervention period (January 2013-August 2013) on medicine wards. Pre- and post-evaluations measured changes regarding telemetry use. We compared hospital bed-use data between the baseline period (January 2012-December 2012), intervention period, and extension period (September 2014-March 2015). During the intervention period, hospital bed-use data were sent to the hospitalist group quarterly. Financial incentives were provided after a decrease in hospitalist telemetry utilization. Stanford Hospital, a 444-bed, academic medical center in Stanford, California. Hospitalists saw reductions for both length of stay (LOS) (2.75 vs 2.13 days, P = 0.005) and total cost (22.5% reduction) for telemetry bed utilization in the intervention period. Nonhospitalists telemetry bed utilization remained unchanged. We saw significant improvements in trainee knowledge of the most cost-saving action (P = 0.002) and the least cost-saving action (P = 0.003) in the pre- and post-evaluation analyses. Results were sustained in the hospitalist group, with telemetry LOS of 1.93 days in the extension period.\n Question: Does hospitalist intervention for appropriate use of telemetry reduce length of stay and cost?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: Telemetry monitoring is a widely used, labor-intensive, and often-limited resource. Little is known of the effectiveness of methods to guide appropriate use. Our intervention for appropriate use included: (1) a hospitalist-led, daily review of bed utilization, (2) hospitalist-driven education module for trainees, (3) quarterly feedback of telemetry usage, and (4) financial incentives. Hospitalists were encouraged to discuss daily telemetry utilization on rounds. A module on appropriate telemetry usage was taught by hospitalists during the intervention period (January 2013-August 2013) on medicine wards. Pre- and post-evaluations measured changes regarding telemetry use. We compared hospital bed-use data between the baseline period (January 2012-December 2012), intervention period, and extension period (September 2014-March 2015). During the intervention period, hospital bed-use data were sent to the hospitalist group quarterly. Financial incentives were provided after a decrease in hospitalist telemetry utilization. Stanford Hospital, a 444-bed, academic medical center in Stanford, California. Hospitalists saw reductions for both length of stay (LOS) (2.75 vs 2.13 days, P = 0.005) and total cost (22.5% reduction) for telemetry bed utilization in the intervention period. Nonhospitalists telemetry bed utilization remained unchanged. We saw significant improvements in trainee knowledge of the most cost-saving action (P = 0.002) and the least cost-saving action (P = 0.003) in the pre- and post-evaluation analyses. Results were sustained in the hospitalist group, with telemetry LOS of 1.93 days in the extension period. Question: Does hospitalist intervention for appropriate use of telemetry reduce length of stay and cost? Output:
PubmedQA107403
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: HbA(1c) variability has been shown to be an independent risk factor for nephropathy in patients with type 1 diabetes. In this study, we aimed to explore the association between HbA(1c) variability and microalbuminuria development in patients with type 2 diabetes. We also intended to test the applicability of serially measured HbA(1c) over 2 years for this risk assessment. Between 2003 and 2005, we recruited 821 middle-aged normoalbuminuric individuals with type 2 diabetes and followed them through to the end of 2010. The average follow-up time was 6.2 years. We defined microalbuminuria as a urine albumin to creatinine ratio of 30 mg/g (3.4 mg/mmol) or higher. HbA(1c) variability was calculated by the SD of serially measured HbA(1c). The Cox proportional hazards model was used to evaluate the association between HbA(1c) SD quartile and development of microalbuminuria. The incidence of microalbuminuria for the overall population was 58.4, 58.6, 60.8 and 91.9 per 1,000 person-years for Q1- to Q4-adjusted HbA(1c) SD, respectively (p for trend = 0.042). Compared with patients in Q1, those in Q4 were about 37% more likely to develop microalbuminuria. The HR derived from a series of 2 year HbA(1c) measurements was similar to that from data collection for longer than 4 years.\n Question: Is hbA1c variability associated with microalbuminuria development in type 2 diabetes : a 7-year prospective cohort study?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: HbA(1c) variability has been shown to be an independent risk factor for nephropathy in patients with type 1 diabetes. In this study, we aimed to explore the association between HbA(1c) variability and microalbuminuria development in patients with type 2 diabetes. We also intended to test the applicability of serially measured HbA(1c) over 2 years for this risk assessment. Between 2003 and 2005, we recruited 821 middle-aged normoalbuminuric individuals with type 2 diabetes and followed them through to the end of 2010. The average follow-up time was 6.2 years. We defined microalbuminuria as a urine albumin to creatinine ratio of 30 mg/g (3.4 mg/mmol) or higher. HbA(1c) variability was calculated by the SD of serially measured HbA(1c). The Cox proportional hazards model was used to evaluate the association between HbA(1c) SD quartile and development of microalbuminuria. The incidence of microalbuminuria for the overall population was 58.4, 58.6, 60.8 and 91.9 per 1,000 person-years for Q1- to Q4-adjusted HbA(1c) SD, respectively (p for trend = 0.042). Compared with patients in Q1, those in Q4 were about 37% more likely to develop microalbuminuria. The HR derived from a series of 2 year HbA(1c) measurements was similar to that from data collection for longer than 4 years. Question: Is hbA1c variability associated with microalbuminuria development in type 2 diabetes : a 7-year prospective cohort study? Output:
PubmedQA191584
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Oligodeoxynucleotides (ODNs) containing the dinucleotide CpG in a specific sequence context (CpG-ODNs) have the ability to prevent the development of eosinophilic airway inflammation and bronchial hyperreactivity in a murine model of asthma. We have previously demonstrated that CpG-ODNs stimulate expression of the T(H1)-inducing cytokines IFN-gamma and IL-12 in a murine model of asthma and that this stimulation is associated with the protection against asthmatic inflammation. The purpose of this study was to examine whether the protection conferred by CpG-ODNs in a schistosome egg-egg antigen murine model of asthma is dependent on the induction of IFN-gamma, IL-12, or both. C57BL/6 mice were sensitized to schistosome eggs in the presence or absence of CpG-ODNs or control ODNs and then stimulated with soluble egg antigen in the airway. The protection offered by CpG-ODNs in these mice was compared with the protection induced by CpG-ODNs in IL-12 and IFN-gamma knockout mice and in mice treated with anticytokine blocking antibodies. Double-knockout mice (IL-12/IFN-gamma) were also generated and used in these studies. Determinations included airway eosinophilic inflammation and bronchial hyperreactivity to inhaled methacholine. We found that CpG-ODNs confer protection against both airway eosinophilia and bronchial hyperreactivity in the absence of IFN-gamma or IL-12 or in the presence of both cytokines together. However, in the absence of either IL-12 or IFN-gamma, mice require 10 times as much CpG-ODNs to be protected against the induction of airway eosinophilia. The T(H2) cytokines IL-4 and IL-5 were reduced in all of the CpG-treated mice, although less in the absence of IL-12 and IFN-gamma.\n Question: Do cpG oligodeoxynucleotides require TH1 cytokines to prevent eosinophilic airway inflammation in a murine model of asthma?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "no" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: Oligodeoxynucleotides (ODNs) containing the dinucleotide CpG in a specific sequence context (CpG-ODNs) have the ability to prevent the development of eosinophilic airway inflammation and bronchial hyperreactivity in a murine model of asthma. We have previously demonstrated that CpG-ODNs stimulate expression of the T(H1)-inducing cytokines IFN-gamma and IL-12 in a murine model of asthma and that this stimulation is associated with the protection against asthmatic inflammation. The purpose of this study was to examine whether the protection conferred by CpG-ODNs in a schistosome egg-egg antigen murine model of asthma is dependent on the induction of IFN-gamma, IL-12, or both. C57BL/6 mice were sensitized to schistosome eggs in the presence or absence of CpG-ODNs or control ODNs and then stimulated with soluble egg antigen in the airway. The protection offered by CpG-ODNs in these mice was compared with the protection induced by CpG-ODNs in IL-12 and IFN-gamma knockout mice and in mice treated with anticytokine blocking antibodies. Double-knockout mice (IL-12/IFN-gamma) were also generated and used in these studies. Determinations included airway eosinophilic inflammation and bronchial hyperreactivity to inhaled methacholine. We found that CpG-ODNs confer protection against both airway eosinophilia and bronchial hyperreactivity in the absence of IFN-gamma or IL-12 or in the presence of both cytokines together. However, in the absence of either IL-12 or IFN-gamma, mice require 10 times as much CpG-ODNs to be protected against the induction of airway eosinophilia. The T(H2) cytokines IL-4 and IL-5 were reduced in all of the CpG-treated mice, although less in the absence of IL-12 and IFN-gamma. Question: Do cpG oligodeoxynucleotides require TH1 cytokines to prevent eosinophilic airway inflammation in a murine model of asthma? Output:
PubmedQA200212
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Although perianal streptococcal dermatitis (PSD) is well known in children, it has only rarely been documented in adults. The incidence and necessity for treatment may be underestimated. We have retrospectively identified adult patients with perianal streptococcal dermatitis. Patients with streptococcal anal dermatitis were identified from a prospective office database. Treatment was with oral antibiotics according to the organism sensitivity. Additional concomitant anorectal disease was treated according to standard guidelines. Patients were compared with a control group, without eczema or erythema, for the presence of β-haemolysing Streptococci on perianal swab. Demographic and microbiological data were assessed and compared between and within treatment and control groups. Fifty-three (22 female) patients older than 20 (mean = 49) years of age were diagnosed with perianal streptococcal dermatitis between 2005 and 2009. In most cases group B β-haemolytic Streptococci were found. Fifty patients received antibiotics for 14 days. In 28 of 33 patients who had a post-treatment swab, the result was negative. Five patients showed Streptococci of different groups in the post-treatment swab. Of the 50 patients, 21 (42%) had no further anorectal complaint and 29 (58%) required continuing treatment for another anorectal condition. In the control group β-haemolysing Streptococcus was found in 34%. Men over 60 years of age more often required no further anorectal treatment compared with women (P < 0.05).\n Question: Is perianal streptococcal dermatitis in adults : its association with pruritic anorectal diseases mainly caused by group B Streptococci?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: Although perianal streptococcal dermatitis (PSD) is well known in children, it has only rarely been documented in adults. The incidence and necessity for treatment may be underestimated. We have retrospectively identified adult patients with perianal streptococcal dermatitis. Patients with streptococcal anal dermatitis were identified from a prospective office database. Treatment was with oral antibiotics according to the organism sensitivity. Additional concomitant anorectal disease was treated according to standard guidelines. Patients were compared with a control group, without eczema or erythema, for the presence of β-haemolysing Streptococci on perianal swab. Demographic and microbiological data were assessed and compared between and within treatment and control groups. Fifty-three (22 female) patients older than 20 (mean = 49) years of age were diagnosed with perianal streptococcal dermatitis between 2005 and 2009. In most cases group B β-haemolytic Streptococci were found. Fifty patients received antibiotics for 14 days. In 28 of 33 patients who had a post-treatment swab, the result was negative. Five patients showed Streptococci of different groups in the post-treatment swab. Of the 50 patients, 21 (42%) had no further anorectal complaint and 29 (58%) required continuing treatment for another anorectal condition. In the control group β-haemolysing Streptococcus was found in 34%. Men over 60 years of age more often required no further anorectal treatment compared with women (P < 0.05). Question: Is perianal streptococcal dermatitis in adults : its association with pruritic anorectal diseases mainly caused by group B Streptococci? Output:
PubmedQA142491
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: The ABCC8 gene encodes the sulfonylurea receptor 1 (SUR1) subunit of the pancreatic beta cell ATP-sensitive potassium (K(ATP)) channel. Inactivating mutations cause congenital hyperinsulinism (CHI) and activating mutations cause transient neonatal diabetes (TNDM) or permanent neonatal diabetes (PNDM) that can usually be treated with sulfonylureas. Sulfonylurea sensitivity is also a feature of HNF1A and HNF4A MODY, but patients referred for genetic testing with clinical features of these types of diabetes do not always have mutations in the HNF1A/4A genes. Our aim was to establish whether mutations in the ABCC8 gene cause MODY that is responsive to sulfonylurea therapy. We sequenced the ABCC8 gene in 85 patients with a BMI <30 kg/m², no family history of neonatal diabetes and who were deemed sensitive to sulfonylureas by the referring clinician or were sulfonylurea-treated. All had tested negative for mutations in the HNF1A and HNF4A genes. ABCC8 mutations were found in seven of the 85 (8%) probands. Four patients were heterozygous for previously reported mutations and four novel mutations, E100K, G214R, Q485R and N1245D, were identified. Only four probands fulfilled MODY criteria, with two diagnosed after 25 years and one patient, who had no family history of diabetes, as a result of a proven de novo mutation.\n Question: Are heterozygous ABCC8 mutations a cause of MODY?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: The ABCC8 gene encodes the sulfonylurea receptor 1 (SUR1) subunit of the pancreatic beta cell ATP-sensitive potassium (K(ATP)) channel. Inactivating mutations cause congenital hyperinsulinism (CHI) and activating mutations cause transient neonatal diabetes (TNDM) or permanent neonatal diabetes (PNDM) that can usually be treated with sulfonylureas. Sulfonylurea sensitivity is also a feature of HNF1A and HNF4A MODY, but patients referred for genetic testing with clinical features of these types of diabetes do not always have mutations in the HNF1A/4A genes. Our aim was to establish whether mutations in the ABCC8 gene cause MODY that is responsive to sulfonylurea therapy. We sequenced the ABCC8 gene in 85 patients with a BMI <30 kg/m², no family history of neonatal diabetes and who were deemed sensitive to sulfonylureas by the referring clinician or were sulfonylurea-treated. All had tested negative for mutations in the HNF1A and HNF4A genes. ABCC8 mutations were found in seven of the 85 (8%) probands. Four patients were heterozygous for previously reported mutations and four novel mutations, E100K, G214R, Q485R and N1245D, were identified. Only four probands fulfilled MODY criteria, with two diagnosed after 25 years and one patient, who had no family history of diabetes, as a result of a proven de novo mutation. Question: Are heterozygous ABCC8 mutations a cause of MODY? Output:
PubmedQA99594
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Even with the improvements in surgical techniques and perioperative care, obesity is still a risk factor for occurrence of adverse events following cardiac surgery. In this observational, retrospective study, we aimed to document the effects of obesity on surgical outcomes in patients undergoing coronary artery bypass surgery and find out the effects of improvements in cardiac surgery. Between January 2011 and March 2013, isolated coronary artery bypass surgery was performed on 790 patients. The body mass index values of the patients were calculated and patients were divided into two groups; below 30 were classified as non-obese group whereas above 30 were classified as obese group. The odds ratio was obtained by using univariate analysis in order to document the effects of obesity on outcomes. There were 548 (69.3%) patients in non-obese group, whereas 242 (30.7%) patients in obese group. The cardiopulmonary bypass (80.47±23.58 vs. 80.89±28.46, p=0.449) and aortic clamp times (54.13±16.60 vs. 54.19±19.85, p=0.511) and number of bypass grafts (3.09±1.02 vs. 2.96±1.00, p=0.11) were comparable between the groups. The mean number of fresh frozen plasma used was higher in obese patients (1.37±1.75 vs. 1.48±4.63, p=0.02). Intubation time was higher in obese patients (10.57±6.87 vs. 12.71±35.31, p=0.014). Total amount of postoperative drainage was higher in non-obese patients (766.77±472.27 vs. 648.72±371.39, p<0.001). The superficial infection/mediastenitis (0.4% vs. 2.5%, p=0.012), dehiscence (0.2% vs. 3.7%, p<0.001) and postoperative renal failure rates (4.7% vs. 8.7%, p=0.031) were higher in obese patients. The incidence of atrial fibrillation was lower in obese patients (19.7% vs. 12.8%, p=0.019). The mortality (0.5% vs. 1.7%, p=0.210) and postoperative stroke rates (1.1% vs. 0.8%, p=1.000) were similar in both groups.\n Question: Is obesity still a risk factor in coronary artery bypass surgery?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: Even with the improvements in surgical techniques and perioperative care, obesity is still a risk factor for occurrence of adverse events following cardiac surgery. In this observational, retrospective study, we aimed to document the effects of obesity on surgical outcomes in patients undergoing coronary artery bypass surgery and find out the effects of improvements in cardiac surgery. Between January 2011 and March 2013, isolated coronary artery bypass surgery was performed on 790 patients. The body mass index values of the patients were calculated and patients were divided into two groups; below 30 were classified as non-obese group whereas above 30 were classified as obese group. The odds ratio was obtained by using univariate analysis in order to document the effects of obesity on outcomes. There were 548 (69.3%) patients in non-obese group, whereas 242 (30.7%) patients in obese group. The cardiopulmonary bypass (80.47±23.58 vs. 80.89±28.46, p=0.449) and aortic clamp times (54.13±16.60 vs. 54.19±19.85, p=0.511) and number of bypass grafts (3.09±1.02 vs. 2.96±1.00, p=0.11) were comparable between the groups. The mean number of fresh frozen plasma used was higher in obese patients (1.37±1.75 vs. 1.48±4.63, p=0.02). Intubation time was higher in obese patients (10.57±6.87 vs. 12.71±35.31, p=0.014). Total amount of postoperative drainage was higher in non-obese patients (766.77±472.27 vs. 648.72±371.39, p<0.001). The superficial infection/mediastenitis (0.4% vs. 2.5%, p=0.012), dehiscence (0.2% vs. 3.7%, p<0.001) and postoperative renal failure rates (4.7% vs. 8.7%, p=0.031) were higher in obese patients. The incidence of atrial fibrillation was lower in obese patients (19.7% vs. 12.8%, p=0.019). The mortality (0.5% vs. 1.7%, p=0.210) and postoperative stroke rates (1.1% vs. 0.8%, p=1.000) were similar in both groups. Question: Is obesity still a risk factor in coronary artery bypass surgery? Output:
PubmedQA58307
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Albumin and prealbumin are associated with nutritional status and inflammatory status. Each has a residual effect on mortality outcomes when included in regression models that include the other. Prealbumin is increased in the obese mouse model as a consequence of stabilization of prealbumin by retinol binding protein 4 (RBP4) secreted by adipocytes. We carried out this study to establish the contribution of adiposity to prealbumin levels in prevalent patients receiving dialysis and the relationship of prealbumin to RBP4. We determined whether prealbumin was associated with adiposity in patients receiving hemodialysis (HD), controlling for the effects of inflammation and nutrition. We evaluated body composition in 48 prevalent patients receiving HD by magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), measuring total skeletal muscle mass (SM), visceral adipose tissue (VAT), subcutaneous adipose tissue (SAT), and serum albumin, prealbumin, RBP4, and interleukin-6 (IL-6) levels. We used normalized protein catabolic rate (nPCR) to report nutrition and separately analyzed the determinants of albumin and then of prealbumin by multiple stepwise regression. Thirty-two patients were women, 16 patients were diabetic, and median age and body mass index were 54.5 and 27.3 kg/m(2), respectively. Median total adipose tissue (TAT) was 24.3 kg and VAT was 3.25 kg. Prealbumin was positively associated with VAT, nPCR, and RBP4 and was negatively associated with IL-6; r(2) for the model was 0.64. By contrast, albumin was positively associated with nPCR and negatively associated with IL-6 but not with any measure of adiposity (r(2) for the model = 0.2).\n Question: Is prealbumin associated with visceral fat mass in patients receiving hemodialysis?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: Albumin and prealbumin are associated with nutritional status and inflammatory status. Each has a residual effect on mortality outcomes when included in regression models that include the other. Prealbumin is increased in the obese mouse model as a consequence of stabilization of prealbumin by retinol binding protein 4 (RBP4) secreted by adipocytes. We carried out this study to establish the contribution of adiposity to prealbumin levels in prevalent patients receiving dialysis and the relationship of prealbumin to RBP4. We determined whether prealbumin was associated with adiposity in patients receiving hemodialysis (HD), controlling for the effects of inflammation and nutrition. We evaluated body composition in 48 prevalent patients receiving HD by magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), measuring total skeletal muscle mass (SM), visceral adipose tissue (VAT), subcutaneous adipose tissue (SAT), and serum albumin, prealbumin, RBP4, and interleukin-6 (IL-6) levels. We used normalized protein catabolic rate (nPCR) to report nutrition and separately analyzed the determinants of albumin and then of prealbumin by multiple stepwise regression. Thirty-two patients were women, 16 patients were diabetic, and median age and body mass index were 54.5 and 27.3 kg/m(2), respectively. Median total adipose tissue (TAT) was 24.3 kg and VAT was 3.25 kg. Prealbumin was positively associated with VAT, nPCR, and RBP4 and was negatively associated with IL-6; r(2) for the model was 0.64. By contrast, albumin was positively associated with nPCR and negatively associated with IL-6 but not with any measure of adiposity (r(2) for the model = 0.2). Question: Is prealbumin associated with visceral fat mass in patients receiving hemodialysis? Output:
PubmedQA151456
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Both oxidative stress and endoplasmic reticulum stress (ER stress) are causal events in diabetic embryopathy. We tested whether oxidative stress causes ER stress. Wild-type (WT) and superoxide dismutase 1 (SOD1)-overexpressing day 8.75 embryos from nondiabetic WT control with SOD1 transgenic male and diabetic WT female with SOD1 transgenic male were analyzed for ER stress markers: C/EBP-homologous protein (CHOP), calnexin, eukaryotic initiation factor 2α (eIF2α), protein kinase ribonucleic acid (RNA)-like ER kinase (PERK), binding immunoglobulin protein, protein disulfide isomerase family A member 3, kinases inositol-requiring protein-1α (IRE1α), and the X-box binding protein (XBP1) messenger RNA (mRNA) splicing. Maternal diabetes significantly increased the levels of CHOP, calnexin, phosphorylated (p)-eIF2α, p-PERK, and p-IRE1α; triggered XBP1 mRNA splicing; and enhanced ER chaperone gene expression in WT embryos. SOD1 overexpression blocked these diabetes-induced ER stress markers.\n Question: Does superoxide dismutase 1 overexpression in mice abolish maternal diabetes-induced endoplasmic reticulum stress in diabetic embryopathy?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: Both oxidative stress and endoplasmic reticulum stress (ER stress) are causal events in diabetic embryopathy. We tested whether oxidative stress causes ER stress. Wild-type (WT) and superoxide dismutase 1 (SOD1)-overexpressing day 8.75 embryos from nondiabetic WT control with SOD1 transgenic male and diabetic WT female with SOD1 transgenic male were analyzed for ER stress markers: C/EBP-homologous protein (CHOP), calnexin, eukaryotic initiation factor 2α (eIF2α), protein kinase ribonucleic acid (RNA)-like ER kinase (PERK), binding immunoglobulin protein, protein disulfide isomerase family A member 3, kinases inositol-requiring protein-1α (IRE1α), and the X-box binding protein (XBP1) messenger RNA (mRNA) splicing. Maternal diabetes significantly increased the levels of CHOP, calnexin, phosphorylated (p)-eIF2α, p-PERK, and p-IRE1α; triggered XBP1 mRNA splicing; and enhanced ER chaperone gene expression in WT embryos. SOD1 overexpression blocked these diabetes-induced ER stress markers. Question: Does superoxide dismutase 1 overexpression in mice abolish maternal diabetes-induced endoplasmic reticulum stress in diabetic embryopathy? Output:
PubmedQA31556
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Sphingosine-1-phosphate (S1P) regulates the egress of T cells from lymphoid organs; levels of S1P in the tissues are controlled by S1P lyase (Sgpl1). Hence, Sgpl1 offers a target to block T cell-dependent inflammatory processes. However, the involvement of Sgpl1 in models of disease has not been fully elucidated yet, since Sgpl1 KO mice have a short life-span. We generated inducible Sgpl1 KO mice featuring partial reduction of Sgpl1 activity and analyzed them with respect to sphingolipid levels, T-cell distribution, and response in models of inflammation. The partially Sgpl1 deficient mice are viable but feature profound reduction of peripheral T cells, similar to the constitutive KO mice. While thymic T cell development in these mice appears normal, mature T cells are retained in thymus and lymph nodes, leading to reduced T cell numbers in spleen and blood, with a skewing towards increased proportions of memory T cells and T regulatory cells. The therapeutic relevance of Sgpl1 is demonstrated by the fact that the inducible KO mice are protected in experimental autoimmune encephalomyelitis (EAE). T cell immigration into the CNS was found to be profoundly reduced. Since S1P levels in the brain of the animals are unchanged, we conclude that protection in EAE is due to the peripheral effect on T cells, leading to reduced CNS immigration, rather than on local effects in the CNS.\n Question: Does partial deficiency of sphingosine-1-phosphate lyase confer protection in experimental autoimmune encephalomyelitis?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: Sphingosine-1-phosphate (S1P) regulates the egress of T cells from lymphoid organs; levels of S1P in the tissues are controlled by S1P lyase (Sgpl1). Hence, Sgpl1 offers a target to block T cell-dependent inflammatory processes. However, the involvement of Sgpl1 in models of disease has not been fully elucidated yet, since Sgpl1 KO mice have a short life-span. We generated inducible Sgpl1 KO mice featuring partial reduction of Sgpl1 activity and analyzed them with respect to sphingolipid levels, T-cell distribution, and response in models of inflammation. The partially Sgpl1 deficient mice are viable but feature profound reduction of peripheral T cells, similar to the constitutive KO mice. While thymic T cell development in these mice appears normal, mature T cells are retained in thymus and lymph nodes, leading to reduced T cell numbers in spleen and blood, with a skewing towards increased proportions of memory T cells and T regulatory cells. The therapeutic relevance of Sgpl1 is demonstrated by the fact that the inducible KO mice are protected in experimental autoimmune encephalomyelitis (EAE). T cell immigration into the CNS was found to be profoundly reduced. Since S1P levels in the brain of the animals are unchanged, we conclude that protection in EAE is due to the peripheral effect on T cells, leading to reduced CNS immigration, rather than on local effects in the CNS. Question: Does partial deficiency of sphingosine-1-phosphate lyase confer protection in experimental autoimmune encephalomyelitis? Output:
