



I am working on 4Q104 (PAM 41.299) (Ruth 1:1-10) and note that, so far as I
can tell from the photo I have, that in line 2 "Moab" is somewhat unclear.
In fact, all I can see is mem (something) aleph.  In line 4 of the text Moab
is fully written out.  So far as I can see in line 2, there is no room for
the final beth, and there is no inidication that it was ever there.  So I am
wondering if someone can help explain why Moab (if it is indeed Moab) is
spelled without  beth in line 2.


Jim West