 now here think would be interesting to ask for more clarification of the the next line from the first post in this one ... this is biblical allegory [0] and was never ecclesiological issue in the Early Church especially not on east, nor was flat earth too [0] yet there is wide popular misconception that this was case, hm probably due to more aristotelian mood among some scholars on east this was taken as probable geocentrism, but as I am aware was never theological orthodox issue how big or small allegory is in question ... 