PubmedQA1439
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Hypocalcemia is the most common complication after total thyroidectomy. Some patients need to stay in the hospital for monitoring of hypocalcemic symptoms and serum calcium levels for several days. We investigated the efficacy and safety of using early postoperative parathyroid hormone (PTH) results for early discharge after thyroidectomy. A retrospective cohort study of 2 sequential groups of patients undergoing total thyroidectomy between January 2010 and March 2013 was undertaken. Patients were divided into 2 groups. In Group 1 (before June 2011), patients had daily monitoring of serum calcium level and hypocalcemic symptoms. They were discharged when calcium level was static and asymptomatic. Postoperative PTH was not utilized for discharge plan. In Group 2 (after June 2011), postoperative PTH and calcium level on day 1 were utilized to dictate subsequent management and discharge plan. Of the 107 patients reviewed, 54 (50.5%) were in Group 1 and 53 (49.5%) were in Group 2. A total of 51 (47.7%) patients developed hypocalcemia. The two groups were comparable in demographic data, early postoperative PTH value, rate of hypocalcemia, the need for oral calcium and vitamin D supplements and rate of permanent hypoparathyroidism. Fewer patients in Group 2 experienced hypocalcemic symptoms, p=0.005. None of the patients in Group 2 needed intravenous calcium supplement (p=0.003). The median postoperative hospital stay for Group 1 was 4 days and for Group 2 was 1 day (p<0.0001).\n Question: Does postoperative PTH monitoring of hypocalcemia expedite discharge after thyroidectomy?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: Hypocalcemia is the most common complication after total thyroidectomy. Some patients need to stay in the hospital for monitoring of hypocalcemic symptoms and serum calcium levels for several days. We investigated the efficacy and safety of using early postoperative parathyroid hormone (PTH) results for early discharge after thyroidectomy. A retrospective cohort study of 2 sequential groups of patients undergoing total thyroidectomy between January 2010 and March 2013 was undertaken. Patients were divided into 2 groups. In Group 1 (before June 2011), patients had daily monitoring of serum calcium level and hypocalcemic symptoms. They were discharged when calcium level was static and asymptomatic. Postoperative PTH was not utilized for discharge plan. In Group 2 (after June 2011), postoperative PTH and calcium level on day 1 were utilized to dictate subsequent management and discharge plan. Of the 107 patients reviewed, 54 (50.5%) were in Group 1 and 53 (49.5%) were in Group 2. A total of 51 (47.7%) patients developed hypocalcemia. The two groups were comparable in demographic data, early postoperative PTH value, rate of hypocalcemia, the need for oral calcium and vitamin D supplements and rate of permanent hypoparathyroidism. Fewer patients in Group 2 experienced hypocalcemic symptoms, p=0.005. None of the patients in Group 2 needed intravenous calcium supplement (p=0.003). The median postoperative hospital stay for Group 1 was 4 days and for Group 2 was 1 day (p<0.0001). Question: Does postoperative PTH monitoring of hypocalcemia expedite discharge after thyroidectomy? Output:
PubmedQA1612
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Progressive familial intrahepatic cholestasis type 2 (PFIC2) is an autosomal recessive disease due to mutations in ABCB11. ABCB11 encodes the bile salt export pump (BSEP), the major transporter responsible for biliary bile acid secretion, which expression is restricted to hepatocytes. In some patients, molecular analysis of ABCB11 revealed either exonic or intronic variations - including common polymorphisms - predicted to affect splicing according to in silico analysis or in vitro minigene studies. Transcript analysis in liver tissue is the best way to determine whether the variations predicted to affect splicing are deleterious or not. We performed ABCB11 transcript analysis in liver tissue from five PFIC2 patients who had variations which were predicted to either affect splicing or not. Among eleven variants tested, only the silent c.3003A>G variant and the intronic c.3213+4A>G variant led to abnormal splicing as suggested by in silico analysis.\n Question: Does liver transcript analysis reveal aberrant splicing due to silent and intronic variations in the ABCB11 gene?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: Progressive familial intrahepatic cholestasis type 2 (PFIC2) is an autosomal recessive disease due to mutations in ABCB11. ABCB11 encodes the bile salt export pump (BSEP), the major transporter responsible for biliary bile acid secretion, which expression is restricted to hepatocytes. In some patients, molecular analysis of ABCB11 revealed either exonic or intronic variations - including common polymorphisms - predicted to affect splicing according to in silico analysis or in vitro minigene studies. Transcript analysis in liver tissue is the best way to determine whether the variations predicted to affect splicing are deleterious or not. We performed ABCB11 transcript analysis in liver tissue from five PFIC2 patients who had variations which were predicted to either affect splicing or not. Among eleven variants tested, only the silent c.3003A>G variant and the intronic c.3213+4A>G variant led to abnormal splicing as suggested by in silico analysis. Question: Does liver transcript analysis reveal aberrant splicing due to silent and intronic variations in the ABCB11 gene? Output:
PubmedQA120500
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: The present study was designed to investigate the potential association between the 981C>T polymorphism in protein tyrosine phosphatase 1B (PTP-1B) and coronary artery disease (CAD). We conducted a hospital-based case-control study with 864 CAD patients and 1008 controls to explore the association between the PTP-1B 981C>T polymorphism and risk of CAD in Chinese Han population. Subjects with the variant genotypes (CT+TT) had a 52% decreased risk of CAD relative to CC carriers (adjusted odds ratio, 0.48; 95% confidence interval, 0.39-0.60). The 981C>T polymorphism was associated with a higher body mass index and serum triglyceride levels in both CAD patients and controls. Moreover, this polymorphism was found to be associated with a lower serum glucose levels in cases, but not in controls.\n Question: Is the 981C > T polymorphism in protein tyrosine phosphatase 1B associated with decreased risk of coronary artery disease in Chinese Han population?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: The present study was designed to investigate the potential association between the 981C>T polymorphism in protein tyrosine phosphatase 1B (PTP-1B) and coronary artery disease (CAD). We conducted a hospital-based case-control study with 864 CAD patients and 1008 controls to explore the association between the PTP-1B 981C>T polymorphism and risk of CAD in Chinese Han population. Subjects with the variant genotypes (CT+TT) had a 52% decreased risk of CAD relative to CC carriers (adjusted odds ratio, 0.48; 95% confidence interval, 0.39-0.60). The 981C>T polymorphism was associated with a higher body mass index and serum triglyceride levels in both CAD patients and controls. Moreover, this polymorphism was found to be associated with a lower serum glucose levels in cases, but not in controls. Question: Is the 981C > T polymorphism in protein tyrosine phosphatase 1B associated with decreased risk of coronary artery disease in Chinese Han population? Output:
PubmedQA29983
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: One of the major tenets in breast cancer research is that early detection is vital for patient survival by increasing treatment options. To that end, we have previously used a novel unsupervised approach to identify a set of genes whose expression predicts prognosis of breast cancer patients. The predictive genes were selected in a well-defined three dimensional (3D) cell culture model of non-malignant human mammary epithelial cell morphogenesis as down-regulated during breast epithelial cell acinar formation and cell cycle arrest. Here we examine the ability of this gene signature (3D-signature) to predict prognosis in three independent breast cancer microarray datasets having 295, 286, and 118 samples, respectively. Our results show that the 3D-signature accurately predicts prognosis in three unrelated patient datasets. At 10 years, the probability of positive outcome was 52, 51, and 47 percent in the group with a poor-prognosis signature and 91, 75, and 71 percent in the group with a good-prognosis signature for the three datasets, respectively (Kaplan-Meier survival analysis, p<0.05). Hazard ratios for poor outcome were 5.5 (95% CI 3.0 to 12.2, p<0.0001), 2.4 (95% CI 1.6 to 3.6, p<0.0001) and 1.9 (95% CI 1.1 to 3.2, p = 0.016) and remained significant for the two larger datasets when corrected for estrogen receptor (ER) status. Hence the 3D-signature accurately predicts breast cancer outcome in both ER-positive and ER-negative tumors, though individual genes differed in their prognostic ability in the two subtypes. Genes that were prognostic in ER+ patients are AURKA, CEP55, RRM2, EPHA2, FGFBP1, and VRK1, while genes prognostic in ER- patients include ACTB, FOXM1 and SERPINE2 (Kaplan-Meier p<0.05). Multivariable Cox regression analysis in the largest dataset showed that the 3D-signature was a strong independent factor in predicting breast cancer outcome.\n Question: Does prognostic breast cancer signature identified from 3D culture model accurately predict clinical outcome across independent datasets?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: One of the major tenets in breast cancer research is that early detection is vital for patient survival by increasing treatment options. To that end, we have previously used a novel unsupervised approach to identify a set of genes whose expression predicts prognosis of breast cancer patients. The predictive genes were selected in a well-defined three dimensional (3D) cell culture model of non-malignant human mammary epithelial cell morphogenesis as down-regulated during breast epithelial cell acinar formation and cell cycle arrest. Here we examine the ability of this gene signature (3D-signature) to predict prognosis in three independent breast cancer microarray datasets having 295, 286, and 118 samples, respectively. Our results show that the 3D-signature accurately predicts prognosis in three unrelated patient datasets. At 10 years, the probability of positive outcome was 52, 51, and 47 percent in the group with a poor-prognosis signature and 91, 75, and 71 percent in the group with a good-prognosis signature for the three datasets, respectively (Kaplan-Meier survival analysis, p<0.05). Hazard ratios for poor outcome were 5.5 (95% CI 3.0 to 12.2, p<0.0001), 2.4 (95% CI 1.6 to 3.6, p<0.0001) and 1.9 (95% CI 1.1 to 3.2, p = 0.016) and remained significant for the two larger datasets when corrected for estrogen receptor (ER) status. Hence the 3D-signature accurately predicts breast cancer outcome in both ER-positive and ER-negative tumors, though individual genes differed in their prognostic ability in the two subtypes. Genes that were prognostic in ER+ patients are AURKA, CEP55, RRM2, EPHA2, FGFBP1, and VRK1, while genes prognostic in ER- patients include ACTB, FOXM1 and SERPINE2 (Kaplan-Meier p<0.05). Multivariable Cox regression analysis in the largest dataset showed that the 3D-signature was a strong independent factor in predicting breast cancer outcome. Question: Does prognostic breast cancer signature identified from 3D culture model accurately predict clinical outcome across independent datasets? Output:
PubmedQA114016
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Ethylene glycol monomethyl ether (EGME) exposure is associated with impaired reproductive function. The primary metabolite of EGME is methoxyacetic acid (MAA), a short-chain fatty acid that inhibits histone deacetylase activity and alters gene expression. Because estrogen signaling is necessary for normal reproductive function and modulates gene expression, the estrogen-signaling pathway is a likely target for MAA; however, little is known about the effects of MAA in this regard. We evaluated the mechanistic effects of MAA on estrogen receptor (ER) expression and estrogen signaling using in vitro and in vivo model systems. MAA potentiates 17beta-estradiol (E(2)) stimulation of an estrogen-responsive reporter plasmid in HeLa cells transiently transfected with either a human ERalpha or ERbeta expression vector containing a cytomegalovirus (CMV) promoter. This result is attributed to increased exogenous ER expression due to MAA-mediated activation of the CMV promoter. In contrast to its effects on exogenous ER, MAA decreases endogenous ERalpha expression and attenuates E(2)-stimulated endogenous gene expression in both MCF-7 cells and the mouse uterus.\n Question: Does the short-chain fatty acid methoxyacetic acid disrupt endogenous estrogen receptor-alpha-mediated signaling?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: Ethylene glycol monomethyl ether (EGME) exposure is associated with impaired reproductive function. The primary metabolite of EGME is methoxyacetic acid (MAA), a short-chain fatty acid that inhibits histone deacetylase activity and alters gene expression. Because estrogen signaling is necessary for normal reproductive function and modulates gene expression, the estrogen-signaling pathway is a likely target for MAA; however, little is known about the effects of MAA in this regard. We evaluated the mechanistic effects of MAA on estrogen receptor (ER) expression and estrogen signaling using in vitro and in vivo model systems. MAA potentiates 17beta-estradiol (E(2)) stimulation of an estrogen-responsive reporter plasmid in HeLa cells transiently transfected with either a human ERalpha or ERbeta expression vector containing a cytomegalovirus (CMV) promoter. This result is attributed to increased exogenous ER expression due to MAA-mediated activation of the CMV promoter. In contrast to its effects on exogenous ER, MAA decreases endogenous ERalpha expression and attenuates E(2)-stimulated endogenous gene expression in both MCF-7 cells and the mouse uterus. Question: Does the short-chain fatty acid methoxyacetic acid disrupt endogenous estrogen receptor-alpha-mediated signaling? Output:
PubmedQA132404
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Interstitial cystitis is a highly prevalent pain condition estimated to affect 3% to 6% of women in the United States. Emerging data suggest there are central neurobiological components to the etiology of this disease. We report the first brain structural imaging findings from the MAPP network with data on more than 300 participants. We used voxel based morphometry to determine whether human patients with chronic interstitial cystitis display changes in brain morphology compared to healthy controls. A total of 33 female patients with interstitial cystitis without comorbidities and 33 age and gender matched controls taken from the larger sample underwent structural magnetic resonance imaging at 5 MAPP sites across the United States. Compared to controls, females with interstitial cystitis displayed significant increased gray matter volume in several regions of the brain including the right primary somatosensory cortex, the superior parietal lobule bilaterally and the right supplementary motor area. Gray matter volume in the right primary somatosensory cortex was associated with greater pain, mood (anxiety) and urological symptoms. We explored these correlations in a linear regression model, and found independent effects of these 3 measures on primary somatosensory cortex gray matter volume, namely clinical pain (McGill pain sensory total), a measure of urgency and anxiety (HADS).\n Question: Is increased brain gray matter in the primary somatosensory cortex associated with increased pain and mood disturbance in patients with interstitial cystitis/painful bladder syndrome?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: Interstitial cystitis is a highly prevalent pain condition estimated to affect 3% to 6% of women in the United States. Emerging data suggest there are central neurobiological components to the etiology of this disease. We report the first brain structural imaging findings from the MAPP network with data on more than 300 participants. We used voxel based morphometry to determine whether human patients with chronic interstitial cystitis display changes in brain morphology compared to healthy controls. A total of 33 female patients with interstitial cystitis without comorbidities and 33 age and gender matched controls taken from the larger sample underwent structural magnetic resonance imaging at 5 MAPP sites across the United States. Compared to controls, females with interstitial cystitis displayed significant increased gray matter volume in several regions of the brain including the right primary somatosensory cortex, the superior parietal lobule bilaterally and the right supplementary motor area. Gray matter volume in the right primary somatosensory cortex was associated with greater pain, mood (anxiety) and urological symptoms. We explored these correlations in a linear regression model, and found independent effects of these 3 measures on primary somatosensory cortex gray matter volume, namely clinical pain (McGill pain sensory total), a measure of urgency and anxiety (HADS). Question: Is increased brain gray matter in the primary somatosensory cortex associated with increased pain and mood disturbance in patients with interstitial cystitis/painful bladder syndrome? Output:
PubmedQA59099
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: The purpose of this study was to determine whether aqueous levels of vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) and pigment epithelium-derived factor (PEDF) are associated with developments of serous retinal detachment (SRD) secondary to branch retinal vein occlusion. We recruited 102 patients with branch retinal vein occlusion and 10 controls. We divided patients into two groups according to optical coherence tomography images of the macula. Forty-six of 102 patients showed SRD defined as being subretinal fluid accumulation with low reflectivity, and the remaining 56 patients presented only cystoid macular edema (CME) defined as being hyporeflective intraretinal cavities. We measured the extent of vascular leakage (disk areas) by digital fluorescein angiography and evaluated the retinal ischemia defined as capillary nonperfusion. Aqueous concentrations of VEGF and pigment epithelium-derived factor were measured by enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay and compared between the two groups. The incidence of major branch retinal vein occlusion was higher in the SRD group (38 of 46, 83%) than in the CME group (32 of 56, 66%, P = 0.01). The incidences of ischemic vein occlusion and macular ischemia was similar between the SRD group (18 of 46 and 20 of 46) and the CME group (20 of 56 and 24 of 56), whereas vascular leakage areas were larger in the SRD group than in the CME group (P = 0.02). Aqueous VEGF levels were higher in the SRD group than in the CME group (P < 0.001), whereas aqueous pigment epithelium-derived factor levels were similar. Vascular endothelial growth factor levels were positively correlated with pigment epithelium-derived factor levels (P < 0.001).\n Question: Are aqueous vascular endothelial growth factor levels associated with serous macular detachment secondary to branch retinal vein occlusion?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: The purpose of this study was to determine whether aqueous levels of vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) and pigment epithelium-derived factor (PEDF) are associated with developments of serous retinal detachment (SRD) secondary to branch retinal vein occlusion. We recruited 102 patients with branch retinal vein occlusion and 10 controls. We divided patients into two groups according to optical coherence tomography images of the macula. Forty-six of 102 patients showed SRD defined as being subretinal fluid accumulation with low reflectivity, and the remaining 56 patients presented only cystoid macular edema (CME) defined as being hyporeflective intraretinal cavities. We measured the extent of vascular leakage (disk areas) by digital fluorescein angiography and evaluated the retinal ischemia defined as capillary nonperfusion. Aqueous concentrations of VEGF and pigment epithelium-derived factor were measured by enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay and compared between the two groups. The incidence of major branch retinal vein occlusion was higher in the SRD group (38 of 46, 83%) than in the CME group (32 of 56, 66%, P = 0.01). The incidences of ischemic vein occlusion and macular ischemia was similar between the SRD group (18 of 46 and 20 of 46) and the CME group (20 of 56 and 24 of 56), whereas vascular leakage areas were larger in the SRD group than in the CME group (P = 0.02). Aqueous VEGF levels were higher in the SRD group than in the CME group (P < 0.001), whereas aqueous pigment epithelium-derived factor levels were similar. Vascular endothelial growth factor levels were positively correlated with pigment epithelium-derived factor levels (P < 0.001). Question: Are aqueous vascular endothelial growth factor levels associated with serous macular detachment secondary to branch retinal vein occlusion? Output:
PubmedQA185007
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: The aim of this study was to evaluate whether functional status is a predictor of outcomes after redo lung transplantation (LTx). Adults undergoing redo LTx after implementation of the Lung Allocation Score (May 2005 to December 2010) were identified in the United Network for Organ Sharing database. Patients were stratified into three groups based on functional status as measured before redo LTx by the Karnofsky scale: (1) no assistance required, (2) some assistance required, and (3) total assistance required. Outcomes after redo LTx were compared based on these preoperative functional cohorts. A total of 390 redo LTx were identified: 44 (11%) required no functional assistance, 176 (45%) required some assistance, and 170 (44%) required total assistance preoperatively. Overall survival at 1 year after redo LTx was significantly reduced in the total assistance group (56% versus 82% no assistance, versus 82% some assistance; p < 0.001). After risk adjustment, recipients requiring total assistance preoperatively were at significant risk for 1-year mortality (odds ratio 3.72, p = 0.02). Overall, the preoperative functional assessment outperformed the Lung Allocation Score in predicting 1-year survival after redo LTx (c-index: 0.68 versus 0.58). Transplant survivors who required total assistance before redo LTx were also at increased risk of requiring total assistance after redo LTx (26% versus 0% no assistance, versus 3% some assistance; p < 0.001).\n Question: Is functional status highly predictive of outcomes after redo lung transplantation : an analysis of 390 cases in the modern era?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: The aim of this study was to evaluate whether functional status is a predictor of outcomes after redo lung transplantation (LTx). Adults undergoing redo LTx after implementation of the Lung Allocation Score (May 2005 to December 2010) were identified in the United Network for Organ Sharing database. Patients were stratified into three groups based on functional status as measured before redo LTx by the Karnofsky scale: (1) no assistance required, (2) some assistance required, and (3) total assistance required. Outcomes after redo LTx were compared based on these preoperative functional cohorts. A total of 390 redo LTx were identified: 44 (11%) required no functional assistance, 176 (45%) required some assistance, and 170 (44%) required total assistance preoperatively. Overall survival at 1 year after redo LTx was significantly reduced in the total assistance group (56% versus 82% no assistance, versus 82% some assistance; p < 0.001). After risk adjustment, recipients requiring total assistance preoperatively were at significant risk for 1-year mortality (odds ratio 3.72, p = 0.02). Overall, the preoperative functional assessment outperformed the Lung Allocation Score in predicting 1-year survival after redo LTx (c-index: 0.68 versus 0.58). Transplant survivors who required total assistance before redo LTx were also at increased risk of requiring total assistance after redo LTx (26% versus 0% no assistance, versus 3% some assistance; p < 0.001). Question: Is functional status highly predictive of outcomes after redo lung transplantation : an analysis of 390 cases in the modern era? Output:
PubmedQA137308
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: We compared the motor-unit number estimation (MUNE) findings in patients who presented with signs and/or findings associated with carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) and healthy controls, with the aim of determining if motor-unit loss occurs during the clinically silent period and if there is a correlation between clinical and MUNE findings in CTS patients. The study investigated 60 hands of 35 patients with clinical CTS and 60 hands of 34 healthy controls. Routine median and ulnar nerve conduction studies and MUNE analysis according to the multipoint stimulation method were performed. The most common electrophysiological abnormality was reduced conduction velocity in the median sensory nerve (100% of the hands). The MUNE value was significantly lower for the patient group than for the control group (p=0.0001). ROC analysis showed that a MUNE value of 121 was the optimal cutoff for differentiating between patients and controls, with a sensitivity of 63.3% and a specificity of 68.3%. MUNE values were lower in patients with complaints of numbness, pain, and weakness in the median nerve territory (p<0.05, for all comparisons), and lower in patients with hypoesthesia than in patients with normal neurological findings (p=0.023).\n Question: Does motor-Unit Number Estimation be Sensitive in Detecting Motor Nerve Involvement in Patients with Carpal Tunnel Syndrome?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: We compared the motor-unit number estimation (MUNE) findings in patients who presented with signs and/or findings associated with carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) and healthy controls, with the aim of determining if motor-unit loss occurs during the clinically silent period and if there is a correlation between clinical and MUNE findings in CTS patients. The study investigated 60 hands of 35 patients with clinical CTS and 60 hands of 34 healthy controls. Routine median and ulnar nerve conduction studies and MUNE analysis according to the multipoint stimulation method were performed. The most common electrophysiological abnormality was reduced conduction velocity in the median sensory nerve (100% of the hands). The MUNE value was significantly lower for the patient group than for the control group (p=0.0001). ROC analysis showed that a MUNE value of 121 was the optimal cutoff for differentiating between patients and controls, with a sensitivity of 63.3% and a specificity of 68.3%. MUNE values were lower in patients with complaints of numbness, pain, and weakness in the median nerve territory (p<0.05, for all comparisons), and lower in patients with hypoesthesia than in patients with normal neurological findings (p=0.023). Question: Does motor-Unit Number Estimation be Sensitive in Detecting Motor Nerve Involvement in Patients with Carpal Tunnel Syndrome? Output:
PubmedQA160406
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Gal-geun-dang-gwi-tang (GGDGT), an herbal medicine, is used to treat hypertension, stroke, and other inflammatory disorders in the clinical setting. Recently, GGDGT was recognized by the Korea Institute of Oriental Medicine. This study aimed to evaluate the effects of GGDGT in a diabetic atherosclerosis model using apolipoprotein E knockout (ApoE-/-) mice fed a Western diet. The mice were divided into four groups: control group, C57BL6J mice receiving a regular diet (RD); ApoE-/- group, ApoE-/- mice receiving a Western diet (WD); rosiglitazone group, ApoE-/- mice receiving rosiglitazone (WD + 10 mg · kg(-1) · day(-1)); GGDGT group, ApoE-/- mice receiving GGDGT (WD + 200 mg · kg(-1) · day(-1)). Treatment with GGDGT significantly improved glucose tolerance and plasma lipid levels. In addition, GGDGT ameliorated acetylcholine-induced vascular relaxation of the aortic rings. Immunohistochemical staining showed that GGDGT suppressed intercellular adhesion molecule (ICAM)-1 expression; however, expression of endothelial nitric oxide synthase (eNOS) and insulin receptor substrate (IRS)-1 were restored in the thoracic aorta and skeletal muscle, respectively.\n Question: Does gal-geun-dang-gwi-tang improve diabetic vascular complication in apolipoprotein E KO mice fed a western diet?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: Gal-geun-dang-gwi-tang (GGDGT), an herbal medicine, is used to treat hypertension, stroke, and other inflammatory disorders in the clinical setting. Recently, GGDGT was recognized by the Korea Institute of Oriental Medicine. This study aimed to evaluate the effects of GGDGT in a diabetic atherosclerosis model using apolipoprotein E knockout (ApoE-/-) mice fed a Western diet. The mice were divided into four groups: control group, C57BL6J mice receiving a regular diet (RD); ApoE-/- group, ApoE-/- mice receiving a Western diet (WD); rosiglitazone group, ApoE-/- mice receiving rosiglitazone (WD + 10 mg · kg(-1) · day(-1)); GGDGT group, ApoE-/- mice receiving GGDGT (WD + 200 mg · kg(-1) · day(-1)). Treatment with GGDGT significantly improved glucose tolerance and plasma lipid levels. In addition, GGDGT ameliorated acetylcholine-induced vascular relaxation of the aortic rings. Immunohistochemical staining showed that GGDGT suppressed intercellular adhesion molecule (ICAM)-1 expression; however, expression of endothelial nitric oxide synthase (eNOS) and insulin receptor substrate (IRS)-1 were restored in the thoracic aorta and skeletal muscle, respectively. Question: Does gal-geun-dang-gwi-tang improve diabetic vascular complication in apolipoprotein E KO mice fed a western diet? Output:
PubmedQA6843
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: To evaluate the efficacy of etanercept (ETN) on monocrotaline (MCT)-induced pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) in rats. A PAH rat model was induced by intraperitoneal injection (i.p.) of MCT (60 mg/kg) once and ENT therapy (2.5 mg/kg twice a week i.p.) was initiated on the day following MCT injection (prevention protocol) or after PAH is established (remedial protocol) for 2 weeks. The mean pulmonary arterial pressure (mPAP) was measured using a right heart catheterization technique; quantitative determination of lung small artery blood wall thickening observed by hematoxylin and eosin staining; the expression of tumor necrosis factor (TNF)-α and interleukin (IL)-6 in the rat lung tissues were determined using immunohistochemistry. Both preventive (12.53 ± 3.8 vs. model control 28.67 ± 7.57 mmHg, P < 0.01) and remedial (35.95 ± 20.29 vs. model control 66.17 ± 24.29 mmHg, P < 0.01) applications of ETN could significantly reduce mPAP. We obtained similar results when using the R-value to assess the efficacy of ETN in two treatment groups (preventive groups, 0.273 ± 0.018 vs. 0.203 ± 0.036, P < 0.01; remedial groups, 0.227 ± 0.031 vs. 0.124 ± 0.008, P < 0.01). The immunohistochemistry staining showed that there were strong expressions of TNF-α and IL-6 in the lung tissues of model groups and decreased expression in both treatment groups.\n Question: Do preventive and remedial application of etanercept attenuate monocrotaline-induced pulmonary arterial hypertension?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: To evaluate the efficacy of etanercept (ETN) on monocrotaline (MCT)-induced pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) in rats. A PAH rat model was induced by intraperitoneal injection (i.p.) of MCT (60 mg/kg) once and ENT therapy (2.5 mg/kg twice a week i.p.) was initiated on the day following MCT injection (prevention protocol) or after PAH is established (remedial protocol) for 2 weeks. The mean pulmonary arterial pressure (mPAP) was measured using a right heart catheterization technique; quantitative determination of lung small artery blood wall thickening observed by hematoxylin and eosin staining; the expression of tumor necrosis factor (TNF)-α and interleukin (IL)-6 in the rat lung tissues were determined using immunohistochemistry. Both preventive (12.53 ± 3.8 vs. model control 28.67 ± 7.57 mmHg, P < 0.01) and remedial (35.95 ± 20.29 vs. model control 66.17 ± 24.29 mmHg, P < 0.01) applications of ETN could significantly reduce mPAP. We obtained similar results when using the R-value to assess the efficacy of ETN in two treatment groups (preventive groups, 0.273 ± 0.018 vs. 0.203 ± 0.036, P < 0.01; remedial groups, 0.227 ± 0.031 vs. 0.124 ± 0.008, P < 0.01). The immunohistochemistry staining showed that there were strong expressions of TNF-α and IL-6 in the lung tissues of model groups and decreased expression in both treatment groups. Question: Do preventive and remedial application of etanercept attenuate monocrotaline-induced pulmonary arterial hypertension? Output:
PubmedQA37605
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: While surgical resection is a cornerstone of cancer treatment, local and distant recurrences continue to adversely affect outcome in a significant proportion of patients. Evidence that an alternative debulking strategy involving radiofrequency ablation (RFA) induces antitumor immunity prompted the current investigation of the efficacy of performing RFA prior to surgical resection (pre-resectional RFA) in a preclinical mouse model. Therapeutic efficacy and systemic immune responses were assessed following pre-resectional RFA treatment of murine CT26 colon adenocarcinoma. Treatment with pre-resectional RFA significantly delayed tumor growth and improved overall survival compared to sham surgery, RFA, or resection alone. Mice in the pre-resectional RFA group that achieved a complete response demonstrated durable antitumor immunity upon tumor re-challenge. Failure to achieve a therapeutic benefit in immunodeficient mice confirmed that tumor control by pre-resectional RFA depends on an intact adaptive immune response rather than changes in physical parameters that make ablated tumors more amenable to a complete surgical excision. RFA causes a marked increase in intratumoral CD8+ T lymphocyte infiltration, thus substantially enhancing the ratio of CD8+ effector T cells: FoxP3+ regulatory T cells. Importantly, pre-resectional RFA significantly increases the number of antigen-specific CD8+ T cells within the tumor microenvironment and tumor-draining lymph node but had no impact on infiltration by myeloid-derived suppressor cells, M1 macrophages or M2 macrophages at tumor sites or in peripheral lymphoid organs (i.e., spleen). Finally, pre-resectional RFA of primary tumors delayed growth of distant tumors through a mechanism that depends on systemic CD8+ T cell-mediated antitumor immunity.\n Question: Does immune Adjuvant Activity of Pre-Resectional Radiofrequency Ablation protect against Local and Systemic Recurrence in Aggressive Murine Colorectal Cancer?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: While surgical resection is a cornerstone of cancer treatment, local and distant recurrences continue to adversely affect outcome in a significant proportion of patients. Evidence that an alternative debulking strategy involving radiofrequency ablation (RFA) induces antitumor immunity prompted the current investigation of the efficacy of performing RFA prior to surgical resection (pre-resectional RFA) in a preclinical mouse model. Therapeutic efficacy and systemic immune responses were assessed following pre-resectional RFA treatment of murine CT26 colon adenocarcinoma. Treatment with pre-resectional RFA significantly delayed tumor growth and improved overall survival compared to sham surgery, RFA, or resection alone. Mice in the pre-resectional RFA group that achieved a complete response demonstrated durable antitumor immunity upon tumor re-challenge. Failure to achieve a therapeutic benefit in immunodeficient mice confirmed that tumor control by pre-resectional RFA depends on an intact adaptive immune response rather than changes in physical parameters that make ablated tumors more amenable to a complete surgical excision. RFA causes a marked increase in intratumoral CD8+ T lymphocyte infiltration, thus substantially enhancing the ratio of CD8+ effector T cells: FoxP3+ regulatory T cells. Importantly, pre-resectional RFA significantly increases the number of antigen-specific CD8+ T cells within the tumor microenvironment and tumor-draining lymph node but had no impact on infiltration by myeloid-derived suppressor cells, M1 macrophages or M2 macrophages at tumor sites or in peripheral lymphoid organs (i.e., spleen). Finally, pre-resectional RFA of primary tumors delayed growth of distant tumors through a mechanism that depends on systemic CD8+ T cell-mediated antitumor immunity. Question: Does immune Adjuvant Activity of Pre-Resectional Radiofrequency Ablation protect against Local and Systemic Recurrence in Aggressive Murine Colorectal Cancer? Output:
PubmedQA151607
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Emerging evidence suggests that cardiac angiotensin-converting enzyme 2 (ACE2) may contribute to the regulation of heart function and hypertension-induced cardiac remodeling. We tested the hypothesis that inhibition of ACE2 in the hearts of (mRen2)27 hypertensive rats may accelerate progression of cardiac hypertrophy and fibrosis by preventing conversion of angiotensin II (Ang II) into the antifibrotic peptide, angiotensin-(1-7) (Ang-(1-7)). Fourteen male (mRen2)27 transgenic hypertensive rats (12 weeks old, 401 + or - 7 g) were administered either vehicle (0.9% saline) or the ACE2 inhibitor, MLN-4760 (30 mg/kg/day), subcutaneously via mini-osmotic pumps for 28 days. Although ACE2 inhibition had no effect on average 24-h blood pressures, left ventricular (LV) Ang II content increased 24% in rats chronically treated with the ACE2 inhibitor (P < 0.05). Chronic ACE2 inhibition had no effect on plasma Ang II or Ang-(1-7) levels. Increased cardiac Ang II levels were associated with significant increases in both LV anterior, posterior, and relative wall thicknesses, as well as interstitial collagen fraction area and cardiomyocyte hypertrophy in the transgenic animals chronically treated with the ACE2 inhibitor. Cardiac remodeling was not accompanied by any further alterations in LV function.\n Question: Does inhibition of angiotensin-converting enzyme 2 exacerbate cardiac hypertrophy and fibrosis in Ren-2 hypertensive rats?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: Emerging evidence suggests that cardiac angiotensin-converting enzyme 2 (ACE2) may contribute to the regulation of heart function and hypertension-induced cardiac remodeling. We tested the hypothesis that inhibition of ACE2 in the hearts of (mRen2)27 hypertensive rats may accelerate progression of cardiac hypertrophy and fibrosis by preventing conversion of angiotensin II (Ang II) into the antifibrotic peptide, angiotensin-(1-7) (Ang-(1-7)). Fourteen male (mRen2)27 transgenic hypertensive rats (12 weeks old, 401 + or - 7 g) were administered either vehicle (0.9% saline) or the ACE2 inhibitor, MLN-4760 (30 mg/kg/day), subcutaneously via mini-osmotic pumps for 28 days. Although ACE2 inhibition had no effect on average 24-h blood pressures, left ventricular (LV) Ang II content increased 24% in rats chronically treated with the ACE2 inhibitor (P < 0.05). Chronic ACE2 inhibition had no effect on plasma Ang II or Ang-(1-7) levels. Increased cardiac Ang II levels were associated with significant increases in both LV anterior, posterior, and relative wall thicknesses, as well as interstitial collagen fraction area and cardiomyocyte hypertrophy in the transgenic animals chronically treated with the ACE2 inhibitor. Cardiac remodeling was not accompanied by any further alterations in LV function. Question: Does inhibition of angiotensin-converting enzyme 2 exacerbate cardiac hypertrophy and fibrosis in Ren-2 hypertensive rats? Output:
PubmedQA126170
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: To determine sensitivity, specificity, predictive value of routine fecal occult blood (FOB) testing on the identification of Bell's Stage II or III necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC) in very low birth weight (VLBW) infants. Retrospective medical record review of VLBW infants from 2012- 2013 evaluating FOB results and clinical and demographic risk factors. We determined predictive values of positive FOB testing within 48 hours of definite NEC diagnosis. We performed logistic regression analyses for predictors of NEC and for predictors of having positive FOB during NICU admission. The incidence of NEC in our cohort of 203 infants was 3.9% (n = 8). None had positive FOB results within 48 hours of diagnosis, and only 12.5% had any positive FOB within 7 days. Sensitivity of positive FOB for predicting definite NEC = 0%, specificity = 34.4%, and positive predictive value = 0%. A majority of VLBWs (67.0%) had > one positive FOB result during their NICU course. On logistic regression, intrauterine growth restricted (IUGR) infants had significantly higher odds of both developing NEC and of having positive FOB. Positive FOB was not a significant predictor of NEC. Those with lower birth gestational ages had higher odds of positive FOB.\n Question: Does routine fecal occult blood testing predict necrotizing enterocolitis in very low birth weight neonates?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "no" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: To determine sensitivity, specificity, predictive value of routine fecal occult blood (FOB) testing on the identification of Bell's Stage II or III necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC) in very low birth weight (VLBW) infants. Retrospective medical record review of VLBW infants from 2012- 2013 evaluating FOB results and clinical and demographic risk factors. We determined predictive values of positive FOB testing within 48 hours of definite NEC diagnosis. We performed logistic regression analyses for predictors of NEC and for predictors of having positive FOB during NICU admission. The incidence of NEC in our cohort of 203 infants was 3.9% (n = 8). None had positive FOB results within 48 hours of diagnosis, and only 12.5% had any positive FOB within 7 days. Sensitivity of positive FOB for predicting definite NEC = 0%, specificity = 34.4%, and positive predictive value = 0%. A majority of VLBWs (67.0%) had > one positive FOB result during their NICU course. On logistic regression, intrauterine growth restricted (IUGR) infants had significantly higher odds of both developing NEC and of having positive FOB. Positive FOB was not a significant predictor of NEC. Those with lower birth gestational ages had higher odds of positive FOB. Question: Does routine fecal occult blood testing predict necrotizing enterocolitis in very low birth weight neonates? Output:
PubmedQA185602
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Oral daily ibandronate was investigated for the prevention of bone loss in postmenopausal women without osteoporosis (n = 653). BMD at the lumbar spine and hip were significantly increased (3.1% and 1.8%, respectively; p < or = 0.0001 versus placebo) with 2.5 mg ibandronate after 24 months. Oral ibandronate is a promising option for the prevention of postmenopausal bone loss. Further strategies to manage patients most at risk from developing postmenopausal osteoporosis are required. The objectives of this multicenter, double-blind, randomized, placebo-controlled study were to examine the efficacy, tolerability, and optimal dose of oral daily ibandronate in the prevention of bone loss in postmenopausal women. In total, 653 women (mean bone mineral density [BMD] T-score > -2.5 at the lumbar spine), who had been postmenopausal for at least 1 year, were allocated to one of four strata based on time since menopause and baseline lumbar spine BMD. Women were randomized to receive calcium (500 mg daily) plus either placebo (n = 162) or ibandronate 0.5 mg (n = 162), 1 mg (n = 166), or 2.5 mg (n = 163) as once-daily oral treatment for 2 years. The primary endpoint was the mean percent change in lumbar spine BMD with ibandronate versus placebo.\n Question: Does oral daily ibandronate prevent bone loss in early postmenopausal women without osteoporosis?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: Oral daily ibandronate was investigated for the prevention of bone loss in postmenopausal women without osteoporosis (n = 653). BMD at the lumbar spine and hip were significantly increased (3.1% and 1.8%, respectively; p < or = 0.0001 versus placebo) with 2.5 mg ibandronate after 24 months. Oral ibandronate is a promising option for the prevention of postmenopausal bone loss. Further strategies to manage patients most at risk from developing postmenopausal osteoporosis are required. The objectives of this multicenter, double-blind, randomized, placebo-controlled study were to examine the efficacy, tolerability, and optimal dose of oral daily ibandronate in the prevention of bone loss in postmenopausal women. In total, 653 women (mean bone mineral density [BMD] T-score > -2.5 at the lumbar spine), who had been postmenopausal for at least 1 year, were allocated to one of four strata based on time since menopause and baseline lumbar spine BMD. Women were randomized to receive calcium (500 mg daily) plus either placebo (n = 162) or ibandronate 0.5 mg (n = 162), 1 mg (n = 166), or 2.5 mg (n = 163) as once-daily oral treatment for 2 years. The primary endpoint was the mean percent change in lumbar spine BMD with ibandronate versus placebo. Question: Does oral daily ibandronate prevent bone loss in early postmenopausal women without osteoporosis? Output:
PubmedQA133933
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Spontaneous immortalisation of cultured mammary epithelial cells (MECs) is an extremely rare event, and the molecular mechanism behind spontaneous immortalisation of MECs is unclear. Here, we report the establishment of a spontaneously immortalised bovine mammary epithelial cell line (BME65Cs) and the changes in gene expression associated with BME65Cs cells. BME65Cs cells maintain the general characteristics of normal mammary epithelial cells in morphology, karyotype and immunohistochemistry, and are accompanied by the activation of endogenous bTERT (bovine Telomerase Reverse Transcriptase) and stabilisation of the telomere. Currently, BME65Cs cells have been passed for more than 220 generations, and these cells exhibit non-malignant transformation. The expression of multiple genes was investigated in BME65Cs cells, senescent BMECs (bovine MECs) cells, early passage BMECs cells and MCF-7 cells (a human breast cancer cell line). In comparison with early passage BMECs cells, the expression of senescence-relevant apoptosis-related gene were significantly changed in BME65Cs cells. P16INK4a was downregulated, p53 was low expressed and Bax/Bcl-2 ratio was reversed. Moreover, a slight upregulation of the oncogene c-Myc, along with an undetectable level of breast tumor-related gene Bag-1 and TRPS-1, was observed in BME65Cs cells while these genes are all highly expressed in MCF-7. In addition, DNMT1 is upregulated in BME65Cs. These results suggest that the inhibition of both senescence and mitochondrial apoptosis signalling pathways contribute to the immortality of BME65Cs cells. The expression of p53 and p16INK4a in BME65Cs was altered in the pattern of down-regulation but not \"loss\", suggesting that this spontaneous immortalization is possibly initiated by other mechanism rather than gene mutation of p53 or p16INK4a.\n Question: Do spontaneously immortalised bovine mammary epithelial cells exhibit a distinct gene expression pattern from the breast cancer cells?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: Spontaneous immortalisation of cultured mammary epithelial cells (MECs) is an extremely rare event, and the molecular mechanism behind spontaneous immortalisation of MECs is unclear. Here, we report the establishment of a spontaneously immortalised bovine mammary epithelial cell line (BME65Cs) and the changes in gene expression associated with BME65Cs cells. BME65Cs cells maintain the general characteristics of normal mammary epithelial cells in morphology, karyotype and immunohistochemistry, and are accompanied by the activation of endogenous bTERT (bovine Telomerase Reverse Transcriptase) and stabilisation of the telomere. Currently, BME65Cs cells have been passed for more than 220 generations, and these cells exhibit non-malignant transformation. The expression of multiple genes was investigated in BME65Cs cells, senescent BMECs (bovine MECs) cells, early passage BMECs cells and MCF-7 cells (a human breast cancer cell line). In comparison with early passage BMECs cells, the expression of senescence-relevant apoptosis-related gene were significantly changed in BME65Cs cells. P16INK4a was downregulated, p53 was low expressed and Bax/Bcl-2 ratio was reversed. Moreover, a slight upregulation of the oncogene c-Myc, along with an undetectable level of breast tumor-related gene Bag-1 and TRPS-1, was observed in BME65Cs cells while these genes are all highly expressed in MCF-7. In addition, DNMT1 is upregulated in BME65Cs. These results suggest that the inhibition of both senescence and mitochondrial apoptosis signalling pathways contribute to the immortality of BME65Cs cells. The expression of p53 and p16INK4a in BME65Cs was altered in the pattern of down-regulation but not "loss", suggesting that this spontaneous immortalization is possibly initiated by other mechanism rather than gene mutation of p53 or p16INK4a. Question: Do spontaneously immortalised bovine mammary epithelial cells exhibit a distinct gene expression pattern from the breast cancer cells? Output:
PubmedQA9658
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Acute intravascular hemolysis after exchange transfusion with glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase-deficient blood has been reported; however, it is not routine to screen donor blood for glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency while performing exchange transfusion. We hypothesized that exchange transfusion with glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase-deficient blood would lead to a less-than-expected decrease in total serum bilirubin. The objective of this study was to evaluate the effect of exchange transfusion with glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase-deficient blood in neonates with idiopathic hyperbilirubinemia on postexchange total serum bilirubin levels, duration of phototherapy, and need for repeat exchange transfusions. All neonates who were undergoing exchange transfusion for idiopathic hyperbilirubinemia were enrolled. A sample of donor blood was collected at the time of exchange transfusion for a glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase assay. The standard criteria for starting and stopping phototherapy and exchange transfusion were applied. During the 1-year study period, 21 infants underwent exchange with glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase-deficient blood, and 114 neonates with similar baseline characteristics underwent exchange transfusion with glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase-normal blood. From 6 to 60 hours after exchange transfusion, there was a significantly lesser drop in total serum bilirubin in the recipients of glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase-deficient donor blood compared with recipients of glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase-normal blood. The mean duration of phototherapy in the postexchange period and number of infants who underwent repeat exchange transfusions were significantly higher in recipients of glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase-deficient donor blood in comparison with control subjects. Concurrently, there was a significantly higher drop in hematocrit and rise in plasma hemoglobin in the glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase-deficient donor group.\n Question: Does donor blood glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency reduce the efficacy of exchange transfusion in neonatal hyperbilirubinemia?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: Acute intravascular hemolysis after exchange transfusion with glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase-deficient blood has been reported; however, it is not routine to screen donor blood for glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency while performing exchange transfusion. We hypothesized that exchange transfusion with glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase-deficient blood would lead to a less-than-expected decrease in total serum bilirubin. The objective of this study was to evaluate the effect of exchange transfusion with glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase-deficient blood in neonates with idiopathic hyperbilirubinemia on postexchange total serum bilirubin levels, duration of phototherapy, and need for repeat exchange transfusions. All neonates who were undergoing exchange transfusion for idiopathic hyperbilirubinemia were enrolled. A sample of donor blood was collected at the time of exchange transfusion for a glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase assay. The standard criteria for starting and stopping phototherapy and exchange transfusion were applied. During the 1-year study period, 21 infants underwent exchange with glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase-deficient blood, and 114 neonates with similar baseline characteristics underwent exchange transfusion with glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase-normal blood. From 6 to 60 hours after exchange transfusion, there was a significantly lesser drop in total serum bilirubin in the recipients of glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase-deficient donor blood compared with recipients of glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase-normal blood. The mean duration of phototherapy in the postexchange period and number of infants who underwent repeat exchange transfusions were significantly higher in recipients of glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase-deficient donor blood in comparison with control subjects. Concurrently, there was a significantly higher drop in hematocrit and rise in plasma hemoglobin in the glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase-deficient donor group. Question: Does donor blood glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency reduce the efficacy of exchange transfusion in neonatal hyperbilirubinemia? Output:
PubmedQA76571
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Progesterone differently regulates TNFα-induced gene expression of cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2) and manganese superoxide dismutase (Mn-SOD) in human endometrial stromal cells (ESC). The present study investigated the mechanisms by which TNFα and progesterone affect the expressions of COX-2 and Mn-SOD in ESC. ESC were incubated with TNFα and progesterone. COX-2 and Mn-SOD mRNA expression was determined by real-time RT-PCR. Nuclear factor (NF)-κB binding to the promoter region or histone acetylation status of the NF-κB response element was analyzed by a chromatin immunoprecipitation assay. TNFα increased COX-2 and Mn-SOD mRNA levels. Progesterone (10(-6) M) suppressed TNFα-induced COX-2 mRNA expression, whereas TNFα-induced Mn-SOD expression was not inhibited by progesterone. The inhibitory effect of progesterone was abolished by knockdown of progesterone receptors by small interfering RNA. Chromatin immunoprecipitation assay revealed that TNFα increased NF-κB binding at both the COX-2 promoter and the Mn-SOD enhancer and that progesterone inhibited only the NF-κB binding at the COX-2 promoter. The histone acetylation level of the NF-κB response element of the Mn-SOD enhancer was lower than that of the COX-2 promoter. However, when histone acetylation was induced by histone deacetylase inhibitors, progesterone inhibited the TNFα-induced NF-κB binding to the Mn-SOD enhancer.\n Question: Are differential effects of progesterone on COX-2 and Mn-SOD expressions associated with histone acetylation status of the promoter region in human endometrial stromal cells?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: Progesterone differently regulates TNFα-induced gene expression of cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2) and manganese superoxide dismutase (Mn-SOD) in human endometrial stromal cells (ESC). The present study investigated the mechanisms by which TNFα and progesterone affect the expressions of COX-2 and Mn-SOD in ESC. ESC were incubated with TNFα and progesterone. COX-2 and Mn-SOD mRNA expression was determined by real-time RT-PCR. Nuclear factor (NF)-κB binding to the promoter region or histone acetylation status of the NF-κB response element was analyzed by a chromatin immunoprecipitation assay. TNFα increased COX-2 and Mn-SOD mRNA levels. Progesterone (10(-6) M) suppressed TNFα-induced COX-2 mRNA expression, whereas TNFα-induced Mn-SOD expression was not inhibited by progesterone. The inhibitory effect of progesterone was abolished by knockdown of progesterone receptors by small interfering RNA. Chromatin immunoprecipitation assay revealed that TNFα increased NF-κB binding at both the COX-2 promoter and the Mn-SOD enhancer and that progesterone inhibited only the NF-κB binding at the COX-2 promoter. The histone acetylation level of the NF-κB response element of the Mn-SOD enhancer was lower than that of the COX-2 promoter. However, when histone acetylation was induced by histone deacetylase inhibitors, progesterone inhibited the TNFα-induced NF-κB binding to the Mn-SOD enhancer. Question: Are differential effects of progesterone on COX-2 and Mn-SOD expressions associated with histone acetylation status of the promoter region in human endometrial stromal cells? Output:
PubmedQA179095
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Reductions in cholinergic function occur in Alzheimer disease (AD) and dementia with Lewy bodies and correlate with cognitive decline. However, whether such alterations appear in early-stage disease is unclear. To examine the timing of cholinergic deficits in AD and dementia with Lewy bodies. Autopsy series of 89 patients with AD and 50 patients with the Lewy body variant of AD (LBV). Stage of disease was stratified according to results of the last Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) before death as mild, moderate, severe, or very severe. We analyzed choline acetyltransferase (ChAT) activity in the midfrontal, superior temporal, and inferior parietal cortices. Although compared with a normal control group ChAT activity was decreased in the AD and LBV cohorts, ChAT activity reduction for the LBV cohort was much greater. Moreover, although the decline in ChAT activity in the AD cohort compared with the normal control group was significant only for patients in later stages of the illness, the decline in the LBV cohort was significant for those who died with mild-stage disease. When less impaired patients in each cohort (MMSE, > or = 10) underwent separate analysis, the relationship of ChAT activity with the MMSE score was strong and significant for the LBV cohort alone.\n Question: Do early and widespread cholinergic losses differentiate dementia with Lewy bodies from Alzheimer disease?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: Reductions in cholinergic function occur in Alzheimer disease (AD) and dementia with Lewy bodies and correlate with cognitive decline. However, whether such alterations appear in early-stage disease is unclear. To examine the timing of cholinergic deficits in AD and dementia with Lewy bodies. Autopsy series of 89 patients with AD and 50 patients with the Lewy body variant of AD (LBV). Stage of disease was stratified according to results of the last Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) before death as mild, moderate, severe, or very severe. We analyzed choline acetyltransferase (ChAT) activity in the midfrontal, superior temporal, and inferior parietal cortices. Although compared with a normal control group ChAT activity was decreased in the AD and LBV cohorts, ChAT activity reduction for the LBV cohort was much greater. Moreover, although the decline in ChAT activity in the AD cohort compared with the normal control group was significant only for patients in later stages of the illness, the decline in the LBV cohort was significant for those who died with mild-stage disease. When less impaired patients in each cohort (MMSE, > or = 10) underwent separate analysis, the relationship of ChAT activity with the MMSE score was strong and significant for the LBV cohort alone. Question: Do early and widespread cholinergic losses differentiate dementia with Lewy bodies from Alzheimer disease? Output:
PubmedQA163300
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Cannabinoid compounds are known to regulate feeding behavior by modulating the hedonic and/or the incentive properties of food. The aim of this work was to determine the involvement of the cannabinoid system in food reinforcement associated with a conflict situation generated by stress. Mice were trained on a fixed ratio 1 schedule of reinforcement to obtain standard, chocolate-flavored or fat-enriched pellets. Once the acquisition criteria were achieved, the reinforced lever press was paired with foot-shock exposure, and the effects of Delta(9)-tetrahydrocannabinol (THC; 1 mg/kg) were evaluated in this conflict paradigm. THC did not modify the operant response in mice trained with standard pellets. In contrast, THC improved the instrumental performance of mice trained with chocolate-flavored and fat-enriched pellets. However, the cannabinoid agonist did not fully restore the baseline responses obtained previous to foot-shock delivery. THC ameliorated the performance to obtain high palatable food in this conflict test in both food-restricted and sated mice. The effects of THC on food reinforcement seem to be long-lasting since mice previously treated with this compound showed a better recovery of the instrumental behavior after foot-shock exposure.\n Question: Does delta-9-tetrahydrocannabinol enhance food reinforcement in a mouse operant conflict test?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: Cannabinoid compounds are known to regulate feeding behavior by modulating the hedonic and/or the incentive properties of food. The aim of this work was to determine the involvement of the cannabinoid system in food reinforcement associated with a conflict situation generated by stress. Mice were trained on a fixed ratio 1 schedule of reinforcement to obtain standard, chocolate-flavored or fat-enriched pellets. Once the acquisition criteria were achieved, the reinforced lever press was paired with foot-shock exposure, and the effects of Delta(9)-tetrahydrocannabinol (THC; 1 mg/kg) were evaluated in this conflict paradigm. THC did not modify the operant response in mice trained with standard pellets. In contrast, THC improved the instrumental performance of mice trained with chocolate-flavored and fat-enriched pellets. However, the cannabinoid agonist did not fully restore the baseline responses obtained previous to foot-shock delivery. THC ameliorated the performance to obtain high palatable food in this conflict test in both food-restricted and sated mice. The effects of THC on food reinforcement seem to be long-lasting since mice previously treated with this compound showed a better recovery of the instrumental behavior after foot-shock exposure. Question: Does delta-9-tetrahydrocannabinol enhance food reinforcement in a mouse operant conflict test? Output:
PubmedQA67301
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Although many studies have focused on the effects of the physical activity on plasma homocysteine (Hcy) levels, the data gathered up to now are contradictory. In fact, it is true that some researches highlighted an exercise-induced fall in Hcy concentrations, but there are many reports proving that the physical exercise does not contribute to depress plasma Hcy levels and/or that in some instances it would even produce an increase. As a result, the question about the nature of the relationship between Hcy and physical activity remains unanswered. In this study, we have investigated whether the modification in Hcy level after a moderate physical activity was explainable in the light of the common connection of physical activity and Hcy to creatine (Cn). In 16 young volunteers aged from 21 to 37, divided into sedentary (n=6) and athletes (n=10) sub-groups, before and after an incremental cycle ergometer stress test, performed every 30 days for 4 months, we measured the plasma levels of guanidino acetic acid (GAA), ornithine (Orn), glycine (Gly), arginine (Arg), methionine (Met) as well as the plasma levels of Cn and of total and reduced form of the homocysteine (tHcy, rHcy). By difference in the total proteins (tProt) amount between the pre- and post-exercise phases also the dehydration degree of the subjects was measured. After exercise rHcy decreased, tHcy was unchanged while Cn increased. Gly, Arg and Met at the end of exercise remained unaffected whereas, interestingly, GAA decreased in both sub-groups while Orn was significant diminished in athletes and, although not significantly, the same trend was observable in the sedentaries group.\n Question: Are acute variations in homocysteine levels related to creatine changes induced by physical activity?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: Although many studies have focused on the effects of the physical activity on plasma homocysteine (Hcy) levels, the data gathered up to now are contradictory. In fact, it is true that some researches highlighted an exercise-induced fall in Hcy concentrations, but there are many reports proving that the physical exercise does not contribute to depress plasma Hcy levels and/or that in some instances it would even produce an increase. As a result, the question about the nature of the relationship between Hcy and physical activity remains unanswered. In this study, we have investigated whether the modification in Hcy level after a moderate physical activity was explainable in the light of the common connection of physical activity and Hcy to creatine (Cn). In 16 young volunteers aged from 21 to 37, divided into sedentary (n=6) and athletes (n=10) sub-groups, before and after an incremental cycle ergometer stress test, performed every 30 days for 4 months, we measured the plasma levels of guanidino acetic acid (GAA), ornithine (Orn), glycine (Gly), arginine (Arg), methionine (Met) as well as the plasma levels of Cn and of total and reduced form of the homocysteine (tHcy, rHcy). By difference in the total proteins (tProt) amount between the pre- and post-exercise phases also the dehydration degree of the subjects was measured. After exercise rHcy decreased, tHcy was unchanged while Cn increased. Gly, Arg and Met at the end of exercise remained unaffected whereas, interestingly, GAA decreased in both sub-groups while Orn was significant diminished in athletes and, although not significantly, the same trend was observable in the sedentaries group. Question: Are acute variations in homocysteine levels related to creatine changes induced by physical activity? Output:
PubmedQA155471
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Neutrophils are common cells of the inflammatory infiltrate and are predominantly enriched in many cancers. We recently found that neutrophils are accumulated in human hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC), where they promote disease progression by releasing matrix metalloproteinase-9 (MMP9). The underlying mechanisms, however, that allow tumour microenvironments to educate neutrophils are largely unknown. Neutrophils were purified from HCC patients and healthy donors. Immunohistochemistry and immunoblotting were used for the evaluation of autophagy in neutrophils. The regulation and function of increased neutrophil autophagy were assessed by both in vitro and ex vivo studies. Most neutrophils in HCC intratumoural regions, in contrast to those located in the paired non-tumoural areas and within tumour vessels, substantially expressed autophagy-specific protein LC3. Soluble factors derived from hepatoma, including hyaluronan fragments, triggered a considerable increase of functional LC3 and autophagosomes in neutrophils, but this was unrelated to the deactivation of mTOR signalling. Inhibiting the activation of Erk1/2, p38, and NF-κB signals could significantly attenuate such tumour-elicited autophagy. These neutrophils, undergoing autophagy, exhibited long-lived phenotypes with retained Mcl-1 and significantly more intact mitochondria as well as low cleaved caspase-3, which could be abolished by inhibiting the initiation of autophagy. Moreover, increased neutrophil autophagy also correlated with sustained production of pro-metastatic oncostatin M and MMP9 and advanced migration of cancer cells.\n Question: Does increased autophagy sustain the survival and pro-tumourigenic effects of neutrophils in human hepatocellular carcinoma?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: Neutrophils are common cells of the inflammatory infiltrate and are predominantly enriched in many cancers. We recently found that neutrophils are accumulated in human hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC), where they promote disease progression by releasing matrix metalloproteinase-9 (MMP9). The underlying mechanisms, however, that allow tumour microenvironments to educate neutrophils are largely unknown. Neutrophils were purified from HCC patients and healthy donors. Immunohistochemistry and immunoblotting were used for the evaluation of autophagy in neutrophils. The regulation and function of increased neutrophil autophagy were assessed by both in vitro and ex vivo studies. Most neutrophils in HCC intratumoural regions, in contrast to those located in the paired non-tumoural areas and within tumour vessels, substantially expressed autophagy-specific protein LC3. Soluble factors derived from hepatoma, including hyaluronan fragments, triggered a considerable increase of functional LC3 and autophagosomes in neutrophils, but this was unrelated to the deactivation of mTOR signalling. Inhibiting the activation of Erk1/2, p38, and NF-κB signals could significantly attenuate such tumour-elicited autophagy. These neutrophils, undergoing autophagy, exhibited long-lived phenotypes with retained Mcl-1 and significantly more intact mitochondria as well as low cleaved caspase-3, which could be abolished by inhibiting the initiation of autophagy. Moreover, increased neutrophil autophagy also correlated with sustained production of pro-metastatic oncostatin M and MMP9 and advanced migration of cancer cells. Question: Does increased autophagy sustain the survival and pro-tumourigenic effects of neutrophils in human hepatocellular carcinoma? Output:
PubmedQA70652
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) is often unsuccessful in patients with Roux-en-Y anatomy. Augmented enteroscopy allows deep insertion into the small bowel and can be useful in patients with Roux-en-Y anatomy. The aim of this study was to compare single balloon assisted ERCP (SBE-ERCP) and spiral assisted ERCP (SE-ERCP) in patients with Roux-en-Y anatomy in terms of diagnostic and therapeutic yield, procedure time, and complications. This is a retrospective cohort study of consecutive patients with Roux-en-Y anatomy who underwent SBE-ERCP or SE-ERCP between October 2007 and March 2011. Diagnostic yield was defined as successful duct cannulation. Therapeutic yield was defined as the ability to successfully carry out endoscopic therapy in those cannulated. Procedure time and complications were assessed. Thirty-four consecutive patients with Roux-en-Y anatomy underwent 54 ERCP procedures. The overall diagnostic yield was 44.4% with no significant difference between the diagnostic yield of SBE-ERCP (48.3%) and SE-ERCP (40%). The diagnostic yield was lower in patients with gastric by-pass (38.9%) compared with other types of Roux-en-Y anatomy (47.2%) but this was not statistically significant (P = 0.772). The overall therapeutic yield was 93.8%, with a therapeutic yield of 100% for SBE-ERCP and 87.5% for SE-ERCP (P = 1.0). There was one perforation during SBE-ERCP, giving a complication rate of 3.5%. The mean procedure time did not differ between the two techniques.\n Question: Is spiral assisted ERCP equivalent to single balloon assisted ERCP in patients with Roux-en-Y anatomy?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) is often unsuccessful in patients with Roux-en-Y anatomy. Augmented enteroscopy allows deep insertion into the small bowel and can be useful in patients with Roux-en-Y anatomy. The aim of this study was to compare single balloon assisted ERCP (SBE-ERCP) and spiral assisted ERCP (SE-ERCP) in patients with Roux-en-Y anatomy in terms of diagnostic and therapeutic yield, procedure time, and complications. This is a retrospective cohort study of consecutive patients with Roux-en-Y anatomy who underwent SBE-ERCP or SE-ERCP between October 2007 and March 2011. Diagnostic yield was defined as successful duct cannulation. Therapeutic yield was defined as the ability to successfully carry out endoscopic therapy in those cannulated. Procedure time and complications were assessed. Thirty-four consecutive patients with Roux-en-Y anatomy underwent 54 ERCP procedures. The overall diagnostic yield was 44.4% with no significant difference between the diagnostic yield of SBE-ERCP (48.3%) and SE-ERCP (40%). The diagnostic yield was lower in patients with gastric by-pass (38.9%) compared with other types of Roux-en-Y anatomy (47.2%) but this was not statistically significant (P = 0.772). The overall therapeutic yield was 93.8%, with a therapeutic yield of 100% for SBE-ERCP and 87.5% for SE-ERCP (P = 1.0). There was one perforation during SBE-ERCP, giving a complication rate of 3.5%. The mean procedure time did not differ between the two techniques. Question: Is spiral assisted ERCP equivalent to single balloon assisted ERCP in patients with Roux-en-Y anatomy? Output:
PubmedQA150439
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Visceral leishmaniasis is a chronic protozoan disease caused by Leishmania donovani, an obligatory intracellular parasite that resides and multiplies within macrophages of the reticuloendothelial system. The aim of this study was to evaluate the efficacy of nine novel synthetic chromone derivatives as antileishmanial molecules in experimental murine visceral leishmaniasis. In vitro activity of the molecules (2, 5 and 10 μg/ml) was assessed against promastigotes of both pentavalent antimonial-responsive strain AG83 and pentavalent antimonial-resistant strain GE1F8R at days 2 (48 h), 4 (96 h) and 6 (144 h). The efficacy of the most efficient chromone derivative [C-(6-Methyl-4-oxo-4H-1-benzopyran-3-yl)-N-(p-tolyl) nitrone], designated here as NP1, was also tested against intracellular amastigotes in vitro and in vivo. NP1, 5 μg/ml, inhibited the growth of AG83 and GE1F8R promastigotes by 98.57% (day 4) and 75.75% (day 6), respectively, and also inhibited the growth of intracellular amastigotes by 85% (day 3), compared to DMSO control. Treatment of L. donovani-infected mice with NP1 resulted in a 70% significant decrease in parasite load in the spleen in the 7th week after infection (5 mice in each group), with associated induction of interferon-γ synthesis by dose 2 (37.5 mg/kg body weight) compared to DMSO control. Dose 2 was found efficient over dose 1 (25 mg/kg body weight).\n Question: Does protective therapy with novel chromone derivative against Leishmania donovani infection induce Th1 response in vivo?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: Visceral leishmaniasis is a chronic protozoan disease caused by Leishmania donovani, an obligatory intracellular parasite that resides and multiplies within macrophages of the reticuloendothelial system. The aim of this study was to evaluate the efficacy of nine novel synthetic chromone derivatives as antileishmanial molecules in experimental murine visceral leishmaniasis. In vitro activity of the molecules (2, 5 and 10 μg/ml) was assessed against promastigotes of both pentavalent antimonial-responsive strain AG83 and pentavalent antimonial-resistant strain GE1F8R at days 2 (48 h), 4 (96 h) and 6 (144 h). The efficacy of the most efficient chromone derivative [C-(6-Methyl-4-oxo-4H-1-benzopyran-3-yl)-N-(p-tolyl) nitrone], designated here as NP1, was also tested against intracellular amastigotes in vitro and in vivo. NP1, 5 μg/ml, inhibited the growth of AG83 and GE1F8R promastigotes by 98.57% (day 4) and 75.75% (day 6), respectively, and also inhibited the growth of intracellular amastigotes by 85% (day 3), compared to DMSO control. Treatment of L. donovani-infected mice with NP1 resulted in a 70% significant decrease in parasite load in the spleen in the 7th week after infection (5 mice in each group), with associated induction of interferon-γ synthesis by dose 2 (37.5 mg/kg body weight) compared to DMSO control. Dose 2 was found efficient over dose 1 (25 mg/kg body weight). Question: Does protective therapy with novel chromone derivative against Leishmania donovani infection induce Th1 response in vivo? Output:
PubmedQA108402
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Ischemic postconditioning has been found to decrease brain infarct area and spinal cord ischemic injury. In this study, we tested the hypothesis that ischemic postconditioning reduces global cerebral ischemia/reperfusion-induced structural and functional injury in rats. Ten-minute global ischemia was induced by 4-vessel occlusion in male Sprague-Dawley rats. The animals underwent postconditioning consisting of 3 cycles of 15-second/15-second (Post-15/15), 30-second/30-second (Post-30/30), or 60-second/15-second (Post-60/15) reperfusion/reocclusion or 15-second/15-second reperfusion/reocclusion applied after a 45-second reperfusion (Post-45-15/15). Ten minutes of ischemia and 7 days of reperfusion destroyed 85.8% of CA1 hippocampal neurons and 64.1% of parietal cortical neurons. Three cycles of Post-15/15, Post-30/30, and Post-45-15/15 reperfusion/reocclusion markedly reduced neuronal loss after 7 days or 3 weeks of reperfusion and diminished the deficiency in spatial learning and memory. After reperfusion, a period of hyperperfusion followed by hypoperfusion was observed, both of which were blocked by postconditioning. The cytosolic level of cytochrome c increased significantly after 48 hours of reperfusion, and this was inhibited by Post-15/15, Post-30/30, and Post-45-15/15. However, 3 cycles of 60-second/15-second reperfusion/reocclusion failed to protect against neuronal damage, behavioral deficit, or cytochrome c translocation.\n Question: Does ischemic postconditioning protect against global cerebral ischemia/reperfusion-induced injury in rats?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: Ischemic postconditioning has been found to decrease brain infarct area and spinal cord ischemic injury. In this study, we tested the hypothesis that ischemic postconditioning reduces global cerebral ischemia/reperfusion-induced structural and functional injury in rats. Ten-minute global ischemia was induced by 4-vessel occlusion in male Sprague-Dawley rats. The animals underwent postconditioning consisting of 3 cycles of 15-second/15-second (Post-15/15), 30-second/30-second (Post-30/30), or 60-second/15-second (Post-60/15) reperfusion/reocclusion or 15-second/15-second reperfusion/reocclusion applied after a 45-second reperfusion (Post-45-15/15). Ten minutes of ischemia and 7 days of reperfusion destroyed 85.8% of CA1 hippocampal neurons and 64.1% of parietal cortical neurons. Three cycles of Post-15/15, Post-30/30, and Post-45-15/15 reperfusion/reocclusion markedly reduced neuronal loss after 7 days or 3 weeks of reperfusion and diminished the deficiency in spatial learning and memory. After reperfusion, a period of hyperperfusion followed by hypoperfusion was observed, both of which were blocked by postconditioning. The cytosolic level of cytochrome c increased significantly after 48 hours of reperfusion, and this was inhibited by Post-15/15, Post-30/30, and Post-45-15/15. However, 3 cycles of 60-second/15-second reperfusion/reocclusion failed to protect against neuronal damage, behavioral deficit, or cytochrome c translocation. Question: Does ischemic postconditioning protect against global cerebral ischemia/reperfusion-induced injury in rats? Output:
PubmedQA106292
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: To conduct a dose-finding trial using a single low dose and dose escalation of a higher dose of thalidomide in patients with metastatic renal cell carcinoma (RCC), and to evaluate the antineoplastic effectiveness of thalidomide as an anti-angiogenic agent on RCC. The 14 patients enrolled in the study had progressive measurable metastatic RCC and consented to participate. Patients were randomized to either a fixed low dose of 200 mg of thalidomide or to a high dose of 800 mg that was increased to a maximum dose of 1200 mg daily. Patients were evaluated for response after 8 weeks of therapy. Stable disease was achieved in six patients and was seen in both the low-dose and high-dose thalidomide groups. The median overall survival was 9 months. The low-dose thalidomide regimen was better tolerated and patients survived longer than those on the high-dose regimen (16 vs 6 months, P = 0.04)\n Question: Is a lower dose of thalidomide better than a high dose in metastatic renal cell carcinoma?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: To conduct a dose-finding trial using a single low dose and dose escalation of a higher dose of thalidomide in patients with metastatic renal cell carcinoma (RCC), and to evaluate the antineoplastic effectiveness of thalidomide as an anti-angiogenic agent on RCC. The 14 patients enrolled in the study had progressive measurable metastatic RCC and consented to participate. Patients were randomized to either a fixed low dose of 200 mg of thalidomide or to a high dose of 800 mg that was increased to a maximum dose of 1200 mg daily. Patients were evaluated for response after 8 weeks of therapy. Stable disease was achieved in six patients and was seen in both the low-dose and high-dose thalidomide groups. The median overall survival was 9 months. The low-dose thalidomide regimen was better tolerated and patients survived longer than those on the high-dose regimen (16 vs 6 months, P = 0.04) Question: Is a lower dose of thalidomide better than a high dose in metastatic renal cell carcinoma? Output:
PubmedQA91896
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Down's syndrome patients express a neurodegenerative disorder and mental retardation. We studied the reactivity of EEG and its correlation with neuropsychological test score in Down's syndrome. We studied 32 patients with Down's syndrome and 31 controls for blocking of occipital EEG activity. The temporo-occipital EEG with eyes open (EO) was compared with resting EEG with eyes closed (EC), (EC/EO ratio). Both Down patients and controls showed significant diminution of alpha, beta and theta activity and decrease of EEG frequency with EO. However, there was a significant impairment in Down patients in the EC/EO ratio in alpha band, compared to controls. The controls had no correlation of the alpha EC/EO ratio with age or gender. The Down patients showed a significant correlation of this variable with age which is in accordance with a gradually progressing disease. They had also significant correlations of the alpha EC/EO ratio and neuropsychological test scores which indicates that this ratio may be a more general measure of cerebral or hemispherical dysfunction than a mere impairment of visual activation. Down patients also showed significant differences in resting EEG variables, compared to the controls, even if the conventional EEG showed normal or mildly slowed dominant occipital rhythm in most of the patients. The correlation analysis between resting EEG and EC/EO ratio variables pointed out that they are relatively independent, representing different factors in the regulation of EEG.\n Question: Does eEG reactivity correlate with neuropsychological test scores in Down 's syndrome?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: Down's syndrome patients express a neurodegenerative disorder and mental retardation. We studied the reactivity of EEG and its correlation with neuropsychological test score in Down's syndrome. We studied 32 patients with Down's syndrome and 31 controls for blocking of occipital EEG activity. The temporo-occipital EEG with eyes open (EO) was compared with resting EEG with eyes closed (EC), (EC/EO ratio). Both Down patients and controls showed significant diminution of alpha, beta and theta activity and decrease of EEG frequency with EO. However, there was a significant impairment in Down patients in the EC/EO ratio in alpha band, compared to controls. The controls had no correlation of the alpha EC/EO ratio with age or gender. The Down patients showed a significant correlation of this variable with age which is in accordance with a gradually progressing disease. They had also significant correlations of the alpha EC/EO ratio and neuropsychological test scores which indicates that this ratio may be a more general measure of cerebral or hemispherical dysfunction than a mere impairment of visual activation. Down patients also showed significant differences in resting EEG variables, compared to the controls, even if the conventional EEG showed normal or mildly slowed dominant occipital rhythm in most of the patients. The correlation analysis between resting EEG and EC/EO ratio variables pointed out that they are relatively independent, representing different factors in the regulation of EEG. Question: Does eEG reactivity correlate with neuropsychological test scores in Down 's syndrome? Output:
PubmedQA86303
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Thrombin generation (TG) in plasma can be monitored continuously with a fluorogenic thrombin substrate using calibrated automated thrombinography (CAT). In the presence of low concentrations of a reversible direct thrombin inhibitor (DTI), CAT shows an unexpected effect: the endogenous thrombin potential (ETP) increases at low concentrations of the inhibitor to subsequently decrease concentration dependently at higher concentrations (> approximately 100 nm). To find an explanation for this phenomenon, we measured the concentrations of free thrombin and alpha(2)-macroglobulin-thrombin complex (alpha(2)MT) with a sub-sampling technique in the presence of AR-H067637, a selective DTI. At all concentrations of the DTI there was a gradual dose-dependent decrease in the concentration of free, not-inhibited thrombin but a transient increase in free alpha(2)MT due to competition of thrombin and alpha(2)MT for the inhibitor. Because the CAT technique uses an algorithm to subtract alpha(2)MT activity from the total amidolytic activity, this transient increase in alpha(2)MT activity is not subtracted and erroneously attributed to thrombin itself.\n Question: Is the paradoxical stimulation by a reversible thrombin inhibitor of thrombin generation in plasma measured with thrombinography caused by alpha-macroglobulin-thrombin?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: Thrombin generation (TG) in plasma can be monitored continuously with a fluorogenic thrombin substrate using calibrated automated thrombinography (CAT). In the presence of low concentrations of a reversible direct thrombin inhibitor (DTI), CAT shows an unexpected effect: the endogenous thrombin potential (ETP) increases at low concentrations of the inhibitor to subsequently decrease concentration dependently at higher concentrations (> approximately 100 nm). To find an explanation for this phenomenon, we measured the concentrations of free thrombin and alpha(2)-macroglobulin-thrombin complex (alpha(2)MT) with a sub-sampling technique in the presence of AR-H067637, a selective DTI. At all concentrations of the DTI there was a gradual dose-dependent decrease in the concentration of free, not-inhibited thrombin but a transient increase in free alpha(2)MT due to competition of thrombin and alpha(2)MT for the inhibitor. Because the CAT technique uses an algorithm to subtract alpha(2)MT activity from the total amidolytic activity, this transient increase in alpha(2)MT activity is not subtracted and erroneously attributed to thrombin itself. Question: Is the paradoxical stimulation by a reversible thrombin inhibitor of thrombin generation in plasma measured with thrombinography caused by alpha-macroglobulin-thrombin? Output:
PubmedQA196120
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: To test the hypothesis that primed PMNLs in blood of chronic kidney disease patients release the active form of elastase and cathepsin G causing degradation of vital proteins and promote tissue damage. RT-PCR, immunocytochemical staining, immunoblotting, and FACS analyses were used to study these enzymes in hemodialysis patients (HD) versus healthy normal controls (NC). Using PMNLs and endothelial cells cocultivation system we measure the effect of HD PMNLs on the endothelial VE-cadherin, an essential protein for maintaining endothelial integrity. Levels of elastase and cathepsin G were reduced in PMNLs of HD patients, while mRNA enzymes levels were not different. Elevated levels of the active form of these enzymes were found in blood of HD patients compared to NC.HD plasma had higher levels of soluble VE-cadherin present in three molecular forms: whole 140 kDa molecule and two fragments of 100 and 40 kDa. Cocultivation studies showed that primed PMNLs cleave the endothelial cadherin, resulting in a 100 kDa fragment.\n Question: Do elastase and cathepsin G from primed leukocytes cleave vascular endothelial cadherin in hemodialysis patients?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: To test the hypothesis that primed PMNLs in blood of chronic kidney disease patients release the active form of elastase and cathepsin G causing degradation of vital proteins and promote tissue damage. RT-PCR, immunocytochemical staining, immunoblotting, and FACS analyses were used to study these enzymes in hemodialysis patients (HD) versus healthy normal controls (NC). Using PMNLs and endothelial cells cocultivation system we measure the effect of HD PMNLs on the endothelial VE-cadherin, an essential protein for maintaining endothelial integrity. Levels of elastase and cathepsin G were reduced in PMNLs of HD patients, while mRNA enzymes levels were not different. Elevated levels of the active form of these enzymes were found in blood of HD patients compared to NC.HD plasma had higher levels of soluble VE-cadherin present in three molecular forms: whole 140 kDa molecule and two fragments of 100 and 40 kDa. Cocultivation studies showed that primed PMNLs cleave the endothelial cadherin, resulting in a 100 kDa fragment. Question: Do elastase and cathepsin G from primed leukocytes cleave vascular endothelial cadherin in hemodialysis patients? Output:
PubmedQA15450
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: The main problem of tremor is the damage caused to the quality of the life of patients, especially those at more advanced ages. There is not a consensus yet about the origins of this disorder, but it can be examined in the correlations between the biological signs of aging and the tremor characteristics. This work sought correlations between the osmotic fragility of erythrocytes and features extracted from electromyographic (EMG) activity resulting from physiological tremor in healthy patients (N = 44) at different ages (24-87 years). The osmotic fragility was spectrophotometrically evaluated by the dependence of hemolysis, provided by the absorbance in 540 nm (A54o), on the concentration of NaCl. The data were adjusted to curves of sigmoidal regression and characterized by the half transition point (H50), amplitude of lysis transition (dx) and values of A540 in the curve regions that characterize the presence of lysed (A1) and preserved erythrocytes (A2). The approximate entropy was estimated from EMG signals detected from the extensor carpi ulnaris muscle during the movement of the hand of subjects holding up a laser pen towards an Archimedes spiral, fixed in a whiteboard. The evaluations were carried out with the laser pen at rest, at the center of the spiral, and in movement from the center to the outside and from outside to the center. The correlations among the parameters of osmotic fragility, tremor and age were tested. Negative correlations with age were found for A1 and dx. With the hand at rest, a positive correlation with H50 was found for the approximate entropy. Negative correlations with H50 were found for the entropy with the hand in movement, as from the center to the outside or from the outside to the center of the spiral.\n Question: Does the approximate entropy of the electromyographic signals of tremor correlate with the osmotic fragility of human erythrocytes?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: The main problem of tremor is the damage caused to the quality of the life of patients, especially those at more advanced ages. There is not a consensus yet about the origins of this disorder, but it can be examined in the correlations between the biological signs of aging and the tremor characteristics. This work sought correlations between the osmotic fragility of erythrocytes and features extracted from electromyographic (EMG) activity resulting from physiological tremor in healthy patients (N = 44) at different ages (24-87 years). The osmotic fragility was spectrophotometrically evaluated by the dependence of hemolysis, provided by the absorbance in 540 nm (A54o), on the concentration of NaCl. The data were adjusted to curves of sigmoidal regression and characterized by the half transition point (H50), amplitude of lysis transition (dx) and values of A540 in the curve regions that characterize the presence of lysed (A1) and preserved erythrocytes (A2). The approximate entropy was estimated from EMG signals detected from the extensor carpi ulnaris muscle during the movement of the hand of subjects holding up a laser pen towards an Archimedes spiral, fixed in a whiteboard. The evaluations were carried out with the laser pen at rest, at the center of the spiral, and in movement from the center to the outside and from outside to the center. The correlations among the parameters of osmotic fragility, tremor and age were tested. Negative correlations with age were found for A1 and dx. With the hand at rest, a positive correlation with H50 was found for the approximate entropy. Negative correlations with H50 were found for the entropy with the hand in movement, as from the center to the outside or from the outside to the center of the spiral. Question: Does the approximate entropy of the electromyographic signals of tremor correlate with the osmotic fragility of human erythrocytes? Output:
PubmedQA59760
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Natalizumab is an efficacious agent for induction and maintenance of remission in patients with Crohn's disease (CD) who have failed anti-tumor necrosis factor agents. We aimed to assess the impact of endoscopic severity and mucosal healing on the long-term outcome of natalizumab treatment in CD. We retrospectively assessed endoscopic severity according to the Simple Endoscopic Score for Crohn's Disease in patients with CD who received natalizumab therapy. The degree of endoscopic severity before natalizumab treatment and mucosal healing after treatment and their correlation with long-term outcome were studied. Thirty-two patients with CD (15 male, median age 32.5 years) receiving natalizumab underwent at least 1 colonoscopy before or during natalizumab treatment. All patients had previously failed immunomodulator(s), and 31 failed anti-tumor necrosis factor agent(s). Mean duration of natalizumab treatment was 14.1 months. Baseline Simple Endoscopic Score for CD was categorized into quartiles, and those with a greater score were less likely to respond to treatment as assessed by Kaplan-Meier survival analysis (n = 32, log-rank test, P = 0.0055). Mucosal healing (decrease of Simple Endoscopic Score for CD of >70%) was achieved in 11 of 26 patients (42.3%), and this was correlated with an improved long-term outcome (log-rank test, P = 0.0063).\n Question: Is mucosal healing associated with improved long-term outcome of maintenance therapy with natalizumab in Crohn 's disease?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: Natalizumab is an efficacious agent for induction and maintenance of remission in patients with Crohn's disease (CD) who have failed anti-tumor necrosis factor agents. We aimed to assess the impact of endoscopic severity and mucosal healing on the long-term outcome of natalizumab treatment in CD. We retrospectively assessed endoscopic severity according to the Simple Endoscopic Score for Crohn's Disease in patients with CD who received natalizumab therapy. The degree of endoscopic severity before natalizumab treatment and mucosal healing after treatment and their correlation with long-term outcome were studied. Thirty-two patients with CD (15 male, median age 32.5 years) receiving natalizumab underwent at least 1 colonoscopy before or during natalizumab treatment. All patients had previously failed immunomodulator(s), and 31 failed anti-tumor necrosis factor agent(s). Mean duration of natalizumab treatment was 14.1 months. Baseline Simple Endoscopic Score for CD was categorized into quartiles, and those with a greater score were less likely to respond to treatment as assessed by Kaplan-Meier survival analysis (n = 32, log-rank test, P = 0.0055). Mucosal healing (decrease of Simple Endoscopic Score for CD of >70%) was achieved in 11 of 26 patients (42.3%), and this was correlated with an improved long-term outcome (log-rank test, P = 0.0063). Question: Is mucosal healing associated with improved long-term outcome of maintenance therapy with natalizumab in Crohn 's disease? Output:
PubmedQA96844
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: The endocannabinoid system modulates function of immune cells and mesenchymal cells such as fibroblasts, which contribute to cartilage destruction in rheumatoid arthritis (RA). The aim of the study was to determine the influence of N-acylethanolamines anandamide (AEA), palmitoylethanolamine (PEA) and oleylethanolamine (OEA) on several features of arthritic inflammation in vitro (human material) and in vivo (a mouse model). Immunofluorescence and western blotting were used to detect cannabinoid receptors and related enzymes. Cytokines and MMP-3 were measured by ELISA. Intracellular signaling proteins were detected by proteome profiling. Proliferation was quantified by CTB reagent. Adhesion was assessed by the xCELLigence system. After onset of collagen type II arthritis, mice were treated daily with the FAAH inhibitor JNJ1661010 (20 mg/kg) or vehicle. IL-6, IL-8 and MMP-3 (determined only in synovial fibroblasts (SFs)) were downregulated in primary synoviocytes and SFs of RA and OA after AEA, PEA and OEA treatment. In SFs, this was due to activation of TRPV1 and TRPA1 in a COX-2-dependent fashion. FAAH inhibition increased the efficacy of AEA in primary synoviocytes but not in SFs. The effects of OEA and PEA on SFs were diminished by FAAH inhibition. Adhesion to fibronectin was increased in a CB1-dependent manner by AEA in OASFs. Furthermore, elevation of endocannabinoids ameliorated collagen-induced arthritis in mice.\n Question: Are anti-inflammatory effects of N-acylethanolamines in rheumatoid arthritis synovial cells mediated by TRPV1 and TRPA1 in a COX-2 dependent manner?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: The endocannabinoid system modulates function of immune cells and mesenchymal cells such as fibroblasts, which contribute to cartilage destruction in rheumatoid arthritis (RA). The aim of the study was to determine the influence of N-acylethanolamines anandamide (AEA), palmitoylethanolamine (PEA) and oleylethanolamine (OEA) on several features of arthritic inflammation in vitro (human material) and in vivo (a mouse model). Immunofluorescence and western blotting were used to detect cannabinoid receptors and related enzymes. Cytokines and MMP-3 were measured by ELISA. Intracellular signaling proteins were detected by proteome profiling. Proliferation was quantified by CTB reagent. Adhesion was assessed by the xCELLigence system. After onset of collagen type II arthritis, mice were treated daily with the FAAH inhibitor JNJ1661010 (20 mg/kg) or vehicle. IL-6, IL-8 and MMP-3 (determined only in synovial fibroblasts (SFs)) were downregulated in primary synoviocytes and SFs of RA and OA after AEA, PEA and OEA treatment. In SFs, this was due to activation of TRPV1 and TRPA1 in a COX-2-dependent fashion. FAAH inhibition increased the efficacy of AEA in primary synoviocytes but not in SFs. The effects of OEA and PEA on SFs were diminished by FAAH inhibition. Adhesion to fibronectin was increased in a CB1-dependent manner by AEA in OASFs. Furthermore, elevation of endocannabinoids ameliorated collagen-induced arthritis in mice. Question: Are anti-inflammatory effects of N-acylethanolamines in rheumatoid arthritis synovial cells mediated by TRPV1 and TRPA1 in a COX-2 dependent manner? Output:
PubmedQA40365
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Prebeta1-HDL is a minor HDL subfraction that is an initial acceptor of cellular free cholesterol. Prebeta1-HDL is elevated in hypertriglyceridemia, which is exaggerated with postprandial hyperglycemia. We investigated whether the prebeta1-HDL concentration changes postprandially in type 2 diabetic patients and blood glucose (BG) control reduces this change. We examined 9 healthy controls and 20 diabetic patients with poor BG control. Seven blood samples (30 min before and 2 h after each meal, and at midnight) were obtained daily in the poor (poor-GC: n=20) and improved (imp-GC: n=11) glycemic control phases of diabetic patients after intensive insulin therapy and a low-calorie diet. The prebeta1-HDL concentration did not change postprandially in the controls. However, the fasting prebeta1-HDL concentration in the poor-GC phase was 28.3% higher than in the controls (25.4+/-6.8 vs 19.8+/-6.9 mg/l ApoAI, p<0.05) and decreased markedly after breakfast (20.9+/-7.7 mg/l ApoAI, p<0.01). In the imp-GC phase, the prebeta1-HDL concentration showed no morning surge, as in the controls.\n Question: Is prebeta1-HDL elevated in the fasting state , but markedly reduced postprandially in poorly controlled type 2 diabetic patients?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: Prebeta1-HDL is a minor HDL subfraction that is an initial acceptor of cellular free cholesterol. Prebeta1-HDL is elevated in hypertriglyceridemia, which is exaggerated with postprandial hyperglycemia. We investigated whether the prebeta1-HDL concentration changes postprandially in type 2 diabetic patients and blood glucose (BG) control reduces this change. We examined 9 healthy controls and 20 diabetic patients with poor BG control. Seven blood samples (30 min before and 2 h after each meal, and at midnight) were obtained daily in the poor (poor-GC: n=20) and improved (imp-GC: n=11) glycemic control phases of diabetic patients after intensive insulin therapy and a low-calorie diet. The prebeta1-HDL concentration did not change postprandially in the controls. However, the fasting prebeta1-HDL concentration in the poor-GC phase was 28.3% higher than in the controls (25.4+/-6.8 vs 19.8+/-6.9 mg/l ApoAI, p<0.05) and decreased markedly after breakfast (20.9+/-7.7 mg/l ApoAI, p<0.01). In the imp-GC phase, the prebeta1-HDL concentration showed no morning surge, as in the controls. Question: Is prebeta1-HDL elevated in the fasting state , but markedly reduced postprandially in poorly controlled type 2 diabetic patients? Output:
PubmedQA197959
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: The associations of serum levels of homocysteine (tHcy), vitamin B(12), and folate with risk of all-cause and coronary heat disease (CHD) mortality is controversial, and the evidence in older adults is limited. The aim of this study was to examine whether serum folate, vitamin B(12), and tHcy independently predict risk of CHD-related and all-cause mortality in older adults. Serum concentrations of folate, vitamin B(12), and tHcy were determined from blood samples obtained from 3010 Blue Mountains Eye Study participants (1997-99), aged ≥55 years. CHD and all-cause mortality was confirmed using the Australian National Death Index. Persons in the highest quartile of serum tHcy had increased risk of CHD mortality compared to those in the lowest quartile (multivariable-adjusted hazard ratio, HR, 2.45, 95% CI 1.30-4.62). A significant continuous association was observed between serum tHcy and CHD mortality (HR per SD ( = 4.8 µmol/l) increase in serum tHcy 1.25, 95% CI 1.08-1.45), after multivariable-adjustment. A significant association between folate deficiency and CHD-mortality was found (multivariable-adjusted HR 1.53, 95% CI 1.01-2.29). Hyperhomocysteinaemia (>15 µmol/l) was a significant predictor of all-cause mortality (multivariable-adjusted HR 1.47, 95% CI 1.18-1.83). A significant interaction was observed between hyperhomocysteinaemia and folate deficiency for all-cause and CHD mortality (p for interaction = 0.03 and p for interaction = 0.05, respectively).\n Question: Are serum homocysteine and folate but not vitamin B12 predictors of CHD mortality in older adults?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: The associations of serum levels of homocysteine (tHcy), vitamin B(12), and folate with risk of all-cause and coronary heat disease (CHD) mortality is controversial, and the evidence in older adults is limited. The aim of this study was to examine whether serum folate, vitamin B(12), and tHcy independently predict risk of CHD-related and all-cause mortality in older adults. Serum concentrations of folate, vitamin B(12), and tHcy were determined from blood samples obtained from 3010 Blue Mountains Eye Study participants (1997-99), aged ≥55 years. CHD and all-cause mortality was confirmed using the Australian National Death Index. Persons in the highest quartile of serum tHcy had increased risk of CHD mortality compared to those in the lowest quartile (multivariable-adjusted hazard ratio, HR, 2.45, 95% CI 1.30-4.62). A significant continuous association was observed between serum tHcy and CHD mortality (HR per SD ( = 4.8 µmol/l) increase in serum tHcy 1.25, 95% CI 1.08-1.45), after multivariable-adjustment. A significant association between folate deficiency and CHD-mortality was found (multivariable-adjusted HR 1.53, 95% CI 1.01-2.29). Hyperhomocysteinaemia (>15 µmol/l) was a significant predictor of all-cause mortality (multivariable-adjusted HR 1.47, 95% CI 1.18-1.83). A significant interaction was observed between hyperhomocysteinaemia and folate deficiency for all-cause and CHD mortality (p for interaction = 0.03 and p for interaction = 0.05, respectively). Question: Are serum homocysteine and folate but not vitamin B12 predictors of CHD mortality in older adults? Output:
PubmedQA45996
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: To investigate the effects of high-lipid enteral nutrition in a setting of developing inflammation and tissue damage. An excessive inflammatory response following severe trauma is associated with poor clinical outcome. Currently, therapies directed at attenuation of an ongoing inflammatory cascade are lacking. Administration of high-lipid enteral nutrition before hemorrhagic shock has been shown to effectively inhibit early and late proinflammatory cytokines by activation of the autonomic nervous system via cholecystokinin (CCK)-receptors. A rat model of hemorrhagic shock was used in which animals were either fasted or treated with high-lipid or control low-lipid enteral nutrition. CCK-receptor antagonists were administered before feeding. Tissues and plasma were collected to assess inflammation and intestinal integrity. Administration of high-lipid enteral nutrition after shock reduced plasma interferon-gamma (IFN-gamma) significantly in comparison with those in low-lipid-treated and fasted animals (P < 0.01 and P < 0.001, respectively). Also, interleukin (IL)-10 levels in plasma were decreased in comparison with those in fasted animals (P < 0.001). Enterocyte damage, expressed as circulating ileal lipid-binding protein (ILBP), was prevented by early high-lipid nutrition in comparison with that in low-lipid-treated and fasted animals (P = 0.05 and P < 0.001, respectively). Furthermore, high-lipid feeding preserved intestinal integrity in comparison with that observed in low-lipid-treated and fasted animals, as assessed by bacterial translocation (BT) to distant organs (P < 0.05 and P < 0.001, respectively) and ileal permeability to horseradish peroxidase (HRP) (P = 0.05 and P < 0.001, respectively). The protective effects of high-lipid intervention were nullified by CCK-receptor antagonists (IFN-gamma; IL-10; BT; and HRP; P < 0.05).\n Question: Does postshock intervention with high-lipid enteral nutrition reduce inflammation and tissue damage?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: To investigate the effects of high-lipid enteral nutrition in a setting of developing inflammation and tissue damage. An excessive inflammatory response following severe trauma is associated with poor clinical outcome. Currently, therapies directed at attenuation of an ongoing inflammatory cascade are lacking. Administration of high-lipid enteral nutrition before hemorrhagic shock has been shown to effectively inhibit early and late proinflammatory cytokines by activation of the autonomic nervous system via cholecystokinin (CCK)-receptors. A rat model of hemorrhagic shock was used in which animals were either fasted or treated with high-lipid or control low-lipid enteral nutrition. CCK-receptor antagonists were administered before feeding. Tissues and plasma were collected to assess inflammation and intestinal integrity. Administration of high-lipid enteral nutrition after shock reduced plasma interferon-gamma (IFN-gamma) significantly in comparison with those in low-lipid-treated and fasted animals (P < 0.01 and P < 0.001, respectively). Also, interleukin (IL)-10 levels in plasma were decreased in comparison with those in fasted animals (P < 0.001). Enterocyte damage, expressed as circulating ileal lipid-binding protein (ILBP), was prevented by early high-lipid nutrition in comparison with that in low-lipid-treated and fasted animals (P = 0.05 and P < 0.001, respectively). Furthermore, high-lipid feeding preserved intestinal integrity in comparison with that observed in low-lipid-treated and fasted animals, as assessed by bacterial translocation (BT) to distant organs (P < 0.05 and P < 0.001, respectively) and ileal permeability to horseradish peroxidase (HRP) (P = 0.05 and P < 0.001, respectively). The protective effects of high-lipid intervention were nullified by CCK-receptor antagonists (IFN-gamma; IL-10; BT; and HRP; P < 0.05). Question: Does postshock intervention with high-lipid enteral nutrition reduce inflammation and tissue damage? Output:
PubmedQA61629
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Virtual reality (VR) simulation has been suggested to objectively assess endovascular skills. The aim of this study was to determine the impact of cognitive training on technical performance of inexperienced subjects on a commercially available VR simulator (VIST, Vascular Intervention Simulation Trainer, Mentice, Gothenburg, Sweden). Forty-seven subjects treated an identical virtual iliac artery stenosis endovascularly. Surgical trainees without endovascular experience were allocated to two training protocols: group A(1) (n = 10) received a 45 minute didactic session followed by an expert demonstration of the procedure that included error-based learning, whereas group A(2) (n = 10) was only given a demonstration of an iliac dilation and stent procedure. All trainees performed the intervention immediately following the expert demonstration. Twenty-seven endovascular physicians were recruited (>100 endovascular interventions). Performance was assessed using the quantitative (procedure and fluoroscopy time) and qualitative (stent/vessel ratio and residual stenosis) assessment parameters recorded by the simulator. The end-product (qualitative metrics) in the cognitive-skills group A(1) was similar to those of the endovascular physicians, though A(2) performed significantly worse than the physicians (group B): stent/vessel ratio (A(1) 0.89 vs B 0.96, P = .960; A(2) 0.66 vs B 0.96, P = .001) and residual stenosis (A(1) 11 vs B 4%, P = .511; A(2) 35 vs B 4%, P < .001). Group A(1) took longer to perform the procedure (A(1) 982 vs B 441 seconds, P < .001), with greater use of fluoroscopy than group B (A(1) 609 vs B 189 seconds, P < .001) whereas group A(2) performed the intervention as quickly as group B (A(2) 358 vs B 441 seconds, P = .192) but used less fluoroscopy (A(2) 120 vs 189 seconds, P = .002).\n Question: Does cognitive training improve clinically relevant outcomes during simulated endovascular procedures?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: Virtual reality (VR) simulation has been suggested to objectively assess endovascular skills. The aim of this study was to determine the impact of cognitive training on technical performance of inexperienced subjects on a commercially available VR simulator (VIST, Vascular Intervention Simulation Trainer, Mentice, Gothenburg, Sweden). Forty-seven subjects treated an identical virtual iliac artery stenosis endovascularly. Surgical trainees without endovascular experience were allocated to two training protocols: group A(1) (n = 10) received a 45 minute didactic session followed by an expert demonstration of the procedure that included error-based learning, whereas group A(2) (n = 10) was only given a demonstration of an iliac dilation and stent procedure. All trainees performed the intervention immediately following the expert demonstration. Twenty-seven endovascular physicians were recruited (>100 endovascular interventions). Performance was assessed using the quantitative (procedure and fluoroscopy time) and qualitative (stent/vessel ratio and residual stenosis) assessment parameters recorded by the simulator. The end-product (qualitative metrics) in the cognitive-skills group A(1) was similar to those of the endovascular physicians, though A(2) performed significantly worse than the physicians (group B): stent/vessel ratio (A(1) 0.89 vs B 0.96, P = .960; A(2) 0.66 vs B 0.96, P = .001) and residual stenosis (A(1) 11 vs B 4%, P = .511; A(2) 35 vs B 4%, P < .001). Group A(1) took longer to perform the procedure (A(1) 982 vs B 441 seconds, P < .001), with greater use of fluoroscopy than group B (A(1) 609 vs B 189 seconds, P < .001) whereas group A(2) performed the intervention as quickly as group B (A(2) 358 vs B 441 seconds, P = .192) but used less fluoroscopy (A(2) 120 vs 189 seconds, P = .002). Question: Does cognitive training improve clinically relevant outcomes during simulated endovascular procedures? Output:
PubmedQA15569
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: In this study, we tested the hypothesis that aortic cross-clamping (ACC) and reperfusion cause distributive alterations of oxygenation and perfusion in the microcirculation of the gut and kidneys despite normal systemic hemodynamics and oxygenation. Fifteen anesthetized pigs were randomized between an ACC group (n = 10), undergoing 45 minutes of aortic clamping above the superior mesenteric artery, and a time-matched sham surgery control group (n = 5). Systemic, intestinal, and renal hemodynamics and oxygenation variables were monitored during 4 hours of reperfusion. Microvascular oxygen partial pressure (microPo(2)) was measured in the intestinal serosa and mucosa and the renal cortex, using the Pd-porphyrin phosphorescence technique. Intestinal luminal Pco(2) was determined by air tonometry and the serosal microvascular flow by orthogonal polarization spectral imaging. Organ blood flow and renal and intestinal microPo(2) decreased significantly during ACC, whereas the intestinal oxygen extraction and Pco(2) gap increased. The intestinal response to reperfusion after ACC was a sustained reactive hyperemia but no such effect was seen in the kidney. Despite a sustained high intestinal O(2) delivery, serosal microPo(2) (median [range], 49 mm Hg [41-67 mm Hg] versus 37 mm Hg [27-41 mm Hg]; P < 0.05 baseline versus 4 hours reperfusion) and the absolute number of perfused microvessels decreased along with an increased intestinal Pco(2) gap (17 mm Hg [10-19 mm Hg] versus 23 mm Hg [19-30 mm Hg]; P < 0.05). In contrast, the kidney showed a progressive O(2) delivery decrease accompanied by a decrease in renal cortex oxygenation (70 mm Hg [52-93 mm Hg] versus 57 mm Hg [33-64 mm Hg]; P < 0.05).\n Question: Does aortic cross-clamping and reperfusion in pigs reduce microvascular oxygenation by altered systemic and regional blood flow distribution?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: In this study, we tested the hypothesis that aortic cross-clamping (ACC) and reperfusion cause distributive alterations of oxygenation and perfusion in the microcirculation of the gut and kidneys despite normal systemic hemodynamics and oxygenation. Fifteen anesthetized pigs were randomized between an ACC group (n = 10), undergoing 45 minutes of aortic clamping above the superior mesenteric artery, and a time-matched sham surgery control group (n = 5). Systemic, intestinal, and renal hemodynamics and oxygenation variables were monitored during 4 hours of reperfusion. Microvascular oxygen partial pressure (microPo(2)) was measured in the intestinal serosa and mucosa and the renal cortex, using the Pd-porphyrin phosphorescence technique. Intestinal luminal Pco(2) was determined by air tonometry and the serosal microvascular flow by orthogonal polarization spectral imaging. Organ blood flow and renal and intestinal microPo(2) decreased significantly during ACC, whereas the intestinal oxygen extraction and Pco(2) gap increased. The intestinal response to reperfusion after ACC was a sustained reactive hyperemia but no such effect was seen in the kidney. Despite a sustained high intestinal O(2) delivery, serosal microPo(2) (median [range], 49 mm Hg [41-67 mm Hg] versus 37 mm Hg [27-41 mm Hg]; P < 0.05 baseline versus 4 hours reperfusion) and the absolute number of perfused microvessels decreased along with an increased intestinal Pco(2) gap (17 mm Hg [10-19 mm Hg] versus 23 mm Hg [19-30 mm Hg]; P < 0.05). In contrast, the kidney showed a progressive O(2) delivery decrease accompanied by a decrease in renal cortex oxygenation (70 mm Hg [52-93 mm Hg] versus 57 mm Hg [33-64 mm Hg]; P < 0.05). Question: Does aortic cross-clamping and reperfusion in pigs reduce microvascular oxygenation by altered systemic and regional blood flow distribution? Output:
PubmedQA173000
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Predicting medical outcomes for pyelonephritis in women is difficult, leading to unnecessary hospitalization. Unlike other serious infectious diseases, high procalcitonin (PCT) level has never been associated with 28-d adverse medical outcomes in women with pyelonephritis. Therefore, we sought to determine the accuracy of PCT in discriminating between pyelonephritis with adverse medical outcome (PAMO) and pyelonephritis without adverse medical outcome (PWAMO). Adult women with pyelonephritis presenting to the emergency department of a French tertiary care hospital were consecutively included. Those patients who developed adverse medical outcomes during a 28-d follow-up period were identified as having PAMO. Baseline characteristics and PCT level were compared between patients with PAMO and PWAMO. Eleven women (19.0%) had PAMO and 47 (81%) had PWAMO. The median PCT level was higher in PAMO compared with PWAMO 0.51 ng/ml (IQR: 0.04-3.8) and 0.08 ng/ml (IQR: 0.01-1.0), but this difference was not statistically significant (p=0.07). We failed to find a threshold value for PCT that discriminated between PAMO and PWAMO (ROC, AUC=0.67 [95%CI, 0.51-0.86]). All but one subject with PAMO had either a PCT level >0.1 ng/ml or an underlying genitourinary abnormality by radiographic testing.\n Question: Does a single procalcitonin level predict adverse outcomes of women with pyelonephritis?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "no" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: Predicting medical outcomes for pyelonephritis in women is difficult, leading to unnecessary hospitalization. Unlike other serious infectious diseases, high procalcitonin (PCT) level has never been associated with 28-d adverse medical outcomes in women with pyelonephritis. Therefore, we sought to determine the accuracy of PCT in discriminating between pyelonephritis with adverse medical outcome (PAMO) and pyelonephritis without adverse medical outcome (PWAMO). Adult women with pyelonephritis presenting to the emergency department of a French tertiary care hospital were consecutively included. Those patients who developed adverse medical outcomes during a 28-d follow-up period were identified as having PAMO. Baseline characteristics and PCT level were compared between patients with PAMO and PWAMO. Eleven women (19.0%) had PAMO and 47 (81%) had PWAMO. The median PCT level was higher in PAMO compared with PWAMO 0.51 ng/ml (IQR: 0.04-3.8) and 0.08 ng/ml (IQR: 0.01-1.0), but this difference was not statistically significant (p=0.07). We failed to find a threshold value for PCT that discriminated between PAMO and PWAMO (ROC, AUC=0.67 [95%CI, 0.51-0.86]). All but one subject with PAMO had either a PCT level >0.1 ng/ml or an underlying genitourinary abnormality by radiographic testing. Question: Does a single procalcitonin level predict adverse outcomes of women with pyelonephritis? Output:
PubmedQA146200
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Sepsis is associated with activation of platelets and endothelial cells accompanied by enhanced P-selectin surface expression. Both platelet- and endothelial P-selectin have been associated with leukocyte recruitment and induction of inflammatory alterations. Klebsiella (K.) pneumoniae is a common human sepsis pathogen, particularly in the context of pneumonia. Wild-type (WT) and P-selectin-deficient (Selp(-/-) ) mice or bone marrow chimeric mice were infected with K. pneumoniae via the airways to induce pneumosepsis. Mice were sacrificed during early (12 h after infection) or late-stage (44 h) sepsis for analyses, or followed in a survival study. Selp(-/-) mice displayed 10-1000-fold higher bacterial burdens in the lungs, blood and distant organs during late-stage sepsis. P-selectin deficiency did not influence leukocyte recruitment to the lungs, but was associated with decreased platelet-monocyte complexes and increased cytokine release. Bone marrow transfer studies revealed a role for both platelet and endothelial cell P-selectin as mice deficient in platelet or endothelial cell P-selectin displayed an intermediate phenotype in bacterial loads and survival compared with full wild-type or full knockout control mice.\n Question: Are platelet and endothelial cell P-selectin required for host defense against Klebsiella pneumoniae-induced pneumosepsis?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: Sepsis is associated with activation of platelets and endothelial cells accompanied by enhanced P-selectin surface expression. Both platelet- and endothelial P-selectin have been associated with leukocyte recruitment and induction of inflammatory alterations. Klebsiella (K.) pneumoniae is a common human sepsis pathogen, particularly in the context of pneumonia. Wild-type (WT) and P-selectin-deficient (Selp(-/-) ) mice or bone marrow chimeric mice were infected with K. pneumoniae via the airways to induce pneumosepsis. Mice were sacrificed during early (12 h after infection) or late-stage (44 h) sepsis for analyses, or followed in a survival study. Selp(-/-) mice displayed 10-1000-fold higher bacterial burdens in the lungs, blood and distant organs during late-stage sepsis. P-selectin deficiency did not influence leukocyte recruitment to the lungs, but was associated with decreased platelet-monocyte complexes and increased cytokine release. Bone marrow transfer studies revealed a role for both platelet and endothelial cell P-selectin as mice deficient in platelet or endothelial cell P-selectin displayed an intermediate phenotype in bacterial loads and survival compared with full wild-type or full knockout control mice. Question: Are platelet and endothelial cell P-selectin required for host defense against Klebsiella pneumoniae-induced pneumosepsis? Output:
PubmedQA4670
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Silicosis features foci of inflammation where macrophages and lymphocytes precede and accompany fibroblast proliferation, alveolar epithelial hyperplasia, and increased deposition of connective tissue matrix material. In the mouse following silica inhalation there is recruitment of natural killer-, B-, and CD4+ and CD8+ lymphocytes to the alveolar spaces, enlargement of bronchial-associated lymphoid tissues (BALT), and aggregation of lymphocytes surrounding small airways and blood vessels. A substantial fraction of the recruited lung lymphocytes produce interferon-gamma (IFN-gamma), and IFN-gamma gene-deleted mice develop less silicosis than wild-type mice. Interleukin-12 (IL-12) is an important pathway for driving the adaptive immune response towards a TH1-like phenotype. We hypothesized that IL-12 might stimulate lymphocyte activation and the up-regulation of IFN-gamma, and consequently be an essential mediator for silicosis. C57Bl/6 wild-type (WT) and IL-12 deficient (IL-12 KO) mice were exposed to sham-air or crystobalite silica (61 mg/m3) by inhalation for 5 hours/day for 12 days and then studied from 1 to 112 days after exposure. Mice exposed to sham-air had normal lung histology at all time points. WT mice exposed to titanium dioxide (72 mg/m3) showed pulmonary macrophage recruitment but no increase in lung collagen. Both WT and IL-12 KO mice exposed to silica showed similar progressive lung pathology, increased wet lung weight and increased total lung collagen (hydroxyproline). IL-12 p35 mRNA was not increased in either strain after silica exposure; IL-12 p40 mRNA was up-regulated after silica in WT mice and constitutively absent in the IL-12 KO mice. IL-18 mRNA was not increased after silica exposure. The expression of IL-15 (an important driver for innate immunity, Natural Killer cell activation, and IFN-gamma production) was abundant in air-exposed mice and was increased slightly in the lungs of mice with silicosis.\n Question: Is interleukin-12 essential for silicosis in mice?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "no" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: Silicosis features foci of inflammation where macrophages and lymphocytes precede and accompany fibroblast proliferation, alveolar epithelial hyperplasia, and increased deposition of connective tissue matrix material. In the mouse following silica inhalation there is recruitment of natural killer-, B-, and CD4+ and CD8+ lymphocytes to the alveolar spaces, enlargement of bronchial-associated lymphoid tissues (BALT), and aggregation of lymphocytes surrounding small airways and blood vessels. A substantial fraction of the recruited lung lymphocytes produce interferon-gamma (IFN-gamma), and IFN-gamma gene-deleted mice develop less silicosis than wild-type mice. Interleukin-12 (IL-12) is an important pathway for driving the adaptive immune response towards a TH1-like phenotype. We hypothesized that IL-12 might stimulate lymphocyte activation and the up-regulation of IFN-gamma, and consequently be an essential mediator for silicosis. C57Bl/6 wild-type (WT) and IL-12 deficient (IL-12 KO) mice were exposed to sham-air or crystobalite silica (61 mg/m3) by inhalation for 5 hours/day for 12 days and then studied from 1 to 112 days after exposure. Mice exposed to sham-air had normal lung histology at all time points. WT mice exposed to titanium dioxide (72 mg/m3) showed pulmonary macrophage recruitment but no increase in lung collagen. Both WT and IL-12 KO mice exposed to silica showed similar progressive lung pathology, increased wet lung weight and increased total lung collagen (hydroxyproline). IL-12 p35 mRNA was not increased in either strain after silica exposure; IL-12 p40 mRNA was up-regulated after silica in WT mice and constitutively absent in the IL-12 KO mice. IL-18 mRNA was not increased after silica exposure. The expression of IL-15 (an important driver for innate immunity, Natural Killer cell activation, and IFN-gamma production) was abundant in air-exposed mice and was increased slightly in the lungs of mice with silicosis. Question: Is interleukin-12 essential for silicosis in mice? Output:
PubmedQA189737
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Using hearts from marginal donors could be related to increased risk of primary graft dysfunction and poor long-term survival. However, factors associated with delayed myocardial recovery after heart transplantation (HTx) remain unknown. We sought to clarify risk factors that predict early low output after HTx, and investigated whether early low output affects mid-term graft dysfunction. We retrospectively analyzed patients who had undergone HTx at The University of Tokyo Hospital. We defined early low output patients as those whose cardiac index (CI) was <2.2 L/min/m(2) despite the use of intravenous inotrope at 1 week after HTx. We included 45 consecutive HTx recipients, and classified 11 patients into early low output group, and the others into early preserved output group. We performed univariable logistic analysis and found that donor age was the only significant factor that predicted early low output (odds ratio 1.107, 95% confidence interval 1.034-1.210, p=0.002). CI of early low output patients gradually increased and it caught up with that of early preserved output patients at 2 weeks after HTx (2.4±0.6 L/min/m(2) in early low output group vs 2.5±0.5 L/min/m(2) in early preserved output group, p=0.684). Plasma B-type natriuretic peptide concentration of early low output patients was higher (1118.5±1250.2 pg/ml vs 526.4±399.5 pg/ml; p=0.033) at 1 week, 703.6±518.4 pg/ml vs 464.6±509.0 pg/ml (p=0.033) at 2 weeks, and 387.7±231.9 pg/ml vs 249.4±209.5 pg/ml (p=0.010) at 4 weeks after HTx, and it came down to that of early preserved output patients at 12 weeks after HTx.\n Question: Is donor age a predictor of early low output after heart transplantation?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: Using hearts from marginal donors could be related to increased risk of primary graft dysfunction and poor long-term survival. However, factors associated with delayed myocardial recovery after heart transplantation (HTx) remain unknown. We sought to clarify risk factors that predict early low output after HTx, and investigated whether early low output affects mid-term graft dysfunction. We retrospectively analyzed patients who had undergone HTx at The University of Tokyo Hospital. We defined early low output patients as those whose cardiac index (CI) was <2.2 L/min/m(2) despite the use of intravenous inotrope at 1 week after HTx. We included 45 consecutive HTx recipients, and classified 11 patients into early low output group, and the others into early preserved output group. We performed univariable logistic analysis and found that donor age was the only significant factor that predicted early low output (odds ratio 1.107, 95% confidence interval 1.034-1.210, p=0.002). CI of early low output patients gradually increased and it caught up with that of early preserved output patients at 2 weeks after HTx (2.4±0.6 L/min/m(2) in early low output group vs 2.5±0.5 L/min/m(2) in early preserved output group, p=0.684). Plasma B-type natriuretic peptide concentration of early low output patients was higher (1118.5±1250.2 pg/ml vs 526.4±399.5 pg/ml; p=0.033) at 1 week, 703.6±518.4 pg/ml vs 464.6±509.0 pg/ml (p=0.033) at 2 weeks, and 387.7±231.9 pg/ml vs 249.4±209.5 pg/ml (p=0.010) at 4 weeks after HTx, and it came down to that of early preserved output patients at 12 weeks after HTx. Question: Is donor age a predictor of early low output after heart transplantation? Output:
PubmedQA122990
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Asthmatic patients are often differentiated based on their atopic status (atopic or nonatopic) and type of bronchitis (eosinophilic, neutrophilic, both, or neither). There is evidence supporting a central role for the T cell in asthma, but the role of allergen-induced T cell cytokines in driving disease in different asthma phenotypes remains unclear. To investigate the hypothesis that peripheral blood mononuclear cells (PBMCs) from asthma patients with different phenotypes would react characteristically to a panel of common aeroallergens. We incubated PBMCs from 41 asthma patients and 8 healthy controls with allergen and assessed PBMC proliferation by (3) H-thymidine incorporation and the production of the cytokines IL-5, IL-17A, IL-23, IL-10, and IFN-γ by ELISA. No differences in PBMC proliferation or cytokine production were found in patients with asthma, compared with healthy controls, or between patients with different asthma phenotypes.\n Question: Do cytokine responses of peripheral blood mononuclear cells to allergen identify asthma or asthma phenotypes?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "no" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: Asthmatic patients are often differentiated based on their atopic status (atopic or nonatopic) and type of bronchitis (eosinophilic, neutrophilic, both, or neither). There is evidence supporting a central role for the T cell in asthma, but the role of allergen-induced T cell cytokines in driving disease in different asthma phenotypes remains unclear. To investigate the hypothesis that peripheral blood mononuclear cells (PBMCs) from asthma patients with different phenotypes would react characteristically to a panel of common aeroallergens. We incubated PBMCs from 41 asthma patients and 8 healthy controls with allergen and assessed PBMC proliferation by (3) H-thymidine incorporation and the production of the cytokines IL-5, IL-17A, IL-23, IL-10, and IFN-γ by ELISA. No differences in PBMC proliferation or cytokine production were found in patients with asthma, compared with healthy controls, or between patients with different asthma phenotypes. Question: Do cytokine responses of peripheral blood mononuclear cells to allergen identify asthma or asthma phenotypes? Output:
PubmedQA72817
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Surgical outcomes and bladder function were assessed in a group of patients who had undergone ureterocystoplasty while awaiting renal transplantation. An observational cohort study was performed. A chart review was performed of 16 patients who had undergone ureterocystoplasty between 1997 and 2006. The postoperative assessment included measurement of bladder capacity and voiding cystourethrography findings. The median patient age at operation was 17 years (range, 3 to 44 years). The median follow-up was 38 months (range, 3 to 60 months). All patients achieved continence. The median increase in bladder capacity was 162 mL (range, 65 to 265 mL), representing a median proportional increase of 226% (range, 167% to 340%) of the original bladder capacity. None of the patients developed vesicoureteral reflux. Only 4 patients required subsequent intermittent catheterization to fully empty their bladders. Seven patients underwent renal transplantation within 3 to 7 months of ureterocystoplasty.\n Question: Is ureterocystoplasty safe and effective in patients awaiting renal transplantation?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: Surgical outcomes and bladder function were assessed in a group of patients who had undergone ureterocystoplasty while awaiting renal transplantation. An observational cohort study was performed. A chart review was performed of 16 patients who had undergone ureterocystoplasty between 1997 and 2006. The postoperative assessment included measurement of bladder capacity and voiding cystourethrography findings. The median patient age at operation was 17 years (range, 3 to 44 years). The median follow-up was 38 months (range, 3 to 60 months). All patients achieved continence. The median increase in bladder capacity was 162 mL (range, 65 to 265 mL), representing a median proportional increase of 226% (range, 167% to 340%) of the original bladder capacity. None of the patients developed vesicoureteral reflux. Only 4 patients required subsequent intermittent catheterization to fully empty their bladders. Seven patients underwent renal transplantation within 3 to 7 months of ureterocystoplasty. Question: Is ureterocystoplasty safe and effective in patients awaiting renal transplantation? Output:
PubmedQA59021
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: To determine the effect of a simulation-based mastery learning model on central venous catheter insertion skill and the prevalence of procedure-related complications in a medical intensive care unit over a 1-yr period. Observational cohort study of an educational intervention. Tertiary-care urban teaching hospital. One hundred three internal medicine and emergency medicine residents. Twenty-seven residents were traditionally trained and did not receive simulation-based education. These residents were surveyed regarding complications and procedural self-confidence on actual central venous catheters they inserted in the medical intensive care unit. Subsequently, 76 residents completed simulation-based training in internal jugular and subclavian central venous catheter insertions. Simulator-trained residents were expected to meet or exceed a minimum passing score set by an expert panel and measured by performance on a skills checklist (given both before and after the educational intervention), using a central venous catheter simulator. Simulator-trained residents also took a written pre and posttest. Simulator-trained residents were surveyed regarding complications and procedural self-confidence on actual central venous catheters they inserted in the medical intensive care unit. Simulator-trained residents reported fewer needle passes (p < .0005), arterial punctures (p < .0005), catheter adjustments (p = .002), and higher success rates (p = .005) for actual central venous catheters inserted in the medical intensive care unit than traditionally trained residents. At clinical skills examination pretest, 12 (16%) of 76 simulator-trained residents met the minimum passing score for internal jugular central venous catheter insertion and 11 (14%) of 76 residents met the minimum passing score for subclavian central venous catheter insertion: mean (internal jugular) = 50.6%, SD = 23.4%; mean (subclavian) = 48.4%, SD = 26.8%. After simulation training, all residents met or exceeded the minimum passing score at posttest: mean (internal jugular) = 93.9%, SD = 10.2; mean (subclavian) = 91.5%, SD = 17.1 (p < .0005). Written examination performance improved from mean = 70.3%, SD = 7.7%, to 84.8%, SD = 4.8% (p < .0005).\n Question: Does simulation-based mastery learning reduce complications during central venous catheter insertion in a medical intensive care unit?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: To determine the effect of a simulation-based mastery learning model on central venous catheter insertion skill and the prevalence of procedure-related complications in a medical intensive care unit over a 1-yr period. Observational cohort study of an educational intervention. Tertiary-care urban teaching hospital. One hundred three internal medicine and emergency medicine residents. Twenty-seven residents were traditionally trained and did not receive simulation-based education. These residents were surveyed regarding complications and procedural self-confidence on actual central venous catheters they inserted in the medical intensive care unit. Subsequently, 76 residents completed simulation-based training in internal jugular and subclavian central venous catheter insertions. Simulator-trained residents were expected to meet or exceed a minimum passing score set by an expert panel and measured by performance on a skills checklist (given both before and after the educational intervention), using a central venous catheter simulator. Simulator-trained residents also took a written pre and posttest. Simulator-trained residents were surveyed regarding complications and procedural self-confidence on actual central venous catheters they inserted in the medical intensive care unit. Simulator-trained residents reported fewer needle passes (p < .0005), arterial punctures (p < .0005), catheter adjustments (p = .002), and higher success rates (p = .005) for actual central venous catheters inserted in the medical intensive care unit than traditionally trained residents. At clinical skills examination pretest, 12 (16%) of 76 simulator-trained residents met the minimum passing score for internal jugular central venous catheter insertion and 11 (14%) of 76 residents met the minimum passing score for subclavian central venous catheter insertion: mean (internal jugular) = 50.6%, SD = 23.4%; mean (subclavian) = 48.4%, SD = 26.8%. After simulation training, all residents met or exceeded the minimum passing score at posttest: mean (internal jugular) = 93.9%, SD = 10.2; mean (subclavian) = 91.5%, SD = 17.1 (p < .0005). Written examination performance improved from mean = 70.3%, SD = 7.7%, to 84.8%, SD = 4.8% (p < .0005). Question: Does simulation-based mastery learning reduce complications during central venous catheter insertion in a medical intensive care unit? Output:
PubmedQA91841
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: To assess the predominant subtype of calcium channel present in neurons of the paracervical ganglia (PG) of the female rat and the ability of neuroactive peptide to modulate total calcium current. Whole-cell patch clamp techniques were used on isolated PG neurons to assess calcium current modulation in the presence and absence of selective calcium channel subtype inhibitors and neuropeptides. Digital imaging analysis of cells was used to determine neuronal cell size distributions within the ganglia. Average PG cell diameter was 28.1 microns. Most PG neurons (64%) had an N-type calcium current that contributed 41% of the total calcium current. The low voltage-activated or T-type current was not present. Very few neurons (22%) were sensitive to the P-type calcium channel blocker omega-agatoxin IVA, and in only 10% of neurons was the calcium current sensitive to the L-type channel blocker nimodipine. Neuropeptide Y (NPY) inhibited the calcium current by 41% in 79% of the neurons, but vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) had no effect. Calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) both increased and decreased the calcium current in separate cell populations.\n Question: Do neuropeptide Y and calcitonin gene-related peptide modulate voltage-gated Ca2+ channels in mature female rat paracervical ganglion neurons?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: To assess the predominant subtype of calcium channel present in neurons of the paracervical ganglia (PG) of the female rat and the ability of neuroactive peptide to modulate total calcium current. Whole-cell patch clamp techniques were used on isolated PG neurons to assess calcium current modulation in the presence and absence of selective calcium channel subtype inhibitors and neuropeptides. Digital imaging analysis of cells was used to determine neuronal cell size distributions within the ganglia. Average PG cell diameter was 28.1 microns. Most PG neurons (64%) had an N-type calcium current that contributed 41% of the total calcium current. The low voltage-activated or T-type current was not present. Very few neurons (22%) were sensitive to the P-type calcium channel blocker omega-agatoxin IVA, and in only 10% of neurons was the calcium current sensitive to the L-type channel blocker nimodipine. Neuropeptide Y (NPY) inhibited the calcium current by 41% in 79% of the neurons, but vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) had no effect. Calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) both increased and decreased the calcium current in separate cell populations. Question: Do neuropeptide Y and calcitonin gene-related peptide modulate voltage-gated Ca2+ channels in mature female rat paracervical ganglion neurons? Output:
PubmedQA164020
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Cortisone is an endogenous corticosteroid that has negligible intrinsic glucocorticoid activity but can be converted to the active corticosteroid cortisol by the enzyme 11beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase type 1 (11beta-HSD1). 11beta-HSD1 is expressed in osteoblasts and may play a role in determining susceptibility to glucocorticoid-induced osteoporosis. In intact osteoblasts enzyme activity, and thus cortisol generation, is dependent on substrate concentration with an almost linear increase in activity across the physiological range. We have therefore attempted to measure the impact of 11beta-HSD1 activity on bone in vivo by examining the association of circulating cortisone with bone markers, bone mineral density (BMD) and bone loss in a cohort of women and men. Baseline cross-sectional association study involving 135 women and 171 men aged 61-73 years from the Hertfordshire Cohort Study and a 4 year follow-up study examining changes in BMD. Serum cortisone, cortisol and osteocalcin, and urinary type I collagen cross-linked N-telopeptide (NTX) were measured at baseline. BMD at spine and hip was measured at baseline and 4 years later. In men serum cortisone levels were negatively correlated with serum osteocalcin (r = -0.20, P = 0.01); a similar relationship was seen in women (r = -0.16, P = 0.06). No correlation was seen between serum cortisone and urinary NTX (r = 0.03, P = 0.74 for women; r = -0.03, P = 0.72 for men). A negative correlation was observed between serum cortisone and spine BMD in women (r = -0.18, P = 0.04); a similar relationship was also seen in men (r =-0.14, P = 0.07). However, cortisone did not correlate with BMD at the femoral neck or total hip or changes in BMD at any site over time. In analyses adjusted for adiposity, osteoarthritis grade and a range of life-style variables, these relationships did not change substantially. All these relationships were independent of cortisol concentrations.\n Question: Are circulating cortisone levels associated with biochemical markers of bone formation and lumbar spine BMD : the Hertfordshire Cohort Study?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: Cortisone is an endogenous corticosteroid that has negligible intrinsic glucocorticoid activity but can be converted to the active corticosteroid cortisol by the enzyme 11beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase type 1 (11beta-HSD1). 11beta-HSD1 is expressed in osteoblasts and may play a role in determining susceptibility to glucocorticoid-induced osteoporosis. In intact osteoblasts enzyme activity, and thus cortisol generation, is dependent on substrate concentration with an almost linear increase in activity across the physiological range. We have therefore attempted to measure the impact of 11beta-HSD1 activity on bone in vivo by examining the association of circulating cortisone with bone markers, bone mineral density (BMD) and bone loss in a cohort of women and men. Baseline cross-sectional association study involving 135 women and 171 men aged 61-73 years from the Hertfordshire Cohort Study and a 4 year follow-up study examining changes in BMD. Serum cortisone, cortisol and osteocalcin, and urinary type I collagen cross-linked N-telopeptide (NTX) were measured at baseline. BMD at spine and hip was measured at baseline and 4 years later. In men serum cortisone levels were negatively correlated with serum osteocalcin (r = -0.20, P = 0.01); a similar relationship was seen in women (r = -0.16, P = 0.06). No correlation was seen between serum cortisone and urinary NTX (r = 0.03, P = 0.74 for women; r = -0.03, P = 0.72 for men). A negative correlation was observed between serum cortisone and spine BMD in women (r = -0.18, P = 0.04); a similar relationship was also seen in men (r =-0.14, P = 0.07). However, cortisone did not correlate with BMD at the femoral neck or total hip or changes in BMD at any site over time. In analyses adjusted for adiposity, osteoarthritis grade and a range of life-style variables, these relationships did not change substantially. All these relationships were independent of cortisol concentrations. Question: Are circulating cortisone levels associated with biochemical markers of bone formation and lumbar spine BMD : the Hertfordshire Cohort Study? Output:
PubmedQA177009
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: This study aimed to estimate the prevalence of overweight and obesity and investigate associated factors in a representative sample of Cretan school children. As part of a cross-sectional study in children aged 10-12 years (n = 481, 48% boys) in 27 (urban and rural) schools in Crete, Greece, the rates of overweight and obesity were estimated and multiple logistic regression was used to explore the relationship between several factors and body mass index (BMI). It was shown that 28% and 13% of children were overweight and obese, respectively. Factors affecting children's BMI classification included: gender (95% CI: 0.21 to 0.56); birth weight (95% CI: 1.33 to 3.46); parental overweight or obesity (95% CI: 1.11 to 6.5 and 95% CI: 4.37 to 30.7 for one and both overweight or obese parents, respectively), paternal educational level (95% CI: 0.89 to 3.48 and 95% CI: 1.49 to 6.13 for low and high educational level, respectively); and cardiovascular fitness levels (95% CI: 0.87 to 0.92).\n Question: Does prevalence of obesity and body mass index correlate in a representative sample of Cretan school children?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: This study aimed to estimate the prevalence of overweight and obesity and investigate associated factors in a representative sample of Cretan school children. As part of a cross-sectional study in children aged 10-12 years (n = 481, 48% boys) in 27 (urban and rural) schools in Crete, Greece, the rates of overweight and obesity were estimated and multiple logistic regression was used to explore the relationship between several factors and body mass index (BMI). It was shown that 28% and 13% of children were overweight and obese, respectively. Factors affecting children's BMI classification included: gender (95% CI: 0.21 to 0.56); birth weight (95% CI: 1.33 to 3.46); parental overweight or obesity (95% CI: 1.11 to 6.5 and 95% CI: 4.37 to 30.7 for one and both overweight or obese parents, respectively), paternal educational level (95% CI: 0.89 to 3.48 and 95% CI: 1.49 to 6.13 for low and high educational level, respectively); and cardiovascular fitness levels (95% CI: 0.87 to 0.92). Question: Does prevalence of obesity and body mass index correlate in a representative sample of Cretan school children? Output:
PubmedQA105214
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Little data exists regarding filling regimens for laparoscopic adjustable gastric bands (LAGB). In addition to patient symptoms and weight changes, we have instituted surgeon-performed, real-time fluoroscopic evaluation in our clinical decision making during all band adjustments. Our hypothesis is that surgeon-performed, real-time contrast fluoroscopy conducted routinely during all LAGB adjustment results in significant deviations in clinical care. The study is set at the Academic Referral Center, United States Fifty-two consecutive patients who underwent LAGB and presented for adjustment were given a questionnaire evaluating obstructive symptoms. The patient's weight loss history was also reviewed. Each patient underwent real-time fluoroscopy performed by the surgeon during adjustment. Data were recorded and compared to final decision to fill, make no adjustment, or remove fluid. Patients were, on average, at post-operative visit 5. Sixty-three percent of patients received a fill, 31% had no change, and 6% had fluid removed. On the questionnaire, 15% of patients noted reflux, 10% had dysphagia, and 8% had regurgitation. Eighty percent of patients requested a fill. Thirty-one percent had an abnormality noted on fluoroscopy. Fifteen percent of patients demonstrated esophageal dilation, 15% had a delay of greater than 5 s, 19% had reflux of contrast. Three patients had band displacements on imaging. Additionally, six patients (12%) were not filled based on fluoroscopic findings alone, not predicted by either the survey or historical weight loss.\n Question: Does surgeon-performed fluoroscopy conducted simultaneously during all laparoscopic adjustable gastric band adjustments result in significant alterations in clinical decisions?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: Little data exists regarding filling regimens for laparoscopic adjustable gastric bands (LAGB). In addition to patient symptoms and weight changes, we have instituted surgeon-performed, real-time fluoroscopic evaluation in our clinical decision making during all band adjustments. Our hypothesis is that surgeon-performed, real-time contrast fluoroscopy conducted routinely during all LAGB adjustment results in significant deviations in clinical care. The study is set at the Academic Referral Center, United States Fifty-two consecutive patients who underwent LAGB and presented for adjustment were given a questionnaire evaluating obstructive symptoms. The patient's weight loss history was also reviewed. Each patient underwent real-time fluoroscopy performed by the surgeon during adjustment. Data were recorded and compared to final decision to fill, make no adjustment, or remove fluid. Patients were, on average, at post-operative visit 5. Sixty-three percent of patients received a fill, 31% had no change, and 6% had fluid removed. On the questionnaire, 15% of patients noted reflux, 10% had dysphagia, and 8% had regurgitation. Eighty percent of patients requested a fill. Thirty-one percent had an abnormality noted on fluoroscopy. Fifteen percent of patients demonstrated esophageal dilation, 15% had a delay of greater than 5 s, 19% had reflux of contrast. Three patients had band displacements on imaging. Additionally, six patients (12%) were not filled based on fluoroscopic findings alone, not predicted by either the survey or historical weight loss. Question: Does surgeon-performed fluoroscopy conducted simultaneously during all laparoscopic adjustable gastric band adjustments result in significant alterations in clinical decisions? Output:
PubmedQA180821
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: This study tested the hypothesis that the perceived fat content of a preload (a required first course) influences subsequent food and energy intake. Forty-eight healthy, nondieting women (24 restrained, 24 unrestrained) were given a fixed amount (350 g) of three different yogurts (low-fat, low-calorie; low-fat, high-calorie; high-fat, high-calorie), or no yogurt, followed by lunch (30 minutes after the yogurt preload was served) and dinner (4.5 hours later). Each subject was tested in all four conditions in a counterbalanced design. Half of the subjects received accurate information, in the form of a label, about the fat content of the yogurts, which did not necessarily correspond to energy content; the other half received no information. Energy intake, the percentage of macronutrients in the meals, and subjective sensations of hunger and satiety were analyzed. No effect of restraint was noted in the intake analyses. A significant information-by-preload interaction (P < .05) was found. Subjects who had information consumed more energy at lunch after eating a preload labeled low fat than after eating a preload with similar energy content but labeled high fat. The opposite response was seen in women who did not receive information. When energy consumed at dinner was included in the analyses, overall intake was still significantly greater in the women who received information and ate a low-fat preload. No differences were found in the percentage of macronutrients selected or in subjective sensations after consumption of any of the preloads.\n Question: Does information about the fat content of preloads influence energy intake in healthy women?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: This study tested the hypothesis that the perceived fat content of a preload (a required first course) influences subsequent food and energy intake. Forty-eight healthy, nondieting women (24 restrained, 24 unrestrained) were given a fixed amount (350 g) of three different yogurts (low-fat, low-calorie; low-fat, high-calorie; high-fat, high-calorie), or no yogurt, followed by lunch (30 minutes after the yogurt preload was served) and dinner (4.5 hours later). Each subject was tested in all four conditions in a counterbalanced design. Half of the subjects received accurate information, in the form of a label, about the fat content of the yogurts, which did not necessarily correspond to energy content; the other half received no information. Energy intake, the percentage of macronutrients in the meals, and subjective sensations of hunger and satiety were analyzed. No effect of restraint was noted in the intake analyses. A significant information-by-preload interaction (P < .05) was found. Subjects who had information consumed more energy at lunch after eating a preload labeled low fat than after eating a preload with similar energy content but labeled high fat. The opposite response was seen in women who did not receive information. When energy consumed at dinner was included in the analyses, overall intake was still significantly greater in the women who received information and ate a low-fat preload. No differences were found in the percentage of macronutrients selected or in subjective sensations after consumption of any of the preloads. Question: Does information about the fat content of preloads influence energy intake in healthy women? Output:
PubmedQA32453
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Traditionally, splenectomy is considered as the treatment for splenic lesions. The risk of early and late complications and the awareness of immunologic function of spleen have pushed the development of spleen sparing techniques. This study aimed to evaluate the safety and feasibility of laparoscopic partial splenectomy in selected patients. From May 2011 we initiated performing laparoscopic partial splenectomy in patients with focal benign splenic lesion. The main surgical procedure consisted of four steps: 1. Mobilizing the perisplenic ligaments. 2. Ligating and dissecting the vessels which supplying the involved spleen. 3. Dissecting the spleen along the demarcation. 4. Hemostasis was achieved by bipolar energy device. The perioperative data were collected and analyzed. The follow-up including quality of life and splenic regrowth was routinely undergone 6 months after surgery. From May 2011 to December 2013, laparoscopic partial splenectomy had been performed on 11 patients aged from 13 to 57 (mean 33). The indications included nonparasitic cyst (n = 6), lymphangioma (n = 3), and hemangioma (n = 2). The mean operative time was 148 min (range 110-200 min). The mean estimated blood loss was 189 ml (range 100-400 ml). One patient converted to total splenectomy because of hemorrhaging. Two patients suffered from postoperative complications: the one who converted to total splenectomy suffered from portal vein thrombosis, the other one underwent partial splenectomy suffered from fluid collection around splenic recess. There was no blood transfusion and postoperative mortality. All patients discharged uneventfully. Seven patients finished the follow-up including evaluation of CT scan and quality of life 6 month after surgery. The results demonstrated all these patients had different degree of splenic regrowth and gained a good quality of life.\n Question: Is laparoscopic partial splenectomy safe and effective in patients with focal benign splenic lesion?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: Traditionally, splenectomy is considered as the treatment for splenic lesions. The risk of early and late complications and the awareness of immunologic function of spleen have pushed the development of spleen sparing techniques. This study aimed to evaluate the safety and feasibility of laparoscopic partial splenectomy in selected patients. From May 2011 we initiated performing laparoscopic partial splenectomy in patients with focal benign splenic lesion. The main surgical procedure consisted of four steps: 1. Mobilizing the perisplenic ligaments. 2. Ligating and dissecting the vessels which supplying the involved spleen. 3. Dissecting the spleen along the demarcation. 4. Hemostasis was achieved by bipolar energy device. The perioperative data were collected and analyzed. The follow-up including quality of life and splenic regrowth was routinely undergone 6 months after surgery. From May 2011 to December 2013, laparoscopic partial splenectomy had been performed on 11 patients aged from 13 to 57 (mean 33). The indications included nonparasitic cyst (n = 6), lymphangioma (n = 3), and hemangioma (n = 2). The mean operative time was 148 min (range 110-200 min). The mean estimated blood loss was 189 ml (range 100-400 ml). One patient converted to total splenectomy because of hemorrhaging. Two patients suffered from postoperative complications: the one who converted to total splenectomy suffered from portal vein thrombosis, the other one underwent partial splenectomy suffered from fluid collection around splenic recess. There was no blood transfusion and postoperative mortality. All patients discharged uneventfully. Seven patients finished the follow-up including evaluation of CT scan and quality of life 6 month after surgery. The results demonstrated all these patients had different degree of splenic regrowth and gained a good quality of life. Question: Is laparoscopic partial splenectomy safe and effective in patients with focal benign splenic lesion? Output:
PubmedQA177907
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: The important factor for improving the cataract surgery is reduction in size of corneal incision. Small incision results in less induced astigmatism, and faster visual rehabilitation. An analysis of 100 eyes of 80 patients operated for phacoemulsification through micro incision by standard chop technique (50 eyes) in group-I, and chick feed technique (50 eyes) in group-II is presented. All of the patients were operated on by posterior limbal corneal incision under topical or sub-tenon anesthesia. In all patients, posterior chamber bag fixation foldable intraocular lens implantation was performed through 1.4 to 1.6 mm corneal incision. Forty patients (80%) out of fifty operated in group-2 had an over all visual recovery of 6/12 to 6/9 on day one post operative, as compared to group-1 where only ten (20%) patients out of fifty had visual recovery of 6/12 to 6/9. In the second week, out of 37 patients operated in group-2, thirty patients (81%) had visual acuity 6/6. Similarly in second week post operative, out of forty three patients operated in group-1, only eighteen patients (41.8%) had V/A of 6/6. Maximum visual recovery was observed in early post operative phase in group-2 patients.\n Question: Do chick feed technique versus standard chop technique in micro incision cataract surgery?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: The important factor for improving the cataract surgery is reduction in size of corneal incision. Small incision results in less induced astigmatism, and faster visual rehabilitation. An analysis of 100 eyes of 80 patients operated for phacoemulsification through micro incision by standard chop technique (50 eyes) in group-I, and chick feed technique (50 eyes) in group-II is presented. All of the patients were operated on by posterior limbal corneal incision under topical or sub-tenon anesthesia. In all patients, posterior chamber bag fixation foldable intraocular lens implantation was performed through 1.4 to 1.6 mm corneal incision. Forty patients (80%) out of fifty operated in group-2 had an over all visual recovery of 6/12 to 6/9 on day one post operative, as compared to group-1 where only ten (20%) patients out of fifty had visual recovery of 6/12 to 6/9. In the second week, out of 37 patients operated in group-2, thirty patients (81%) had visual acuity 6/6. Similarly in second week post operative, out of forty three patients operated in group-1, only eighteen patients (41.8%) had V/A of 6/6. Maximum visual recovery was observed in early post operative phase in group-2 patients. Question: Do chick feed technique versus standard chop technique in micro incision cataract surgery? Output:
PubmedQA36716
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: The blood pressure (BP) fall and increased BP variability after acute stroke have been previously described. The underlying pathophysiological mechanisms producing these findings are unclear but may include abnormalities of cardiac baroreceptor reflex arc and/or changes in sympathetic nervous system activity. To date, evidence of impaired cardiac baroreceptor sensitivity (BRS) after stroke is limited to patients with chronic disease as determined by invasive methodology. Therefore, it was proposed to assess cardiac BRS and sympathovagal balance with the use of novel noninvasive techniques after acute stroke. Thirty-seven acute stroke patients underwent simultaneous surface electrocardiographic and noninvasive beat-to-beat BP recording. Cardiac BRS was assessed by power spectral analysis techniques, and sympathovagal balance was determined from the ratio of the low- to high-frequency powers for pulse interval variability. The responses were compared with a control group matched for age, sex, and BP. Median cardiac BRS was significantly lower in stroke patients than in control subjects (high-frequency alpha-index, 4.89 versus 6.50 ms/mm Hg; P = .007; combined alpha-index, 4.65 versus 5.46 ms/mm Hg; P = .02). Median normalized high- but not low-frequency power of systolic BP variability was significantly greater in stroke patients (11.0 versus 6.7 normalized units; P < .001), probably reflecting differences in the mechanical effects of respiration on BP in stroke patients. No significant differences were observed in the power spectrum of pulse interval variability between stroke patients and control subjects. Patients with tight hemisphere strokes, however, had a significant reduction in median high-frequency pulse interval power compared with patients with left hemisphere strokes (8 versus 20 normalized units; P = .03), which may reflect a change in sympathovagal balance in favor of increased sympathetic tone in this group.\n Question: Is cardiac baroreceptor sensitivity impaired after acute stroke?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: The blood pressure (BP) fall and increased BP variability after acute stroke have been previously described. The underlying pathophysiological mechanisms producing these findings are unclear but may include abnormalities of cardiac baroreceptor reflex arc and/or changes in sympathetic nervous system activity. To date, evidence of impaired cardiac baroreceptor sensitivity (BRS) after stroke is limited to patients with chronic disease as determined by invasive methodology. Therefore, it was proposed to assess cardiac BRS and sympathovagal balance with the use of novel noninvasive techniques after acute stroke. Thirty-seven acute stroke patients underwent simultaneous surface electrocardiographic and noninvasive beat-to-beat BP recording. Cardiac BRS was assessed by power spectral analysis techniques, and sympathovagal balance was determined from the ratio of the low- to high-frequency powers for pulse interval variability. The responses were compared with a control group matched for age, sex, and BP. Median cardiac BRS was significantly lower in stroke patients than in control subjects (high-frequency alpha-index, 4.89 versus 6.50 ms/mm Hg; P = .007; combined alpha-index, 4.65 versus 5.46 ms/mm Hg; P = .02). Median normalized high- but not low-frequency power of systolic BP variability was significantly greater in stroke patients (11.0 versus 6.7 normalized units; P < .001), probably reflecting differences in the mechanical effects of respiration on BP in stroke patients. No significant differences were observed in the power spectrum of pulse interval variability between stroke patients and control subjects. Patients with tight hemisphere strokes, however, had a significant reduction in median high-frequency pulse interval power compared with patients with left hemisphere strokes (8 versus 20 normalized units; P = .03), which may reflect a change in sympathovagal balance in favor of increased sympathetic tone in this group. Question: Is cardiac baroreceptor sensitivity impaired after acute stroke? Output:
PubmedQA6658
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Silica exposure has been associated with an increased risk of developing rheumatoid arthritis (RA), especially among smokers. In this study, we aimed at examining the association between silica exposure (and its interaction with smoking) and the risk of RA in the Malaysian population. In total, 149 cases and 213 matched controls, all men, were included between August 2005 and December 2009. A case was defined as a person with early diagnosed RA using the 1987 American College of Rheumatology criteria for RA. Controls were randomly selected matched on sex, age and residential area. Silica exposure was defined as exposure to stone dust, rock drilling or stone crushing, and smoking status was categorized as ever/never cigarette smoking. An increased risk of anti-citrullinated protein antibody (ACPA)-positive RA (OR = 2.4, 95 % CI 1.0-5.6) was observed among those exposed to silica. Ever-smokers exposed to silica had a particularly high risk of developing ACPA-positive RA (OR = 7.5, 95 % CI 2.3-24.2), compared with never-smokers not exposed to silica. No association was found regarding ACPA-negative RA.\n Question: Is silica exposure associated with an increased risk of developing ACPA-positive rheumatoid arthritis in an Asian population : evidence from the Malaysian MyEIRA case-control study?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: Silica exposure has been associated with an increased risk of developing rheumatoid arthritis (RA), especially among smokers. In this study, we aimed at examining the association between silica exposure (and its interaction with smoking) and the risk of RA in the Malaysian population. In total, 149 cases and 213 matched controls, all men, were included between August 2005 and December 2009. A case was defined as a person with early diagnosed RA using the 1987 American College of Rheumatology criteria for RA. Controls were randomly selected matched on sex, age and residential area. Silica exposure was defined as exposure to stone dust, rock drilling or stone crushing, and smoking status was categorized as ever/never cigarette smoking. An increased risk of anti-citrullinated protein antibody (ACPA)-positive RA (OR = 2.4, 95 % CI 1.0-5.6) was observed among those exposed to silica. Ever-smokers exposed to silica had a particularly high risk of developing ACPA-positive RA (OR = 7.5, 95 % CI 2.3-24.2), compared with never-smokers not exposed to silica. No association was found regarding ACPA-negative RA. Question: Is silica exposure associated with an increased risk of developing ACPA-positive rheumatoid arthritis in an Asian population : evidence from the Malaysian MyEIRA case-control study? Output:
PubmedQA141862
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: The variability and predictability of neurolytic neural blocks were studied using an experimental rat sciatic nerve model. The goal of the study was to compare endoneurial and clinical responses to commonly used neurolytic agents. The sciatic nerves of 80 rats were treated either with intra- or perineural injections of 7% phenol-aqua, anhydrous glycerol, or 5% phenol-glycerol. Lidocaine and saline injections were used as controls. Muscle function and trophic changes of the hind limbs were evaluated, and samples for morphologic analysis were taken 1, 2, 4, and 8 weeks after the injections. Intra- and perineural injections of 7% phenol-aqua resulted in gross endoneural damage of the sciatic nerve and hind limb paresis. Perineural 5% phenol-glycerol and anhydrous glycerol injections caused subperineural damage with slight paresis; gross endoneural damage and noticeable paresis were present only after intraneural injections. When 7% phenol-aqua was compared to other neurolytic agents, the differences in the lesion size (P < .0001) were statistically significant after perineural injections. Regeneration occurred in a stereotypic fashion in all neurolytic groups. Axonal sprouts were noted at the injured area 2 weeks after intraneural and 1 week after perineural injections. Motor function had partially recovered at 8 weeks.\n Question: Is the endoneurial response to neurolytic agents highly dependent on the mode of application?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: The variability and predictability of neurolytic neural blocks were studied using an experimental rat sciatic nerve model. The goal of the study was to compare endoneurial and clinical responses to commonly used neurolytic agents. The sciatic nerves of 80 rats were treated either with intra- or perineural injections of 7% phenol-aqua, anhydrous glycerol, or 5% phenol-glycerol. Lidocaine and saline injections were used as controls. Muscle function and trophic changes of the hind limbs were evaluated, and samples for morphologic analysis were taken 1, 2, 4, and 8 weeks after the injections. Intra- and perineural injections of 7% phenol-aqua resulted in gross endoneural damage of the sciatic nerve and hind limb paresis. Perineural 5% phenol-glycerol and anhydrous glycerol injections caused subperineural damage with slight paresis; gross endoneural damage and noticeable paresis were present only after intraneural injections. When 7% phenol-aqua was compared to other neurolytic agents, the differences in the lesion size (P < .0001) were statistically significant after perineural injections. Regeneration occurred in a stereotypic fashion in all neurolytic groups. Axonal sprouts were noted at the injured area 2 weeks after intraneural and 1 week after perineural injections. Motor function had partially recovered at 8 weeks. Question: Is the endoneurial response to neurolytic agents highly dependent on the mode of application? Output:
PubmedQA40348
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: MMP is a key enzyme in the degradation of extracellular matrices, and its expression plays important roles in inflammatory diseases. Cordycepin (3'-deoxyadenosine), a bioactive compound of Cordyceps militaris, has been shown to exhibit many pharmacological activities, such as anti-cancer, anti-inflammatory and anti-infection activities. In this study, we aimed at the inhibitory effect of cordycepin on IL-1beta-induced MMP-1 and MMP-3 expression as well as the molecular basis using RA synovial fibroblasts (RASFs). RASFs were isolated from synovial tissue obtained from 12 patients with RA and cultured in monolayer. Expression of MMP-1 and MMP-3 was evaluated using western blotting and real-time PCR. Chemokines were analysed by ELISA. The phosphorylation of mitogen-activated protein kinase was measured by western blotting. Electrophoretic mobility shift assay was performed to evaluate binding activities of DNA to nuclear factor-kappaB (NF-kappaB) and activator protein-1 (AP-1). Cordycepin inhibited IL-1beta-induced MMP-1 and MMP-3 expressions in RASFs in a dose-dependent manner. Among various chemokines [such as monocyte chemoattractant protein-1 (MCP-1), GRO-alpha, regulated upon activation, normal T-cell expressed and presumably secreted (RANTES) and epithelial neutrophil activating peptide 78 (ENA-78)], cordycepin specifically blocked IL-1beta-induced ENA-78 production in RASF. Moreover, cordycepin significantly inhibited IL-1beta-induced p38/JNK and AP-1 activation, but not extracellular signal-regulated kinase (ERK) and NF-kappaB activation.\n Question: Does cordycepin inhibit IL-1beta-induced MMP-1 and MMP-3 expression in rheumatoid arthritis synovial fibroblasts?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: MMP is a key enzyme in the degradation of extracellular matrices, and its expression plays important roles in inflammatory diseases. Cordycepin (3'-deoxyadenosine), a bioactive compound of Cordyceps militaris, has been shown to exhibit many pharmacological activities, such as anti-cancer, anti-inflammatory and anti-infection activities. In this study, we aimed at the inhibitory effect of cordycepin on IL-1beta-induced MMP-1 and MMP-3 expression as well as the molecular basis using RA synovial fibroblasts (RASFs). RASFs were isolated from synovial tissue obtained from 12 patients with RA and cultured in monolayer. Expression of MMP-1 and MMP-3 was evaluated using western blotting and real-time PCR. Chemokines were analysed by ELISA. The phosphorylation of mitogen-activated protein kinase was measured by western blotting. Electrophoretic mobility shift assay was performed to evaluate binding activities of DNA to nuclear factor-kappaB (NF-kappaB) and activator protein-1 (AP-1). Cordycepin inhibited IL-1beta-induced MMP-1 and MMP-3 expressions in RASFs in a dose-dependent manner. Among various chemokines [such as monocyte chemoattractant protein-1 (MCP-1), GRO-alpha, regulated upon activation, normal T-cell expressed and presumably secreted (RANTES) and epithelial neutrophil activating peptide 78 (ENA-78)], cordycepin specifically blocked IL-1beta-induced ENA-78 production in RASF. Moreover, cordycepin significantly inhibited IL-1beta-induced p38/JNK and AP-1 activation, but not extracellular signal-regulated kinase (ERK) and NF-kappaB activation. Question: Does cordycepin inhibit IL-1beta-induced MMP-1 and MMP-3 expression in rheumatoid arthritis synovial fibroblasts? Output:
PubmedQA17814
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: One of the main obstacles to clinical islet xenotransplantation is the injurious instant blood-mediated inflammatory reaction (IBMIR) that causes rapid binding of platelets to the islet surface, activation of the coagulation and complement systems, and leukocyte infiltration of the islets when the islets are exposed to blood. This study assesses the effect of low molecular weight dextran sulfate (LMW-DS) on IBMIR induced by porcine islets in an in vitro tubing loop assay using human blood and in an in vivo model using diabetic athymic mice. In vitro experiments demonstrated that platelet consumption, coagulation, and complement activation were already reduced in the presence of LMW-DS at 0.01 mg/mL, and that at 0.1 mg/mL, LMW-DS prevented IBMIR. Immunohistochemical investigation showed that the leukocyte infiltration was abrogated at the highest dose. In vivo experiments showed that the transplanted pig islets survived for a significantly longer period in recipients treated with LMW-DS, and morphologic examination of transplanted islets showed a reduction in IBMIR analogous to that demonstrated by in vitro studies.\n Question: Does low molecular weight dextran sulfate prevent the instant blood-mediated inflammatory reaction induced by adult porcine islets?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: One of the main obstacles to clinical islet xenotransplantation is the injurious instant blood-mediated inflammatory reaction (IBMIR) that causes rapid binding of platelets to the islet surface, activation of the coagulation and complement systems, and leukocyte infiltration of the islets when the islets are exposed to blood. This study assesses the effect of low molecular weight dextran sulfate (LMW-DS) on IBMIR induced by porcine islets in an in vitro tubing loop assay using human blood and in an in vivo model using diabetic athymic mice. In vitro experiments demonstrated that platelet consumption, coagulation, and complement activation were already reduced in the presence of LMW-DS at 0.01 mg/mL, and that at 0.1 mg/mL, LMW-DS prevented IBMIR. Immunohistochemical investigation showed that the leukocyte infiltration was abrogated at the highest dose. In vivo experiments showed that the transplanted pig islets survived for a significantly longer period in recipients treated with LMW-DS, and morphologic examination of transplanted islets showed a reduction in IBMIR analogous to that demonstrated by in vitro studies. Question: Does low molecular weight dextran sulfate prevent the instant blood-mediated inflammatory reaction induced by adult porcine islets? Output:
PubmedQA89394
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Production of specific cytokines in response to administration of Rh-immune globulin (RhIG) was examined to assess the mechanism of inhibition of the anti-D production and prevention of hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN). Plasma levels of 17 different cytokines before and 48 hours after antenatal administration of anti-D were measured in 10 women candidates for prophylaxis with RhIG. No striking changes were observed in levels of the cytokines interleukin (IL)-1 sRII, IL-12 p40, IL-16, or monocyte chemoattractant protein-1. Levels of IL-4, -5, -10, -13, and -17; macrophage inflammatory protein-1alpha; granulocyte-macrophage-colony-stimulating factor; tumor necrosis factor-beta; and interferon-gamma remained below detection levels both before and after testing. IL-1ra levels, however, showed a slight to moderate decrease in 7 of 10 women after RhIG administration. In contrast, levels of TGF-beta1 increased more than 1.3-fold in 7 of 10 women and more than 2-fold in 4 of 10 women; in 1 instance the increase was more than 5-fold and this woman also had a significant increase in TGF-beta2. In addition to TGF-beta, 5 of 10 women had a modest increase (>1.5-fold) in prostaglandin E2 (PGE2). Analyses of the combined results of the 10 women showed that increases in both TGF-beta1 and PGE2 after RhIG were significant.\n Question: Does antenatal administration of Rh-immune globulin cause significant increases in the immunomodulatory cytokines transforming growth factor-beta and prostaglandin E2?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: Production of specific cytokines in response to administration of Rh-immune globulin (RhIG) was examined to assess the mechanism of inhibition of the anti-D production and prevention of hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN). Plasma levels of 17 different cytokines before and 48 hours after antenatal administration of anti-D were measured in 10 women candidates for prophylaxis with RhIG. No striking changes were observed in levels of the cytokines interleukin (IL)-1 sRII, IL-12 p40, IL-16, or monocyte chemoattractant protein-1. Levels of IL-4, -5, -10, -13, and -17; macrophage inflammatory protein-1alpha; granulocyte-macrophage-colony-stimulating factor; tumor necrosis factor-beta; and interferon-gamma remained below detection levels both before and after testing. IL-1ra levels, however, showed a slight to moderate decrease in 7 of 10 women after RhIG administration. In contrast, levels of TGF-beta1 increased more than 1.3-fold in 7 of 10 women and more than 2-fold in 4 of 10 women; in 1 instance the increase was more than 5-fold and this woman also had a significant increase in TGF-beta2. In addition to TGF-beta, 5 of 10 women had a modest increase (>1.5-fold) in prostaglandin E2 (PGE2). Analyses of the combined results of the 10 women showed that increases in both TGF-beta1 and PGE2 after RhIG were significant. Question: Does antenatal administration of Rh-immune globulin cause significant increases in the immunomodulatory cytokines transforming growth factor-beta and prostaglandin E2? Output:
PubmedQA137224
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Dyslipidemia and low-grade inflammation are integral in the pathogenesis of atherosclerosis. We aim to compare the effects of a considerable weight loss and intensive exercise training on lipid atherogenicity and low-grade inflammation in a high-risk population with coronary artery disease (CAD). Seventy non-diabetic participants with CAD, BMI 28-40 kg/m(2), age 45-75 years were randomized to 12 weeks' aerobic interval training (AIT) at 85-90% of peak heart rate three times/week or a low energy diet (LED, 800-1000 kcal/day) for 8-10 weeks followed by 2-4 weeks' weight maintenance diet. Lipid profile atherogenicity was described using lipoprotein particle size and density profiling. Low-grade inflammation was evaluated by tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNFα), C-reactive protein, interleukin 6 and soluble urokinase plasminogen activator receptor. Twenty-six (74%) AIT and 29 (83%) LED participants completed intervention per protocol. AIT and LED decreased total (AIT: -518 {-906;-129},P = 0.011, LED: -767 {-1128:-406},P < 0.001) and low-density lipoprotein (LDL, AIT: -186 {-306;-65},P = 0.004, LED: -277 {-433;-122},P < 0.001) assessed as the area under the density profile curve. LED was superior to AIT in decreasing atherogenicity reflected by increased LDL (between-group: 1.0 Å {0.4; 1.7},P = 0.003) and high-density lipoprotein (between-group: 1.2 Å {0.2; 2.4},P = 0.026) particle size and a decreased proportion of total lipoprotein constituted by the small, dense LDL5 subfraction (between-group: -5.0% {-8.4;-1.7},P = 0.004). LED decreased TNFα (9.5% {-15.8;-2.6},P = 0.009). No changes were seen following AIT.\n Question: Is weight loss superior to exercise in improving the atherogenic lipid profile in a sedentary , overweight population with stable coronary artery disease : A randomized trial?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: Dyslipidemia and low-grade inflammation are integral in the pathogenesis of atherosclerosis. We aim to compare the effects of a considerable weight loss and intensive exercise training on lipid atherogenicity and low-grade inflammation in a high-risk population with coronary artery disease (CAD). Seventy non-diabetic participants with CAD, BMI 28-40 kg/m(2), age 45-75 years were randomized to 12 weeks' aerobic interval training (AIT) at 85-90% of peak heart rate three times/week or a low energy diet (LED, 800-1000 kcal/day) for 8-10 weeks followed by 2-4 weeks' weight maintenance diet. Lipid profile atherogenicity was described using lipoprotein particle size and density profiling. Low-grade inflammation was evaluated by tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNFα), C-reactive protein, interleukin 6 and soluble urokinase plasminogen activator receptor. Twenty-six (74%) AIT and 29 (83%) LED participants completed intervention per protocol. AIT and LED decreased total (AIT: -518 {-906;-129},P = 0.011, LED: -767 {-1128:-406},P < 0.001) and low-density lipoprotein (LDL, AIT: -186 {-306;-65},P = 0.004, LED: -277 {-433;-122},P < 0.001) assessed as the area under the density profile curve. LED was superior to AIT in decreasing atherogenicity reflected by increased LDL (between-group: 1.0 Å {0.4; 1.7},P = 0.003) and high-density lipoprotein (between-group: 1.2 Å {0.2; 2.4},P = 0.026) particle size and a decreased proportion of total lipoprotein constituted by the small, dense LDL5 subfraction (between-group: -5.0% {-8.4;-1.7},P = 0.004). LED decreased TNFα (9.5% {-15.8;-2.6},P = 0.009). No changes were seen following AIT. Question: Is weight loss superior to exercise in improving the atherogenic lipid profile in a sedentary , overweight population with stable coronary artery disease : A randomized trial? Output:
PubmedQA145701
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Although the effect of elevated carbon dioxide (CO2) concentration on pollen production has been established in some plant species, impacts on fungal sporulation and antigen production have not been elucidated. Our purpose was to examine the effects of rising atmospheric CO2 concentrations on the quantity and quality of fungal spores produced on timothy (Phleum pratense) leaves. Timothy plants were grown at four CO2 concentrations (300, 400, 500, and 600 micromol/mol). Leaves were used as growth substrate for Alternaria alternata and Cladosporium phlei. The spore abundance produced by both fungi, as well as the size (microscopy) and antigenic protein content (ELISA) of A. alternata, were quantified. Leaf carbon-to-nitrogen ratio was greater at 500 and 600 micromol/mol, and leaf biomass was greater at 600 micromol/mol than at the lower CO2 concentrations. Leaf carbon-to-nitrogen ratio was positively correlated with A. alternata spore production per gram of leaf but negatively correlated with antigenic protein content per spore. At 500 and 600 micromol/mol CO2 concentrations, A. alternata produced nearly three times the number of spores and more than twice the total antigenic protein per plant than at lower concentrations. C. phlei spore production was positively correlated with leaf carbon-to-nitrogen ratio, but overall spore production was much lower than in A. alternata, and total per-plant production did not vary among CO2 concentrations.\n Question: Do elevated atmospheric carbon dioxide concentrations amplify Alternaria alternata sporulation and total antigen production?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: Although the effect of elevated carbon dioxide (CO2) concentration on pollen production has been established in some plant species, impacts on fungal sporulation and antigen production have not been elucidated. Our purpose was to examine the effects of rising atmospheric CO2 concentrations on the quantity and quality of fungal spores produced on timothy (Phleum pratense) leaves. Timothy plants were grown at four CO2 concentrations (300, 400, 500, and 600 micromol/mol). Leaves were used as growth substrate for Alternaria alternata and Cladosporium phlei. The spore abundance produced by both fungi, as well as the size (microscopy) and antigenic protein content (ELISA) of A. alternata, were quantified. Leaf carbon-to-nitrogen ratio was greater at 500 and 600 micromol/mol, and leaf biomass was greater at 600 micromol/mol than at the lower CO2 concentrations. Leaf carbon-to-nitrogen ratio was positively correlated with A. alternata spore production per gram of leaf but negatively correlated with antigenic protein content per spore. At 500 and 600 micromol/mol CO2 concentrations, A. alternata produced nearly three times the number of spores and more than twice the total antigenic protein per plant than at lower concentrations. C. phlei spore production was positively correlated with leaf carbon-to-nitrogen ratio, but overall spore production was much lower than in A. alternata, and total per-plant production did not vary among CO2 concentrations. Question: Do elevated atmospheric carbon dioxide concentrations amplify Alternaria alternata sporulation and total antigen production? Output:
PubmedQA50989
[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: To determine whether cardiac troponin T increases after electrical cardioversion in patients with atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter. Serum creatine kinase (CK), creatine kinase-MB (CKMB), and cardiac troponin T were measured before, 24 hours, and 48 hours after cardioversion in 15 patients with atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter. 12 of the 15 patients (80%) were successfully cardioverted to sinus rhythm. The median number of shocks was three (range one to six), the median cumulative energy 710 J (50 to 1430 J), and the median peak energy 300 J (50 to 360 J). Total CK increased from a baseline median concentration of 92 (45 to 259) to 1324 (96 to 6660) U/l at 24 hours and 1529 (120 to 4774) U/l at 48 hours after cardioversion. There was a small increase in CKMB but the ratio of CKMB to CK did not increase. There was no increase in cardiac troponin T in any patient.\n Question: Does cardiac troponin T increase after electrical cardioversion for atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "no" } ]
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: To determine whether cardiac troponin T increases after electrical cardioversion in patients with atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter. Serum creatine kinase (CK), creatine kinase-MB (CKMB), and cardiac troponin T were measured before, 24 hours, and 48 hours after cardioversion in 15 patients with atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter. 12 of the 15 patients (80%) were successfully cardioverted to sinus rhythm. The median number of shocks was three (range one to six), the median cumulative energy 710 J (50 to 1430 J), and the median peak energy 300 J (50 to 360 J). Total CK increased from a baseline median concentration of 92 (45 to 259) to 1324 (96 to 6660) U/l at 24 hours and 1529 (120 to 4774) U/l at 48 hours after cardioversion. There was a small increase in CKMB but the ratio of CKMB to CK did not increase. There was no increase in cardiac troponin T in any patient. Question: Does cardiac troponin T increase after electrical cardioversion for atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter? Output: