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PubmedQA194932
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Tumor associated macrophages can regulate the growth of various cancers positively or negatively. Intravesical bacillus Calmette-Guerin instillation is now gold standard treatment for bladder carcinoma in situ. We investigated the correlation between tumor associated macrophages infiltrating bladder carcinoma in situ and the response to intravesical bacillus Calmette-Guerin therapy. We examined paraffin embedded tissues from 41 patients with bladder carcinoma in situ who received intravesical bacillus Calmette-Guerin therapy. Tumor associated macrophages were immunohistochemically stained by anti-CD68 monoclonal antibody. The median number of tumor associated macrophages infiltrating among cancer cells and the number in the lamina propria were 4 and 24, respectively. Recurrent carcinoma in situ was found in 4.8% of cases with a lower cancer cell tumor associated macrophage count but in 47.6% of those with a higher cancer cell tumor associated macrophage count (less than 4 vs 4 or greater). Recurrence was found in 31.8% of patients with a lower lamina propria tumor associated macrophage count but in 21.1% of those with a higher lamina propria tumor associated macrophage count (less than 25 vs 25 or greater). The median ratio of tumor associated macrophages among cancer cells vs in the lamina propria was 0.2. Recurrence-free survival was significantly better in patients with a lower cancer cell tumor associated macrophage count (p = 0.0002). Those with a lower cancer cell-to-lamina propria tumor associated macrophage ratio had a higher recurrence-free rate (p <0.0001). Multivariate analysis revealed that the cancer cell tumor associated macrophage count and the cancer cell-to-lamina propria tumor associated macrophage ratio can be prognostic factors for bladder carcinoma in situ.\n Question: Is increased infiltration of tumor associated macrophages associated with poor prognosis of bladder carcinoma in situ after intravesical bacillus Calmette-Guerin instillation?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: Tumor associated macrophages can regulate the growth of various cancers positively or negatively. Intravesical bacillus Calmette-Guerin instillation is now gold standard treatment for bladder carcinoma in situ. We investigated the correlation between tumor associated macrophages infiltrating bladder carcinoma in situ and the response to intravesical bacillus Calmette-Guerin therapy. We examined paraffin embedded tissues from 41 patients with bladder carcinoma in situ who received intravesical bacillus Calmette-Guerin therapy. Tumor associated macrophages were immunohistochemically stained by anti-CD68 monoclonal antibody. The median number of tumor associated macrophages infiltrating among cancer cells and the number in the lamina propria were 4 and 24, respectively. Recurrent carcinoma in situ was found in 4.8% of cases with a lower cancer cell tumor associated macrophage count but in 47.6% of those with a higher cancer cell tumor associated macrophage count (less than 4 vs 4 or greater). Recurrence was found in 31.8% of patients with a lower lamina propria tumor associated macrophage count but in 21.1% of those with a higher lamina propria tumor associated macrophage count (less than 25 vs 25 or greater). The median ratio of tumor associated macrophages among cancer cells vs in the lamina propria was 0.2. Recurrence-free survival was significantly better in patients with a lower cancer cell tumor associated macrophage count (p = 0.0002). Those with a lower cancer cell-to-lamina propria tumor associated macrophage ratio had a higher recurrence-free rate (p <0.0001). Multivariate analysis revealed that the cancer cell tumor associated macrophage count and the cancer cell-to-lamina propria tumor associated macrophage ratio can be prognostic factors for bladder carcinoma in situ.
Question: Is increased infiltration of tumor associated macrophages associated with poor prognosis of bladder carcinoma in situ after intravesical bacillus Calmette-Guerin instillation?
Output:
|
PubmedQA74619
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: To investigate the anti-tumor effect of dendritic cells (DCs) pulsed with hsp70-peptide complexes derived from human hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) cells on human T cells. Hsp70-peptide complexes were purified from human HCC cells with column chromatography using ADP-agarose and DEAE-Sepharose. DCs were derived from peripheral blood mononuclear cells of healthy donors in the presence of human GM-CSF and IL-4. The anti-tumor effect of DCs pulsed with hsp70-peptide complexes on human T-cell was assayed by CTL and enzyme-linked immunospot (ELISPOT) tests. Hsp70-peptide complexes derived from human HCC cells activated phenotypic and functional maturation of DCs. The matured DCs stimulated a high level of autologous T-cell proliferation and type I cytokine secretion, and induced HCC-specific cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTLs), which specifically killed HCC cells by a MHC class I restricted mechanism.\n Question: Do dendritic cells pulsed with hsp70-peptide complexes derived from human hepatocellular carcinoma induce specific anti-tumor immune responses?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: To investigate the anti-tumor effect of dendritic cells (DCs) pulsed with hsp70-peptide complexes derived from human hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) cells on human T cells. Hsp70-peptide complexes were purified from human HCC cells with column chromatography using ADP-agarose and DEAE-Sepharose. DCs were derived from peripheral blood mononuclear cells of healthy donors in the presence of human GM-CSF and IL-4. The anti-tumor effect of DCs pulsed with hsp70-peptide complexes on human T-cell was assayed by CTL and enzyme-linked immunospot (ELISPOT) tests. Hsp70-peptide complexes derived from human HCC cells activated phenotypic and functional maturation of DCs. The matured DCs stimulated a high level of autologous T-cell proliferation and type I cytokine secretion, and induced HCC-specific cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTLs), which specifically killed HCC cells by a MHC class I restricted mechanism.
Question: Do dendritic cells pulsed with hsp70-peptide complexes derived from human hepatocellular carcinoma induce specific anti-tumor immune responses?
Output:
|
PubmedQA101359
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Endothelin-1 (ET-1) is an endothelium-derived vasoconstrictor peptide. Controversy persists regarding the predominant ET receptor that mediates coronary vasoconstriction at pathophysiological concentrations. The aim of the present study was to test the hypothesis that ET mediates local coronary vasoconstriction via the ET-A receptor at low concentrations of exogenous ET-1 designed to mimic pathophysiological states compared with pharmacological concentrations. ET-1 (group 1, n = 5) or sarafotoxin, a specific ET-B receptor agonist (group 3, n = 6) (each at 2 ng/kg per minute), was infused into the left circumflex coronary artery in the anesthetized dog. In group 2 dogs (n = 5), the same dose of ET-1 was infused with 4 micrograms/kg per minute of the specific ET-A receptor antagonist FR-139317. In group 4 (n = 5), the same dose of sarafotoxin was infused with 50 micrograms/kg per minute of the specific inhibitor of nitric oxide formation, NG-monomethyl-L-arginine (L-NMMA). No difference in hemodynamics, coronary blood flow (CBF), coronary vascular resistance (CVR), or coronary artery diameter (CAD) was observed at baseline between the groups. In group 1, intracoronary ET-1 significantly decreased CBF and CAD in association with an increase in CVR. The percentage decrease in CBF and CAD in the group that received ET-1 and the ET-A receptor antagonist (group 2) was significantly less than that in the group that received ET-1 alone (group 1) (-12 +/- 3% versus -48 +/- 6% [P < .001] and -4.6 +/- 0.8 versus 1.0 +/- 0.3 [P < .05], respectively). The administration of the ET-A receptor antagonist (group 2) abolished the ET-mediated increase in CVR (7 +/- 5% versus 105 +/- 21%, P < .005). There was no significant effect on CBF, CVR, or CAD in the group receiving sarafotoxin alone (group 3). The administration of L-NMMA and sarafotoxin (group 3). The administration of L-NMMA and sarafotoxin (group 4) resulted in a significant percentage decrease in CBF compared with the group that received sarafotoxin alone (-28 +/- 7% versus -8 +/- 2% [P < .05]).\n Question: Does endothelin at pathophysiological concentrations mediate coronary vasoconstriction via the endothelin-A receptor?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: Endothelin-1 (ET-1) is an endothelium-derived vasoconstrictor peptide. Controversy persists regarding the predominant ET receptor that mediates coronary vasoconstriction at pathophysiological concentrations. The aim of the present study was to test the hypothesis that ET mediates local coronary vasoconstriction via the ET-A receptor at low concentrations of exogenous ET-1 designed to mimic pathophysiological states compared with pharmacological concentrations. ET-1 (group 1, n = 5) or sarafotoxin, a specific ET-B receptor agonist (group 3, n = 6) (each at 2 ng/kg per minute), was infused into the left circumflex coronary artery in the anesthetized dog. In group 2 dogs (n = 5), the same dose of ET-1 was infused with 4 micrograms/kg per minute of the specific ET-A receptor antagonist FR-139317. In group 4 (n = 5), the same dose of sarafotoxin was infused with 50 micrograms/kg per minute of the specific inhibitor of nitric oxide formation, NG-monomethyl-L-arginine (L-NMMA). No difference in hemodynamics, coronary blood flow (CBF), coronary vascular resistance (CVR), or coronary artery diameter (CAD) was observed at baseline between the groups. In group 1, intracoronary ET-1 significantly decreased CBF and CAD in association with an increase in CVR. The percentage decrease in CBF and CAD in the group that received ET-1 and the ET-A receptor antagonist (group 2) was significantly less than that in the group that received ET-1 alone (group 1) (-12 +/- 3% versus -48 +/- 6% [P < .001] and -4.6 +/- 0.8 versus 1.0 +/- 0.3 [P < .05], respectively). The administration of the ET-A receptor antagonist (group 2) abolished the ET-mediated increase in CVR (7 +/- 5% versus 105 +/- 21%, P < .005). There was no significant effect on CBF, CVR, or CAD in the group receiving sarafotoxin alone (group 3). The administration of L-NMMA and sarafotoxin (group 3). The administration of L-NMMA and sarafotoxin (group 4) resulted in a significant percentage decrease in CBF compared with the group that received sarafotoxin alone (-28 +/- 7% versus -8 +/- 2% [P < .05]).
Question: Does endothelin at pathophysiological concentrations mediate coronary vasoconstriction via the endothelin-A receptor?
Output:
|
PubmedQA171835
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: We aimed to investigate if peripheral blood natural killer (pNK) cell levels are correlated with decidual NK (dNK) cell levels, and if chemokine expression has any role in dNK cell regulation. of study Decidual tissues of women having two or more miscarriages with normal karyotype were collected after miscarriage and an immuno-histochemisty study was made. pNK cells were evaluated using flow cytometric analysis. The %CD3(-)/56(+) and %CD3(-)/56(+)/16(+) pNK cells showed a significant correlation with mean number of CD56(+) dNK cells. The number of decidual CD16(+) cells was significantly higher in women with elevated pNK (> or =15%) than that of normal pNK (<15%). The %CD3(-)/56(+) and %CD3(-)/56(+)/16(+) pNK cells showed an inverse correlation with duration of gestation. The CCL3(+) and CXCL12(+) cells were present in the decidua; however, staining intensity was not correlated with number of dNK cells.\n Question: Do peripheral blood NK cells reflect changes in decidual NK cells in women with recurrent miscarriages?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: We aimed to investigate if peripheral blood natural killer (pNK) cell levels are correlated with decidual NK (dNK) cell levels, and if chemokine expression has any role in dNK cell regulation. of study Decidual tissues of women having two or more miscarriages with normal karyotype were collected after miscarriage and an immuno-histochemisty study was made. pNK cells were evaluated using flow cytometric analysis. The %CD3(-)/56(+) and %CD3(-)/56(+)/16(+) pNK cells showed a significant correlation with mean number of CD56(+) dNK cells. The number of decidual CD16(+) cells was significantly higher in women with elevated pNK (> or =15%) than that of normal pNK (<15%). The %CD3(-)/56(+) and %CD3(-)/56(+)/16(+) pNK cells showed an inverse correlation with duration of gestation. The CCL3(+) and CXCL12(+) cells were present in the decidua; however, staining intensity was not correlated with number of dNK cells.
Question: Do peripheral blood NK cells reflect changes in decidual NK cells in women with recurrent miscarriages?
Output:
|
PubmedQA110400
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Relapse remains a concern for children with AML undergoing allogeneic SCT, so in an effort to reduce the risk of relapse in these patients, we intensified our pre-SCT preparation by adding etoposide to the standard busulfan and cyclophosphamide regimen. We retrospectively analyzed the collected data and compared the two groups; Group A (n = 18) included patients who received busulfan 16 mg/kg plus cyclophosphamide 200 mg/kg (Bu/Cy), and Group B (n = 48) included patients who received busulfan 12 mg/kg, cyclophosphamide 90 mg/kg in addition to etoposide 60 mg/kg (Bu/Cy/VP). The patients' characteristics were similar in the two groups. No significant difference in the overall outcome was noted; the 5-year overall survival was 50% and 53.3% for Groups A and B, respectively (P = 0.9). Similarly, the 5-year probability of relapse was 64.1% and 46.1% for Groups A and B, respectively (P = 0.38). The use of etoposide was not associated with increased toxicity.\n Question: Is the outcome of children with acute myeloid leukemia ( AML ) post-allogeneic stem cell transplantation ( SCT ) improved by the addition of etoposide to the conditioning regimen?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "no"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: Relapse remains a concern for children with AML undergoing allogeneic SCT, so in an effort to reduce the risk of relapse in these patients, we intensified our pre-SCT preparation by adding etoposide to the standard busulfan and cyclophosphamide regimen. We retrospectively analyzed the collected data and compared the two groups; Group A (n = 18) included patients who received busulfan 16 mg/kg plus cyclophosphamide 200 mg/kg (Bu/Cy), and Group B (n = 48) included patients who received busulfan 12 mg/kg, cyclophosphamide 90 mg/kg in addition to etoposide 60 mg/kg (Bu/Cy/VP). The patients' characteristics were similar in the two groups. No significant difference in the overall outcome was noted; the 5-year overall survival was 50% and 53.3% for Groups A and B, respectively (P = 0.9). Similarly, the 5-year probability of relapse was 64.1% and 46.1% for Groups A and B, respectively (P = 0.38). The use of etoposide was not associated with increased toxicity.
Question: Is the outcome of children with acute myeloid leukemia ( AML ) post-allogeneic stem cell transplantation ( SCT ) improved by the addition of etoposide to the conditioning regimen?
Output:
|
PubmedQA132079
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Dietary nucleotides are reported to influence the growth and functioning of the liver and small intestine. The aim of this study was to examine the mechanism by which nucleotides exert their effects in these tissues by assessing protein synthesis activity and related parameters in the presence or absence of dietary nucleotides. Rats were fed a purified diet with or without nucleotides for 10 days. Fractional protein synthesis rate, RNA and DNA concentrations, polysome size distribution, and number of ribosomes were assessed. Fractional protein synthesis rates of the liver and small intestine were lower in the nucleotide-deprived group than in the control group. In the liver, RNA concentration was also lower in the nucleotide-deprived group, but values in the small intestine were similar in the two groups. In the liver, deprivation of nucleotides resulted in a reduction in the number of ribosomes and in polysome breakdown. Protein and DNA concentrations did not vary in the liver; however, the concentration of DNA was lower in the small intestine of the nucleotide-deprived group than in the control group.\n Question: Does deprivation of dietary nucleotides decrease protein synthesis in the liver and small intestine in rats?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: Dietary nucleotides are reported to influence the growth and functioning of the liver and small intestine. The aim of this study was to examine the mechanism by which nucleotides exert their effects in these tissues by assessing protein synthesis activity and related parameters in the presence or absence of dietary nucleotides. Rats were fed a purified diet with or without nucleotides for 10 days. Fractional protein synthesis rate, RNA and DNA concentrations, polysome size distribution, and number of ribosomes were assessed. Fractional protein synthesis rates of the liver and small intestine were lower in the nucleotide-deprived group than in the control group. In the liver, RNA concentration was also lower in the nucleotide-deprived group, but values in the small intestine were similar in the two groups. In the liver, deprivation of nucleotides resulted in a reduction in the number of ribosomes and in polysome breakdown. Protein and DNA concentrations did not vary in the liver; however, the concentration of DNA was lower in the small intestine of the nucleotide-deprived group than in the control group.
Question: Does deprivation of dietary nucleotides decrease protein synthesis in the liver and small intestine in rats?
Output:
|
PubmedQA144453
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: To evaluate the prognostic value of anemia in squamous cell carcinomas in the head and neck treated with curative radiation therapy alone. In a prospective study, the hemoglobin level was measured prior to radiation therapy in 217 patients (188 [87%] men and 29 [13%] women) with cancer of the oral cavity (n = 61 [28%]), oropharynx (n = 53 [24%]), hypopharynx (n = 21 [10%]), and larynx (n = 82 [38%]). Anemia, defined as hemoglobin level below 13.5 g/dL in men and below 12.0 g/dL in women, was diagnosed in 58 (31%) of the men and five (17%) of the women. Median follow-up was 29 months (range, 2-63 months). The 2-year actuarial probability of local-regional control was 69% (95% confidence interval, 63%, 76%). Multivariate analysis showed the relative risk of failure of local-regional control to increase for stage T3 and T4 tumors (1.8 [95% confidence interval, 1.1, 3.1]), stage N3 nodes (3.6 [95% confidence interval, 1.8, 7.1]), weight loss (2.2 [95% confidence interval, 1.3, 4.0]), and anemia (1.6 [95% confidence interval, 1.0-2.7]). The relative risk of death increased for stage T3 and T4 tumors (2.5 [95% confidence interval, 1.4, 4.3]), N3 nodes (4.0 [95% confidence interval, 1.0, 7.9]), oral cavity tumors (2.0 [95% confidence interval, 1.2, 3.2]), male sex (4.1 [95% confidence interval, 1.3, 13.1]), weight loss (2.2 [95% confidence interval, 1.3, 3.7]), and anemia (1.7 [95% confidence interval, 1.03, 2.7]).\n Question: Is anemia associated with lower local-regional control and survival after radiation therapy for head and neck cancer : a prospective study?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: To evaluate the prognostic value of anemia in squamous cell carcinomas in the head and neck treated with curative radiation therapy alone. In a prospective study, the hemoglobin level was measured prior to radiation therapy in 217 patients (188 [87%] men and 29 [13%] women) with cancer of the oral cavity (n = 61 [28%]), oropharynx (n = 53 [24%]), hypopharynx (n = 21 [10%]), and larynx (n = 82 [38%]). Anemia, defined as hemoglobin level below 13.5 g/dL in men and below 12.0 g/dL in women, was diagnosed in 58 (31%) of the men and five (17%) of the women. Median follow-up was 29 months (range, 2-63 months). The 2-year actuarial probability of local-regional control was 69% (95% confidence interval, 63%, 76%). Multivariate analysis showed the relative risk of failure of local-regional control to increase for stage T3 and T4 tumors (1.8 [95% confidence interval, 1.1, 3.1]), stage N3 nodes (3.6 [95% confidence interval, 1.8, 7.1]), weight loss (2.2 [95% confidence interval, 1.3, 4.0]), and anemia (1.6 [95% confidence interval, 1.0-2.7]). The relative risk of death increased for stage T3 and T4 tumors (2.5 [95% confidence interval, 1.4, 4.3]), N3 nodes (4.0 [95% confidence interval, 1.0, 7.9]), oral cavity tumors (2.0 [95% confidence interval, 1.2, 3.2]), male sex (4.1 [95% confidence interval, 1.3, 13.1]), weight loss (2.2 [95% confidence interval, 1.3, 3.7]), and anemia (1.7 [95% confidence interval, 1.03, 2.7]).
Question: Is anemia associated with lower local-regional control and survival after radiation therapy for head and neck cancer : a prospective study?
Output:
|
PubmedQA167585
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: This study aimed to determine the oncologic efficacy of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonist treatment concurrent with chemotherapy in a neoadjuvant setting. A retrospective analysis was performed on 332 cases of invasive breast cancer in patients who were <40 years old at diagnosis and received GnRH agonists concurrent with neoadjuvant chemotherapy (GnRH agonist group) or neoadjuvant chemotherapy alone (neochemotherapy-alone group) from December 2010 to September 2014. Pathologic complete response rates (pCR) and Ki-67 changes were evaluated between the two groups. Median age was 32±3.9 and 36±3.0 years in the GnRH agonist group and neochemotherapy-alone group, respectively (p<0.001). After adjustment for tumor size, grade, lymph node metastasis, hormone receptor (HR) status, and chemotherapy regimen, the GnRH agonist group exhibited a higher pCR rate with an odds ratio (OR) of 2.98 (95% confidence interval [CI], 1.37-6.34) and a greater decrease in Ki-67 expression after treatment (p=0.05) than the neochemotherapy-alone group. For HR-negative tumors, the GnRH agonist group showed a higher pCR rate (multivariate OR, 3.50; 95% CI, 1.37-8.95) and a greater decrease in Ki-67 expression (p=0.047). For HR-positive breast cancer, the pCR rate, change in Ki-67 index, and clinical response were higher, and preoperative endocrine prognostic index scores were lower, in the GnRH agonist group, but these did not reach statistical significance.\n Question: Does concurrent Gonadotropin-Releasing Hormone Agonist Administration with Chemotherapy improve Neoadjuvant Chemotherapy Responses in Young Premenopausal Breast Cancer Patients?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: This study aimed to determine the oncologic efficacy of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonist treatment concurrent with chemotherapy in a neoadjuvant setting. A retrospective analysis was performed on 332 cases of invasive breast cancer in patients who were <40 years old at diagnosis and received GnRH agonists concurrent with neoadjuvant chemotherapy (GnRH agonist group) or neoadjuvant chemotherapy alone (neochemotherapy-alone group) from December 2010 to September 2014. Pathologic complete response rates (pCR) and Ki-67 changes were evaluated between the two groups. Median age was 32±3.9 and 36±3.0 years in the GnRH agonist group and neochemotherapy-alone group, respectively (p<0.001). After adjustment for tumor size, grade, lymph node metastasis, hormone receptor (HR) status, and chemotherapy regimen, the GnRH agonist group exhibited a higher pCR rate with an odds ratio (OR) of 2.98 (95% confidence interval [CI], 1.37-6.34) and a greater decrease in Ki-67 expression after treatment (p=0.05) than the neochemotherapy-alone group. For HR-negative tumors, the GnRH agonist group showed a higher pCR rate (multivariate OR, 3.50; 95% CI, 1.37-8.95) and a greater decrease in Ki-67 expression (p=0.047). For HR-positive breast cancer, the pCR rate, change in Ki-67 index, and clinical response were higher, and preoperative endocrine prognostic index scores were lower, in the GnRH agonist group, but these did not reach statistical significance.
Question: Does concurrent Gonadotropin-Releasing Hormone Agonist Administration with Chemotherapy improve Neoadjuvant Chemotherapy Responses in Young Premenopausal Breast Cancer Patients?
Output:
|
PubmedQA31307
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: The prognosis of patients with cholangiocarcinoma is poor because of the difficulty of surgical curative resection. Therefore, other effective treatments must be developed especially those involving gene therapy. p27kip1, one of the cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitors, is known to limit proliferation of the cells. Our previous reports have shown that the overexpression of p27kip1 by a recombinant adenoviral vector expressing p27kip1 (Adp27) induces apoptosis. However, the mechanism of the Adp27-mediated apoptosis is not still resolved. Activation of the Fas pathway is one of the important gates for apoptosis. In this report, we examined whether p27kip1-induced apoptosis is closely related to the Fas/Fas ligand (FasL) system. After infection of Adp27, flow cytometric analysis showed that Fas ligand was expressed on the cell surface of cholangiocarcinoma cell lines (TFK-1). In spite of detecting the cell surface expression of Fas ligand, overexpression of p27kip1 increased no amount of Fas ligand in mRNA by quantitative RT-PCR and protein level by Western blot. In addition, the immunocytochemical analysis showed that Fas ligand was adequately stored within the cytosol of TFK-1 cells. More interestingly, Adp27-induced apoptosis was completely inhibited by the neutralizing antibody of Fas ligand (NOK-1). This result suggests that overexpression of p27kip1 may deliver Fas ligand to the cell surface and mainly utilizes the Fas pathway as a gate of apoptosis.\n Question: Does adenovirus expressing p27KIP1 induce apoptosis against cholangiocarcinoma cells by triggering Fas ligand on the cell surface?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: The prognosis of patients with cholangiocarcinoma is poor because of the difficulty of surgical curative resection. Therefore, other effective treatments must be developed especially those involving gene therapy. p27kip1, one of the cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitors, is known to limit proliferation of the cells. Our previous reports have shown that the overexpression of p27kip1 by a recombinant adenoviral vector expressing p27kip1 (Adp27) induces apoptosis. However, the mechanism of the Adp27-mediated apoptosis is not still resolved. Activation of the Fas pathway is one of the important gates for apoptosis. In this report, we examined whether p27kip1-induced apoptosis is closely related to the Fas/Fas ligand (FasL) system. After infection of Adp27, flow cytometric analysis showed that Fas ligand was expressed on the cell surface of cholangiocarcinoma cell lines (TFK-1). In spite of detecting the cell surface expression of Fas ligand, overexpression of p27kip1 increased no amount of Fas ligand in mRNA by quantitative RT-PCR and protein level by Western blot. In addition, the immunocytochemical analysis showed that Fas ligand was adequately stored within the cytosol of TFK-1 cells. More interestingly, Adp27-induced apoptosis was completely inhibited by the neutralizing antibody of Fas ligand (NOK-1). This result suggests that overexpression of p27kip1 may deliver Fas ligand to the cell surface and mainly utilizes the Fas pathway as a gate of apoptosis.
Question: Does adenovirus expressing p27KIP1 induce apoptosis against cholangiocarcinoma cells by triggering Fas ligand on the cell surface?
Output:
|
PubmedQA117212
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Infection with cytotoxin-associated gene A (cagA) Helicobacter pylori is associated with severe gastric diseases. Previous studies in humans have reported a decreased gastric hydrophobicity with H pylori infection. The aim of the present study was to differentiate between the effect of cagA+ and cagA- strains on gastric mucus hydrophobicity. One hundred patients without peptic ulcers and not on medication were randomly recruited from endoscopy clinics; each patient had six biopsies. Contact angle measurements were performed using a goniometer assisted by computer software. H pylori status was assessed by histology, Campylobacter-like organism test and culture, and cagA+ status was determined by polymerase chain reaction. In age- and sex-matched patients, there was no significant difference (P=0.27) in contact angle between H pylori-positive (61+/-2.8 degrees ) and H pylori-negative patients (65.5+/-3.0 degrees ). There was also no significant difference (P=0.36) in contact angle among H pylori-negative, cagA- and cagA+ patients (65.5+/-3.0 degrees , 58.6+/-3.6 degrees and 63.4+/-4.9 degrees , respectively). However, a trend of increased mean contact angles in cagA+ compared with cagA- and H pylori-negative patients was observed in patients 50 years and younger (68.3+/-8.3 degrees , 61.1+/-6.1 degrees and 63.6+/-2.2 degrees , respectively; P=0.70) and in patients without atrophy (71.1+/-8 degrees , 59.6+/-4 degrees and 66+/-2 degrees , respectively; P=0.30). In addition, there was no significant correlation between contact angles and patient age (r=0.104, P=0.306).\n Question: Does human gastric mucosal hydrophobicity decrease with Helicobacter pylori infection or chronological age?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "no"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: Infection with cytotoxin-associated gene A (cagA) Helicobacter pylori is associated with severe gastric diseases. Previous studies in humans have reported a decreased gastric hydrophobicity with H pylori infection. The aim of the present study was to differentiate between the effect of cagA+ and cagA- strains on gastric mucus hydrophobicity. One hundred patients without peptic ulcers and not on medication were randomly recruited from endoscopy clinics; each patient had six biopsies. Contact angle measurements were performed using a goniometer assisted by computer software. H pylori status was assessed by histology, Campylobacter-like organism test and culture, and cagA+ status was determined by polymerase chain reaction. In age- and sex-matched patients, there was no significant difference (P=0.27) in contact angle between H pylori-positive (61+/-2.8 degrees ) and H pylori-negative patients (65.5+/-3.0 degrees ). There was also no significant difference (P=0.36) in contact angle among H pylori-negative, cagA- and cagA+ patients (65.5+/-3.0 degrees , 58.6+/-3.6 degrees and 63.4+/-4.9 degrees , respectively). However, a trend of increased mean contact angles in cagA+ compared with cagA- and H pylori-negative patients was observed in patients 50 years and younger (68.3+/-8.3 degrees , 61.1+/-6.1 degrees and 63.6+/-2.2 degrees , respectively; P=0.70) and in patients without atrophy (71.1+/-8 degrees , 59.6+/-4 degrees and 66+/-2 degrees , respectively; P=0.30). In addition, there was no significant correlation between contact angles and patient age (r=0.104, P=0.306).
Question: Does human gastric mucosal hydrophobicity decrease with Helicobacter pylori infection or chronological age?
Output:
|
PubmedQA203299
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: To compare the chemomechanical reduction and regrowth of Enterococcus faecalis between rotary and reciprocating systems in root canal preparation. Seventy-six single-rooted human mandibular premolars were selected and standardized to 15 mm in length. Root canals were enlarged up to a size 25 K-file and irrigated with distilled water and then were infected with E. faecalis for 4 weeks. The specimens were divided into 3 groups (n = 24) for instrumentation with Mtwo, Twisted File and WaveOne. Each group was further divided into two subgroups (n = 12) according to the irrigant used: distilled water or 5.25% sodium hypochlorite (NaOCl). Before and after rotary preparation, microbiological samples were collected using three sterilized paper points, and efficacy was expressed as reduction in percentage. The proportion of grown samples for 60 days was evaluated using nonparametric Kaplan-Meier survival analysis. Differences amongst groups were tested using the log-rank test at a significance level of 0.05. In the main root canal, the percentage reduction in the distilled water and 5.25% NaOCl groups ranged from 95.9% to 100%, with no significant differences amongst the three systems (P > 0.05). The bacterial regrowth in NaOCl groups revealed that Mtwo had the lowest number of samples regrown at 60 days, giving statistically significant differences with respect to Twisted File (P = 0.029) and WaveOne (P = 0.005).\n Question: Does reduction in Enteroccocus faecalis count - a comparison between rotary and reciprocating systems?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: To compare the chemomechanical reduction and regrowth of Enterococcus faecalis between rotary and reciprocating systems in root canal preparation. Seventy-six single-rooted human mandibular premolars were selected and standardized to 15 mm in length. Root canals were enlarged up to a size 25 K-file and irrigated with distilled water and then were infected with E. faecalis for 4 weeks. The specimens were divided into 3 groups (n = 24) for instrumentation with Mtwo, Twisted File and WaveOne. Each group was further divided into two subgroups (n = 12) according to the irrigant used: distilled water or 5.25% sodium hypochlorite (NaOCl). Before and after rotary preparation, microbiological samples were collected using three sterilized paper points, and efficacy was expressed as reduction in percentage. The proportion of grown samples for 60 days was evaluated using nonparametric Kaplan-Meier survival analysis. Differences amongst groups were tested using the log-rank test at a significance level of 0.05. In the main root canal, the percentage reduction in the distilled water and 5.25% NaOCl groups ranged from 95.9% to 100%, with no significant differences amongst the three systems (P > 0.05). The bacterial regrowth in NaOCl groups revealed that Mtwo had the lowest number of samples regrown at 60 days, giving statistically significant differences with respect to Twisted File (P = 0.029) and WaveOne (P = 0.005).
Question: Does reduction in Enteroccocus faecalis count - a comparison between rotary and reciprocating systems?
Output:
|
PubmedQA137066
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Nutrient \"preloads\" given before meals can attenuate postprandial glycemic excursions, at least partly by slowing gastric emptying and stimulating secretion of the incretins (i.e., glucagon-like peptide-1 [GLP-1] and glucose-dependent insulinotropic polypeptide [GIP]). This study was designed to evaluate whether a protein preload could improve the efficacy of the dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitor vildagliptin to increase incretin concentrations, slow gastric emptying, and lower postprandial glycemia in type 2 diabetes. Twenty-two patients with type 2 diabetes treated with metformin were studied on four occasions, receiving either 50 mg vildagliptin (VILD) or placebo (PLBO) on both the evening before and the morning of each study day. The latter dose was followed after 60 min by a preload drink containing either 25 g whey protein (WHEY) or control flavoring (CTRL), and after another 30 min by a (13)C-octanoate-labeled mashed potato meal. Plasma glucose and hormones, and gastric emptying, were evaluated. Compared with PLBO/CTRL, PLBO/WHEY reduced postprandial peak glycemia, increased plasma insulin, glucagon, and incretin hormones (total and intact), and slowed gastric emptying, whereas VILD/CTRL reduced both the peak and area under the curve for glucose, increased plasma intact incretins, and slowed gastric emptying but suppressed plasma glucagon and total incretins (P < 0.05 each). Compared with both PLBO/WHEY and VILD/CTRL, VILD/WHEY was associated with higher plasma intact GLP-1 and GIP, slower gastric emptying, and lower postprandial glycemia (P < 0.05 each).\n Question: Does a Protein Preload enhance the Glucose-Lowering Efficacy of Vildagliptin in Type 2 Diabetes?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: Nutrient "preloads" given before meals can attenuate postprandial glycemic excursions, at least partly by slowing gastric emptying and stimulating secretion of the incretins (i.e., glucagon-like peptide-1 [GLP-1] and glucose-dependent insulinotropic polypeptide [GIP]). This study was designed to evaluate whether a protein preload could improve the efficacy of the dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitor vildagliptin to increase incretin concentrations, slow gastric emptying, and lower postprandial glycemia in type 2 diabetes. Twenty-two patients with type 2 diabetes treated with metformin were studied on four occasions, receiving either 50 mg vildagliptin (VILD) or placebo (PLBO) on both the evening before and the morning of each study day. The latter dose was followed after 60 min by a preload drink containing either 25 g whey protein (WHEY) or control flavoring (CTRL), and after another 30 min by a (13)C-octanoate-labeled mashed potato meal. Plasma glucose and hormones, and gastric emptying, were evaluated. Compared with PLBO/CTRL, PLBO/WHEY reduced postprandial peak glycemia, increased plasma insulin, glucagon, and incretin hormones (total and intact), and slowed gastric emptying, whereas VILD/CTRL reduced both the peak and area under the curve for glucose, increased plasma intact incretins, and slowed gastric emptying but suppressed plasma glucagon and total incretins (P < 0.05 each). Compared with both PLBO/WHEY and VILD/CTRL, VILD/WHEY was associated with higher plasma intact GLP-1 and GIP, slower gastric emptying, and lower postprandial glycemia (P < 0.05 each).
Question: Does a Protein Preload enhance the Glucose-Lowering Efficacy of Vildagliptin in Type 2 Diabetes?
Output:
|
PubmedQA41385
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Affective touch carries strong significance for social mammals, including humans. Gentle, dynamic touch of a kind that occurs during social interactions is preferentially encoded by a distinct neural pathway involving tactile C (CT) afferents, a type of unmyelinated afferent nerve found exclusively in hairy skin. CT afferents increase firing when the skin is stroked at a pleasant, caress-like speed of ∼3 cm/s, and their discharge frequency correlates with the subjective hedonic experience of the caress. In humans, the posterior insula is a cortical target for CT afferents. Since the potential social relevance of affective touch extends to the touch interactions of others, we postulated that information from CT afferents in posterior insular cortex provides a basis for encoding observed caresses. In two experiments, we exploited CT afferents' functionally unique tuning curve for stroking speed, demonstrating that a speed optimal for eliciting CT discharge (3 cm/s) also gives rise to higher BOLD responses in posterior insula than a nonoptimal speed (30 cm/s). When participants viewed videos of others' arms being stroked at CT-optimal versus -nonoptimal speeds, the posterior insula showed a similar response as to directly felt touch. Further, this region's response was specific for social interactions, showing no CT-related modulation for nonsocial dynamic-touch videos.\n Question: Are vicarious responses to social touch in posterior insular cortex tuned to pleasant caressing speeds?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: Affective touch carries strong significance for social mammals, including humans. Gentle, dynamic touch of a kind that occurs during social interactions is preferentially encoded by a distinct neural pathway involving tactile C (CT) afferents, a type of unmyelinated afferent nerve found exclusively in hairy skin. CT afferents increase firing when the skin is stroked at a pleasant, caress-like speed of ∼3 cm/s, and their discharge frequency correlates with the subjective hedonic experience of the caress. In humans, the posterior insula is a cortical target for CT afferents. Since the potential social relevance of affective touch extends to the touch interactions of others, we postulated that information from CT afferents in posterior insular cortex provides a basis for encoding observed caresses. In two experiments, we exploited CT afferents' functionally unique tuning curve for stroking speed, demonstrating that a speed optimal for eliciting CT discharge (3 cm/s) also gives rise to higher BOLD responses in posterior insula than a nonoptimal speed (30 cm/s). When participants viewed videos of others' arms being stroked at CT-optimal versus -nonoptimal speeds, the posterior insula showed a similar response as to directly felt touch. Further, this region's response was specific for social interactions, showing no CT-related modulation for nonsocial dynamic-touch videos.
Question: Are vicarious responses to social touch in posterior insular cortex tuned to pleasant caressing speeds?
Output:
|
PubmedQA5333
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Canavan disease is a rare leukodystrophy with no current treatment. rAAV-ASPA has been developed for gene delivery to the central nervous system (CNS) for Canavan disease. This study represents the first use of a viral vector in an attempt to ameliorate a neurodegenerative disorder. Subjects received intracranial infusions via six cranial burr holes. Adeno-associated virus, serotype 2 (AAV2), mediated intraparenchymal delivery of the human aspartoacylase cDNA at a maximum dose of 1 x 10(12) vector genomes per subject. The immune response and safety profiles were monitored in the follow-up of ten subjects. Following rAAV2 administration, we found no evidence of AAV2 neutralizing antibody titers in serum for the majority of subjects tested (7/10). In a subset (3/10) of subjects, low to moderately high levels of AAV2 neutralizing antibody with respect to baseline were detected. In all subjects, there were minimal systemic signs of inflammation or immune stimulation. In subjects with catheter access to the brain lateral ventricle, cerebrospinal fluid was examined and there was a complete absence of neutralizing antibody titers with no overt signs of brain inflammation.\n Question: Do immune responses to AAV in a phase I study for Canavan disease?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: Canavan disease is a rare leukodystrophy with no current treatment. rAAV-ASPA has been developed for gene delivery to the central nervous system (CNS) for Canavan disease. This study represents the first use of a viral vector in an attempt to ameliorate a neurodegenerative disorder. Subjects received intracranial infusions via six cranial burr holes. Adeno-associated virus, serotype 2 (AAV2), mediated intraparenchymal delivery of the human aspartoacylase cDNA at a maximum dose of 1 x 10(12) vector genomes per subject. The immune response and safety profiles were monitored in the follow-up of ten subjects. Following rAAV2 administration, we found no evidence of AAV2 neutralizing antibody titers in serum for the majority of subjects tested (7/10). In a subset (3/10) of subjects, low to moderately high levels of AAV2 neutralizing antibody with respect to baseline were detected. In all subjects, there were minimal systemic signs of inflammation or immune stimulation. In subjects with catheter access to the brain lateral ventricle, cerebrospinal fluid was examined and there was a complete absence of neutralizing antibody titers with no overt signs of brain inflammation.
Question: Do immune responses to AAV in a phase I study for Canavan disease?
Output:
|
PubmedQA56817
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Tender points are a general measure of distress both in the community and in clinic subjects. It has been suggested that multiple tender points should be regarded as the early stages of somatisation of distress. Similarly, recent evidence suggests that chronic widespread pain (CWP) is one manifestation of the somatisation of distress. Given that a high tender point count and CWP are clinical hallmarks of the fibromyalgia syndrome, it was hypothesised that in somatising subjects, a high tender point count or a low pain threshold would predict the development of CWP in the future. In this population-based prospective study, 245 adults aged 25-65 years, free of CWP, were identified on the basis of a detailed questionnaire on pain and a psychosocial questionnaire comprising the Somatic Symptom Checklist and the Illness Behaviour subscale of the Illness Attitude Scales. These subjects took part in a pain threshold examination with a Fischer pressure algometer. Tender point counts were computed by including all areas with a pain threshold<4 kg/cm2. Individuals were followed up at 15 months, at which time 231 (93% of subjects still living at their baseline address) provided data on pain status, using the same instruments. At follow-up, 26 (11%) subjects developed new CWP. Although subjects with a low baseline pain threshold were not at increased risk of developing symptoms, a high tender point count, adjusted for age, sex, baseline pain status and other confounding factors, predicted the development of new CWP.\n Question: Does pressure pain thresholds and tender point count as predictors of new chronic widespread pain in somatising subjects?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: Tender points are a general measure of distress both in the community and in clinic subjects. It has been suggested that multiple tender points should be regarded as the early stages of somatisation of distress. Similarly, recent evidence suggests that chronic widespread pain (CWP) is one manifestation of the somatisation of distress. Given that a high tender point count and CWP are clinical hallmarks of the fibromyalgia syndrome, it was hypothesised that in somatising subjects, a high tender point count or a low pain threshold would predict the development of CWP in the future. In this population-based prospective study, 245 adults aged 25-65 years, free of CWP, were identified on the basis of a detailed questionnaire on pain and a psychosocial questionnaire comprising the Somatic Symptom Checklist and the Illness Behaviour subscale of the Illness Attitude Scales. These subjects took part in a pain threshold examination with a Fischer pressure algometer. Tender point counts were computed by including all areas with a pain threshold<4 kg/cm2. Individuals were followed up at 15 months, at which time 231 (93% of subjects still living at their baseline address) provided data on pain status, using the same instruments. At follow-up, 26 (11%) subjects developed new CWP. Although subjects with a low baseline pain threshold were not at increased risk of developing symptoms, a high tender point count, adjusted for age, sex, baseline pain status and other confounding factors, predicted the development of new CWP.
Question: Does pressure pain thresholds and tender point count as predictors of new chronic widespread pain in somatising subjects?
Output:
|
PubmedQA2411
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Cyclovirobuxinum D (CVB-D), an alkaloid isolated from the Chinese medicinal plant Buxus microphylla, has been found to be effective to treat cardiac insufficiency, arrhythmias and coronary heart disease. In the present study, we investigated the effects of CVB-D on the inflammatory responses in lipopolysaccharide (LPS)-stimulated murine macrophages in vitro and the underlying mechanisms. Murine macrophage cell line RAW264.7 cells were incubated in the presence of LPS (0.1 μg/mL) for 24 h. The cell viability was measured using MTT assay. The release of NO and cytokines were detected using the Griess test and ELISA, respectively. The mRNA and protein levels were determined using RT-PCR and Western blot, respectively. Reporter gene assays were used to analyze the transcriptional activity of NF-κB. Treatment of RAW264.7 cells with CVB-D (25-300 μmol/L) did not affect the cell viability. Pretreatment with CVB-D (50, 100 and 200 μmol/L) concentration-dependently decreased NO release and iNOS expression in LPS-treated RAW264.7 cells (its IC50 value in inhibition of NO production was 144 μmol/L). CVB-D also concentration-dependently inhibited the secretion and mRNA expression of IL-1β and IL-6 in LPS-treated RAW264.7 cells. Furthermore, CVB-D remarkably inhibited the phosphorylation of STAT1 and STAT3, as well as JAK2 in LPS-treated RAW264.7 cells, but did not affect the activation of NF-κB and MAPKs pathways. Pretreatment with the JAK2 specific inhibitor AG490 (30 μmol/L) produced similar effects on NO release and iNOS expression in LPS-treated RAW264.7 cells.\n Question: Does cyclovirobuxinum D suppress lipopolysaccharide-induced inflammatory responses in murine macrophages in vitro by blocking JAK-STAT signaling pathway?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: Cyclovirobuxinum D (CVB-D), an alkaloid isolated from the Chinese medicinal plant Buxus microphylla, has been found to be effective to treat cardiac insufficiency, arrhythmias and coronary heart disease. In the present study, we investigated the effects of CVB-D on the inflammatory responses in lipopolysaccharide (LPS)-stimulated murine macrophages in vitro and the underlying mechanisms. Murine macrophage cell line RAW264.7 cells were incubated in the presence of LPS (0.1 μg/mL) for 24 h. The cell viability was measured using MTT assay. The release of NO and cytokines were detected using the Griess test and ELISA, respectively. The mRNA and protein levels were determined using RT-PCR and Western blot, respectively. Reporter gene assays were used to analyze the transcriptional activity of NF-κB. Treatment of RAW264.7 cells with CVB-D (25-300 μmol/L) did not affect the cell viability. Pretreatment with CVB-D (50, 100 and 200 μmol/L) concentration-dependently decreased NO release and iNOS expression in LPS-treated RAW264.7 cells (its IC50 value in inhibition of NO production was 144 μmol/L). CVB-D also concentration-dependently inhibited the secretion and mRNA expression of IL-1β and IL-6 in LPS-treated RAW264.7 cells. Furthermore, CVB-D remarkably inhibited the phosphorylation of STAT1 and STAT3, as well as JAK2 in LPS-treated RAW264.7 cells, but did not affect the activation of NF-κB and MAPKs pathways. Pretreatment with the JAK2 specific inhibitor AG490 (30 μmol/L) produced similar effects on NO release and iNOS expression in LPS-treated RAW264.7 cells.
Question: Does cyclovirobuxinum D suppress lipopolysaccharide-induced inflammatory responses in murine macrophages in vitro by blocking JAK-STAT signaling pathway?
Output:
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PubmedQA57221
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Endometrial remodeling occurs during each menstrual cycle in women and also during the establishment of endometriosis. Both processes involve the production of metalloproteinases (MMPs) by uterine endometrial cells. The objective of this study was to determine whether tissue remodeling and endometrial invasion involve activation of MMPs by extracellular matrix metalloproteinase inducer (EMMPRIN). EMMPRIN expression was examined by immunohistochemistry and real-time PCR in ectopic and eutopic endometria. For functional assays, human uterine fibroblasts were treated in the absence or presence of IL-1beta (10 ng/ml) or purified native EMMPRIN (0.5 or 1 microg/ml) for 24 h. Cellular RNA and conditioned medium were assayed by real-time PCR or immunoblotting. EMMPRIN protein localized to epithelial and fibroblast cells of eutopic and ectopic endometria. The pattern of localization was regulated by ovarian hormones. EMMPRIN mRNA levels varied throughout the menstrual cycle in parallel with the cyclic changes in estradiol. EMMPRIN treatment (0.5 microg/ml) of human uterine fibroblast cells stimulated MMP-1 (5.23-fold) and MMP-2 (8.55-fold), but not MMP-3, mRNA levels over levels in control cells (P < 0.05). EMMPRIN treatment (1 microg/ml) stimulated endogenous EMMPRIN (1.6-fold) mRNA levels (P > 0.05). IL-1beta stimulated MMP-1 (5.6-fold), MMP-2 (2.8-fold), and MMP-3 (75-fold) gene expression, but not EMMPRIN, over levels in control cells (P < 0.05). Both EMMPRIN and IL-1beta treatments stimulated MMP-1, -2, and -3, but not EMMPRIN protein secretion, with 0.5 microg/ml producing the greatest response.\n Question: Does extracellular matrix metalloproteinase inducer regulate metalloproteinases in human uterine endometrium?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: Endometrial remodeling occurs during each menstrual cycle in women and also during the establishment of endometriosis. Both processes involve the production of metalloproteinases (MMPs) by uterine endometrial cells. The objective of this study was to determine whether tissue remodeling and endometrial invasion involve activation of MMPs by extracellular matrix metalloproteinase inducer (EMMPRIN). EMMPRIN expression was examined by immunohistochemistry and real-time PCR in ectopic and eutopic endometria. For functional assays, human uterine fibroblasts were treated in the absence or presence of IL-1beta (10 ng/ml) or purified native EMMPRIN (0.5 or 1 microg/ml) for 24 h. Cellular RNA and conditioned medium were assayed by real-time PCR or immunoblotting. EMMPRIN protein localized to epithelial and fibroblast cells of eutopic and ectopic endometria. The pattern of localization was regulated by ovarian hormones. EMMPRIN mRNA levels varied throughout the menstrual cycle in parallel with the cyclic changes in estradiol. EMMPRIN treatment (0.5 microg/ml) of human uterine fibroblast cells stimulated MMP-1 (5.23-fold) and MMP-2 (8.55-fold), but not MMP-3, mRNA levels over levels in control cells (P < 0.05). EMMPRIN treatment (1 microg/ml) stimulated endogenous EMMPRIN (1.6-fold) mRNA levels (P > 0.05). IL-1beta stimulated MMP-1 (5.6-fold), MMP-2 (2.8-fold), and MMP-3 (75-fold) gene expression, but not EMMPRIN, over levels in control cells (P < 0.05). Both EMMPRIN and IL-1beta treatments stimulated MMP-1, -2, and -3, but not EMMPRIN protein secretion, with 0.5 microg/ml producing the greatest response.
Question: Does extracellular matrix metalloproteinase inducer regulate metalloproteinases in human uterine endometrium?
Output:
|
PubmedQA22469
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Movement of pick-up type impression copings inside the impression material during clinical and laboratory phases may cause inaccuracy in transferring the spatial position of implants from the oral cavity to the master cast. As a consequence, the laboratory technician may fabricate a restoration that requires corrective procedures. This in vitro study evaluated the accuracy of 3 different impression techniques using polyether impression material to obtain a master cast for the fabrication of a prosthesis that would fit passively on multiple implants. A machined metal model with 6 implants and abutments and a corresponding, passively fitting, matching metal template were fabricated. A total of 45 medium-consistency polyether impressions (Impregum Penta) of this model were made with pick-up type square impression copings. Three groups of 15 each were made with different impression techniques: in group 1, nonmodified square impression copings were used; in group 2, square impression copings were used and joined together with autopolymerizing acrylic resin before the impression procedure; and in group 3, square impression copings previously airborne particle-abraded and coated with the manufacturer-recommended impression adhesive were used. The matching metal template, which had been passively fit to the metal model so that it encountered no visually perceptible resistance or rocking on the abutments, was used as the control for evaluation of the accuracy of passive fit. A single calibrated and blinded examiner visually evaluated each cast. Positional accuracy of the abutments was numerically assessed with an optical scanner at original magnification x 10, which provided measurements to within 2 microm of the variations of the casts with respect to the horizontal distances between the 2 most posterior abutments and the 2 most anterior abutments. Data were analyzed with a 1-way analysis of variance at alpha=.05, followed by the Student Newman-Keuls method (P=.05). Visual examination of the casts from group 1 revealed discrepancies between 1 or more abutments and the metal template. Visual analysis of the master casts from groups 2 and 3 revealed close alignment of the metal template on all 6 abutments. One-way analysis of variance analyzed the numerical data obtained with the optical scanner and revealed significant differences among the 3 impression techniques (P<.001). The Newman-Keuls procedure disclosed significant differences between the groups, with group 2 and 3 casts being significantly more accurate than group 1 casts (P=.05). The distance between abutments 1 and 6 compared to the standard metal model was 33.83 microm (SD +/- 5.4) greater on group 2 casts, 31.72 microm (SD +/- 4.6) greater on group 3 casts, and 78.16 microm (SD +/- 22.14) greater on group 1 casts. Distances between the most anterior abutments were also greater than those recorded on the metal model. The distance was 31.42 microm (SD +/- 7.6) greater on group 2 casts, 30.34 microm (SD +/- 6.4) greater on group 3 casts, and 67.91 microm (SD +/- 15.34) greater on group 1 casts.\n Question: Do evaluation of the accuracy of three techniques used for multiple implant abutment impressions?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: Movement of pick-up type impression copings inside the impression material during clinical and laboratory phases may cause inaccuracy in transferring the spatial position of implants from the oral cavity to the master cast. As a consequence, the laboratory technician may fabricate a restoration that requires corrective procedures. This in vitro study evaluated the accuracy of 3 different impression techniques using polyether impression material to obtain a master cast for the fabrication of a prosthesis that would fit passively on multiple implants. A machined metal model with 6 implants and abutments and a corresponding, passively fitting, matching metal template were fabricated. A total of 45 medium-consistency polyether impressions (Impregum Penta) of this model were made with pick-up type square impression copings. Three groups of 15 each were made with different impression techniques: in group 1, nonmodified square impression copings were used; in group 2, square impression copings were used and joined together with autopolymerizing acrylic resin before the impression procedure; and in group 3, square impression copings previously airborne particle-abraded and coated with the manufacturer-recommended impression adhesive were used. The matching metal template, which had been passively fit to the metal model so that it encountered no visually perceptible resistance or rocking on the abutments, was used as the control for evaluation of the accuracy of passive fit. A single calibrated and blinded examiner visually evaluated each cast. Positional accuracy of the abutments was numerically assessed with an optical scanner at original magnification x 10, which provided measurements to within 2 microm of the variations of the casts with respect to the horizontal distances between the 2 most posterior abutments and the 2 most anterior abutments. Data were analyzed with a 1-way analysis of variance at alpha=.05, followed by the Student Newman-Keuls method (P=.05). Visual examination of the casts from group 1 revealed discrepancies between 1 or more abutments and the metal template. Visual analysis of the master casts from groups 2 and 3 revealed close alignment of the metal template on all 6 abutments. One-way analysis of variance analyzed the numerical data obtained with the optical scanner and revealed significant differences among the 3 impression techniques (P<.001). The Newman-Keuls procedure disclosed significant differences between the groups, with group 2 and 3 casts being significantly more accurate than group 1 casts (P=.05). The distance between abutments 1 and 6 compared to the standard metal model was 33.83 microm (SD +/- 5.4) greater on group 2 casts, 31.72 microm (SD +/- 4.6) greater on group 3 casts, and 78.16 microm (SD +/- 22.14) greater on group 1 casts. Distances between the most anterior abutments were also greater than those recorded on the metal model. The distance was 31.42 microm (SD +/- 7.6) greater on group 2 casts, 30.34 microm (SD +/- 6.4) greater on group 3 casts, and 67.91 microm (SD +/- 15.34) greater on group 1 casts.
Question: Do evaluation of the accuracy of three techniques used for multiple implant abutment impressions?
Output:
|
PubmedQA159129
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Increases in late Na(+) current (late INa) and activation of Ca(2+)/calmodulin-dependent protein kinase (CaMKII) are associated with atrial arrhythmias. CaMKII also phosphorylates Nav1.5, further increasing late INa. The combination of a CaMKII inhibitor with a late INa inhibitor may be superior to each compound alone to suppress atrial arrhythmias. Therefore, we investigated the effect of a CaMKII inhibitor in combination with a late INa inhibitor on anemone toxin II (ATX-II, a late INa enhancer)-induced atrial arrhythmias. Rat right atrial tissue was isolated and preincubated with either the CaMKII inhibitor autocamtide-2-related inhibitory peptide (AIP), the late INa inhibitor GS458967, or both, and then exposed to ATX-II. ATX-II increased diastolic tension and caused fibrillation of isolated right atrial tissue. AIP (0.3μmol/L) and 0.1μmol/L GS458967 alone inhibited ATX-II-induced arrhythmias by 20±3% (mean±SEM, n=14) and 34±5% (n=13), respectively, whereas the two compounds in combination inhibited arrhythmias by 81±4% (n=10, p<0.05, vs either AIP or GS458967 alone or the calculated sum of individual effects of both compounds). AIP and GS458967 also attenuated the ATX-induced increase of diastolic tension. Consistent with the mechanical and electrical data, 0.3μmol/L AIP and 0.1μmol/L GS458967 each inhibited ATX-II-induced CaMKII phosphorylation by 23±3% and 32±4%, whereas the combination of both compounds inhibited CaMKII phosphorylation completely.\n Question: Do inhibitions of late INa and CaMKII act synergistically to prevent ATX-II-induced atrial fibrillation in isolated rat right atria?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: Increases in late Na(+) current (late INa) and activation of Ca(2+)/calmodulin-dependent protein kinase (CaMKII) are associated with atrial arrhythmias. CaMKII also phosphorylates Nav1.5, further increasing late INa. The combination of a CaMKII inhibitor with a late INa inhibitor may be superior to each compound alone to suppress atrial arrhythmias. Therefore, we investigated the effect of a CaMKII inhibitor in combination with a late INa inhibitor on anemone toxin II (ATX-II, a late INa enhancer)-induced atrial arrhythmias. Rat right atrial tissue was isolated and preincubated with either the CaMKII inhibitor autocamtide-2-related inhibitory peptide (AIP), the late INa inhibitor GS458967, or both, and then exposed to ATX-II. ATX-II increased diastolic tension and caused fibrillation of isolated right atrial tissue. AIP (0.3μmol/L) and 0.1μmol/L GS458967 alone inhibited ATX-II-induced arrhythmias by 20±3% (mean±SEM, n=14) and 34±5% (n=13), respectively, whereas the two compounds in combination inhibited arrhythmias by 81±4% (n=10, p<0.05, vs either AIP or GS458967 alone or the calculated sum of individual effects of both compounds). AIP and GS458967 also attenuated the ATX-induced increase of diastolic tension. Consistent with the mechanical and electrical data, 0.3μmol/L AIP and 0.1μmol/L GS458967 each inhibited ATX-II-induced CaMKII phosphorylation by 23±3% and 32±4%, whereas the combination of both compounds inhibited CaMKII phosphorylation completely.
Question: Do inhibitions of late INa and CaMKII act synergistically to prevent ATX-II-induced atrial fibrillation in isolated rat right atria?
Output:
|
PubmedQA191024
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Axonal loss is thought to contribute to the persistence of visual loss in optic neuritis and multiple sclerosis (MS). The mechanisms of injury are poorly understood. The authors investigated the contribution of mitochondrial oxidative stress and the effects of modulating mitochondrial antioxidant gene expression in the optic nerves of mice induced with experimental allergic encephalomyelitis (EAE), with a focus on long-term neuroprotection. Optic nerves from mice with EAE were probed for reactive oxygen species (ROS) with the use of dichlorofluorescein diacetate (DCFDA), dihydroethidium, and cerium chloride. To modulate mitochondrial oxidative stress, recombinant AAV containing the human SOD2 gene or a ribozyme targeting murine SOD2 was injected into the vitreous. Control eyes received the recombinant virus without a therapeutic gene. Mice were sensitized for EAE and were monitored by serial contrast-enhanced MRI. The effects of SOD2 modulation on the EAE optic nerve were gauged by computerized analysis of optic nerve volume, myelin fiber area, and retinal ganglion cell loss at 1, 3, and 12 months after sensitization for EAE. ROS were detected in the EAE optic nerve as early as 3 days after antigenic sensitization. Colocalization suggested mitochondria as the source of ROS activity in the absence of inflammation. The ribozyme suppressing SOD2 gene expression increased myelin fiber injury by 27%. Increasing SOD2 levels twofold in the optic nerve by virally mediated gene transfer ameliorated myelin fiber injury by 51% and RGC loss fourfold, limiting it to 7% in EAE at 1 year.\n Question: Does suppression of mitochondrial oxidative stress provide long-term neuroprotection in experimental optic neuritis?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: Axonal loss is thought to contribute to the persistence of visual loss in optic neuritis and multiple sclerosis (MS). The mechanisms of injury are poorly understood. The authors investigated the contribution of mitochondrial oxidative stress and the effects of modulating mitochondrial antioxidant gene expression in the optic nerves of mice induced with experimental allergic encephalomyelitis (EAE), with a focus on long-term neuroprotection. Optic nerves from mice with EAE were probed for reactive oxygen species (ROS) with the use of dichlorofluorescein diacetate (DCFDA), dihydroethidium, and cerium chloride. To modulate mitochondrial oxidative stress, recombinant AAV containing the human SOD2 gene or a ribozyme targeting murine SOD2 was injected into the vitreous. Control eyes received the recombinant virus without a therapeutic gene. Mice were sensitized for EAE and were monitored by serial contrast-enhanced MRI. The effects of SOD2 modulation on the EAE optic nerve were gauged by computerized analysis of optic nerve volume, myelin fiber area, and retinal ganglion cell loss at 1, 3, and 12 months after sensitization for EAE. ROS were detected in the EAE optic nerve as early as 3 days after antigenic sensitization. Colocalization suggested mitochondria as the source of ROS activity in the absence of inflammation. The ribozyme suppressing SOD2 gene expression increased myelin fiber injury by 27%. Increasing SOD2 levels twofold in the optic nerve by virally mediated gene transfer ameliorated myelin fiber injury by 51% and RGC loss fourfold, limiting it to 7% in EAE at 1 year.
Question: Does suppression of mitochondrial oxidative stress provide long-term neuroprotection in experimental optic neuritis?
Output:
|
PubmedQA92764
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: To determine the long-term effect of maternal nicotine intake on the lung development of the offspring in adult life, we analyzed the alveolar structure, protein expression in the adult rat offspring lungs. We determined animal body weight (BW), lung weight (LW), lung/body weight ratio (L/BWR), lung volume (LV), radial alveolar count (RAC), alveolar septal thickness (AST) and expression of collagen, AT1R, AT2R, TGF-β1, pSmad3, Smad3 and CTGF proteins. Male offspring lung showed decreased RAC, thickened alveolar septa, increased collagen, AT1R, TGF-β1, pSmad3 and CTGF proteins. In contrast, female offspring lungs had reduced L/BWR, increased LV, and expression of AT2R, resulting in decreased AT1R to AT2R ratio.\n Question: Does developmental nicotine exposure result in programming of alveolar simplification and interstitial pulmonary fibrosis in adult male rats?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: To determine the long-term effect of maternal nicotine intake on the lung development of the offspring in adult life, we analyzed the alveolar structure, protein expression in the adult rat offspring lungs. We determined animal body weight (BW), lung weight (LW), lung/body weight ratio (L/BWR), lung volume (LV), radial alveolar count (RAC), alveolar septal thickness (AST) and expression of collagen, AT1R, AT2R, TGF-β1, pSmad3, Smad3 and CTGF proteins. Male offspring lung showed decreased RAC, thickened alveolar septa, increased collagen, AT1R, TGF-β1, pSmad3 and CTGF proteins. In contrast, female offspring lungs had reduced L/BWR, increased LV, and expression of AT2R, resulting in decreased AT1R to AT2R ratio.
Question: Does developmental nicotine exposure result in programming of alveolar simplification and interstitial pulmonary fibrosis in adult male rats?
Output:
|
PubmedQA36378
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Bromelain, a mixture of proteolytic enzymes typically derived from pineapple stem, decreases production of proinflammatory cytokines and leukocyte homing to sites of inflammation. We previously showed that short-term oral treatment with bromelain purified from pineapple stem decreased the severity of colonic inflammation in C57BL/6 Il10(-/-) mice with chronic colitis. Since fresh pineapple fruit contains similar bromelain enzymes but at different proportions, this study aimed to determine whether long-term dietary supplementation with pineapple (supplied as juice) could decrease colon inflammation and neoplasia in Il10(-/-) mice with chronic colitis as compared with bromelain derived from stem. Colitis was triggered in Il10(-/-) mice by exposure to the non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug piroxicam. Mice with colitis were supplemented with fresh vs. boiled pineapple juice or bromelain purified from stem for up to 6 months. Experimental mice readily consumed fresh pineapple juice at a level that generated mean stool proteolytic activities equivalent to 14 mg bromelain purified from stem, while control mice received boiled juice with inactive enzymes. Survival was increased in the group supplemented with fresh rather than boiled juice (P = 0.01). Mice that received fresh juice also had decreased histologic colon inflammation scores and a lower incidence of inflammation-associated colonic neoplasia (35% versus 66%; P < 0.02), with fewer neoplastic lesions/colon (P = 0.05). Flow cytometric analysis of murine splenocytes exposed to fresh pineapple juice in vitro demonstrated proteolytic removal of cell surface molecules that can affect leukocyte trafficking and activation.\n Question: Does dietary supplementation with fresh pineapple juice decrease inflammation and colonic neoplasia in IL-10-deficient mice with colitis?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: Bromelain, a mixture of proteolytic enzymes typically derived from pineapple stem, decreases production of proinflammatory cytokines and leukocyte homing to sites of inflammation. We previously showed that short-term oral treatment with bromelain purified from pineapple stem decreased the severity of colonic inflammation in C57BL/6 Il10(-/-) mice with chronic colitis. Since fresh pineapple fruit contains similar bromelain enzymes but at different proportions, this study aimed to determine whether long-term dietary supplementation with pineapple (supplied as juice) could decrease colon inflammation and neoplasia in Il10(-/-) mice with chronic colitis as compared with bromelain derived from stem. Colitis was triggered in Il10(-/-) mice by exposure to the non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug piroxicam. Mice with colitis were supplemented with fresh vs. boiled pineapple juice or bromelain purified from stem for up to 6 months. Experimental mice readily consumed fresh pineapple juice at a level that generated mean stool proteolytic activities equivalent to 14 mg bromelain purified from stem, while control mice received boiled juice with inactive enzymes. Survival was increased in the group supplemented with fresh rather than boiled juice (P = 0.01). Mice that received fresh juice also had decreased histologic colon inflammation scores and a lower incidence of inflammation-associated colonic neoplasia (35% versus 66%; P < 0.02), with fewer neoplastic lesions/colon (P = 0.05). Flow cytometric analysis of murine splenocytes exposed to fresh pineapple juice in vitro demonstrated proteolytic removal of cell surface molecules that can affect leukocyte trafficking and activation.
Question: Does dietary supplementation with fresh pineapple juice decrease inflammation and colonic neoplasia in IL-10-deficient mice with colitis?
Output:
|
PubmedQA125658
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: No studies have evaluated the relationship between duration of time sitting and spinal needle type on the maximal spread of local anaesthetics. The few trials available have studied the influence of time spent sitting on the spread of anaesthesia without standardising spinal needle types, and have not found any effect. In this randomised, blinded study, 60 patients scheduled for elective orthopaedic surgery of the lower limbs were divided into 4 groups. With the patient sitting erect, 15 mg hyperbaric bupivacaine were injected in a standard manner through a 24G Sprotte or a 27G Whitacre needle and patients were placed supine after 1 min (24G/1 group and 27G/1 group) or 4 min (24G/4 group and 27G/4 group). Time to achieve maximum block height after injection was similar in all groups. Block height levels were significantly lower at all time points for the 24G/4 group. Maximum block heights were Th4 in the 24G/1, 27G/1 and 27G/4 groups, and Th6 in the 24G/4 group (P<0.0001).\n Question: Is posture-related distribution of hyperbaric bupivacaine in cerebro-spinal fluid influenced by spinal needle characteristics?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: No studies have evaluated the relationship between duration of time sitting and spinal needle type on the maximal spread of local anaesthetics. The few trials available have studied the influence of time spent sitting on the spread of anaesthesia without standardising spinal needle types, and have not found any effect. In this randomised, blinded study, 60 patients scheduled for elective orthopaedic surgery of the lower limbs were divided into 4 groups. With the patient sitting erect, 15 mg hyperbaric bupivacaine were injected in a standard manner through a 24G Sprotte or a 27G Whitacre needle and patients were placed supine after 1 min (24G/1 group and 27G/1 group) or 4 min (24G/4 group and 27G/4 group). Time to achieve maximum block height after injection was similar in all groups. Block height levels were significantly lower at all time points for the 24G/4 group. Maximum block heights were Th4 in the 24G/1, 27G/1 and 27G/4 groups, and Th6 in the 24G/4 group (P<0.0001).
Question: Is posture-related distribution of hyperbaric bupivacaine in cerebro-spinal fluid influenced by spinal needle characteristics?
Output:
|
PubmedQA148223
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: To determine if high frequency jet ventilation (HFJV) influences the secretion of alpha-atrial natriuretic peptide (alpha- ANP). Sixteen patients undergoing otolaryngeal surgery were studied. Nine patients were subjected to intermittent positive pressure ventilation (IPPV), and seven patients underwent HFJV. Blood samples were drawn for the measurement of plasma alpha-ANP levels and blood gases before anesthesia, and at 30-min after starting either type of ventilation. The study was started at 2:00 p.m., and was completed before surgery. The plasma concentration of alpha-ANP was assayed by radioimmunoassay. There were no significant differences in mean arterial pressure, heart rate, oxygenation index and PaCO(2) between the two groups. IPPV was not associated with any changes in plasma -ANP levels, whereas HFJV was associated with significantly increased plasma alpha-ANP levels (from 60.0 +/- 5.7 pg x mL(-1) before anesthesia to 112.0 +/- 11.6 pg x mL(-1) after ventilation, P < 0.01). The urine output of the HFJV patients was significantly greater than that of the IPPV patients (P < 0.05).\n Question: Is high frequency jet ventilation associated with increased levels of plasma alpha-atrial natriuretic peptide -- a preliminary study?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: To determine if high frequency jet ventilation (HFJV) influences the secretion of alpha-atrial natriuretic peptide (alpha- ANP). Sixteen patients undergoing otolaryngeal surgery were studied. Nine patients were subjected to intermittent positive pressure ventilation (IPPV), and seven patients underwent HFJV. Blood samples were drawn for the measurement of plasma alpha-ANP levels and blood gases before anesthesia, and at 30-min after starting either type of ventilation. The study was started at 2:00 p.m., and was completed before surgery. The plasma concentration of alpha-ANP was assayed by radioimmunoassay. There were no significant differences in mean arterial pressure, heart rate, oxygenation index and PaCO(2) between the two groups. IPPV was not associated with any changes in plasma -ANP levels, whereas HFJV was associated with significantly increased plasma alpha-ANP levels (from 60.0 +/- 5.7 pg x mL(-1) before anesthesia to 112.0 +/- 11.6 pg x mL(-1) after ventilation, P < 0.01). The urine output of the HFJV patients was significantly greater than that of the IPPV patients (P < 0.05).
Question: Is high frequency jet ventilation associated with increased levels of plasma alpha-atrial natriuretic peptide -- a preliminary study?
Output:
|
PubmedQA147317
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Canonical Wnt signalling has recently emerged as a key mediator of fibroblast activation and tissue fibrosis in systemic sclerosis. Here, we investigated tankyrases as novel molecular targets for inhibition of canonical Wnt signalling in fibrotic diseases. The antifibrotic effects of the tankyrase inhibitor XAV-939 or of siRNA-mediated knockdown of tankyrases were evaluated in the mouse models of bleomycin-induced dermal fibrosis and in experimental fibrosis induced by adenoviral overexpression of a constitutively active TGF-β receptor I (Ad-TBRI). Inactivation of tankyrases prevented the activation of canonical Wnt signalling in experimental fibrosis and reduced the nuclear accumulation of β-catenin and the mRNA levels of the target gene c-myc. Treatment with XAV-939 or siRNA-mediated knockdown of tankyrases in the skin effectively reduced bleomycin-induced dermal thickening, differentiation of resting fibroblasts into myofibroblasts and accumulation of collagen. Potent antifibrotic effects were also observed in Ad-TBRI driven skin fibrosis. Inhibition of tankyrases was not limited by local or systemic toxicity.\n Question: Does inactivation of tankyrases reduce experimental fibrosis by inhibiting canonical Wnt signalling?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: Canonical Wnt signalling has recently emerged as a key mediator of fibroblast activation and tissue fibrosis in systemic sclerosis. Here, we investigated tankyrases as novel molecular targets for inhibition of canonical Wnt signalling in fibrotic diseases. The antifibrotic effects of the tankyrase inhibitor XAV-939 or of siRNA-mediated knockdown of tankyrases were evaluated in the mouse models of bleomycin-induced dermal fibrosis and in experimental fibrosis induced by adenoviral overexpression of a constitutively active TGF-β receptor I (Ad-TBRI). Inactivation of tankyrases prevented the activation of canonical Wnt signalling in experimental fibrosis and reduced the nuclear accumulation of β-catenin and the mRNA levels of the target gene c-myc. Treatment with XAV-939 or siRNA-mediated knockdown of tankyrases in the skin effectively reduced bleomycin-induced dermal thickening, differentiation of resting fibroblasts into myofibroblasts and accumulation of collagen. Potent antifibrotic effects were also observed in Ad-TBRI driven skin fibrosis. Inhibition of tankyrases was not limited by local or systemic toxicity.
Question: Does inactivation of tankyrases reduce experimental fibrosis by inhibiting canonical Wnt signalling?
Output:
|
PubmedQA34309
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Dendritic cell (DC)-based vaccination has been investigated as immunotherapy for several types of cancer. A potential drawback to vaccination with autologous monocyte-derived DCs (MoDCs) could be that MoDCs from patients are functionally impaired. In case of androgen-independent prostate cancer (CaP), the cancer itself, diverse prior therapies, and the hormone manipulation may affect the immune system. MoDCs from patients suffering from androgen-independent CaP were generated according to a clinically applicable protocol to evaluate the phenotype, maturation capacity, migration, and T-cell stimulation of these cells compared with those generated from tumor-free donors. MoDCs generated from CaP patients could be fully matured and efficiently migrated towards the chemokine CCL21. They had a strong potency to activate allogeneic CD4+ and CD8+ T-cells and to present antigens to specific CTL.\n Question: Are dendritic cells generated from patients with androgen-independent prostate cancer impaired in migration and T-cell stimulation?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "no"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: Dendritic cell (DC)-based vaccination has been investigated as immunotherapy for several types of cancer. A potential drawback to vaccination with autologous monocyte-derived DCs (MoDCs) could be that MoDCs from patients are functionally impaired. In case of androgen-independent prostate cancer (CaP), the cancer itself, diverse prior therapies, and the hormone manipulation may affect the immune system. MoDCs from patients suffering from androgen-independent CaP were generated according to a clinically applicable protocol to evaluate the phenotype, maturation capacity, migration, and T-cell stimulation of these cells compared with those generated from tumor-free donors. MoDCs generated from CaP patients could be fully matured and efficiently migrated towards the chemokine CCL21. They had a strong potency to activate allogeneic CD4+ and CD8+ T-cells and to present antigens to specific CTL.
Question: Are dendritic cells generated from patients with androgen-independent prostate cancer impaired in migration and T-cell stimulation?
Output:
|
PubmedQA42329
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: To estimate the cost-effectiveness of an adjuvant treatment course of spa treatment compared with usual care only in patients with fibromyalgia syndrome (FM). 134 patients with FM, selected from a rheumatology outpatient department and from members of the Dutch FM patient association were randomly assigned to a 2(1/2) week spa treatment course in Tunisia or to usual care only. Results are expressed as quality-adjusted life years (QALYs) for a 6-month as well as a 12-month time horizon. Utilities were derived form the Short Form 6D (SF-6D) scores and the visual analogue scale (VAS) rating general health. Costs were reported from societal perspective. Mean incremental cost per patient and the incremental cost utility ratio (ICER) were calculated; 95% confidence intervals (CIs) were estimated using double-sided bootstrapping. The data of 128 (55 spa and 73 controls) of the 134 patients (96%) could be used for analysis. Improvement in general health was found in the spa group until 6 months of follow-up by both the SF-6D (AUC 0.32 vs 0.30, P < 0.05) and the VAS (AUC 0.23 vs 0.19, P < 0.01). After 1yr no significant between-group differences were found. Mean incremental cost of spa treatment was 1311 Euro per patient (95% CI 369-2439), equalling the cost of the intervention (thalassotherapy including airfare and lodging), or 885 Euro per patient based on a more realistic cost estimate.\n Question: Is cost-effectiveness of Spa treatment for fibromyalgia : general health improvement for free?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "no"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: To estimate the cost-effectiveness of an adjuvant treatment course of spa treatment compared with usual care only in patients with fibromyalgia syndrome (FM). 134 patients with FM, selected from a rheumatology outpatient department and from members of the Dutch FM patient association were randomly assigned to a 2(1/2) week spa treatment course in Tunisia or to usual care only. Results are expressed as quality-adjusted life years (QALYs) for a 6-month as well as a 12-month time horizon. Utilities were derived form the Short Form 6D (SF-6D) scores and the visual analogue scale (VAS) rating general health. Costs were reported from societal perspective. Mean incremental cost per patient and the incremental cost utility ratio (ICER) were calculated; 95% confidence intervals (CIs) were estimated using double-sided bootstrapping. The data of 128 (55 spa and 73 controls) of the 134 patients (96%) could be used for analysis. Improvement in general health was found in the spa group until 6 months of follow-up by both the SF-6D (AUC 0.32 vs 0.30, P < 0.05) and the VAS (AUC 0.23 vs 0.19, P < 0.01). After 1yr no significant between-group differences were found. Mean incremental cost of spa treatment was 1311 Euro per patient (95% CI 369-2439), equalling the cost of the intervention (thalassotherapy including airfare and lodging), or 885 Euro per patient based on a more realistic cost estimate.
Question: Is cost-effectiveness of Spa treatment for fibromyalgia : general health improvement for free?
Output:
|
PubmedQA107915
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: 4-Methylumbelliferone (4-MU), a hyaluronan (HA) synthesis inhibitor, has antitumor activity in cancer cells. However, few studies have focused on its effects on ovarian cancer. The aim of this study was to investigate the effects of 4-MU on ovarian cancer and to elucidate its mechanism of action. The HRA human ovarian serous adenocarcinoma cell line was used in this study. The effects of 4-MU on cell proliferation, migration, and invasion were determined by using in vitro assays as well as an in vivo rat peritoneal carcinomatosis model. The expression of HA synthase (HAS), CD44 HA receptor, vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF), and thymidine phosphorylase (TP) mRNA in HRA cells was analyzed by quantitative reverse transcriptase-polymerase chain reaction (qRT-PCR). 4-MU administration inhibited the growth of peritoneal tumors and significantly prolonged survival. In vitro experiments showed that 4-MU inhibited HRA cell proliferation in a dose-dependent manner, while it did not affect HRA cell invasion and migration. 4-MU significantly decreased TP mRNA expression in HRA cells. On the other hand, since HAS2, CD44, and VEGF endogenous mRNA expression levels were very low in HRA cells, it was impossible to evaluate the effect of 4-MU treatment.\n Question: Does 4-Methylumbelliferone inhibit ovarian cancer growth by suppressing thymidine phosphorylase expression?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: 4-Methylumbelliferone (4-MU), a hyaluronan (HA) synthesis inhibitor, has antitumor activity in cancer cells. However, few studies have focused on its effects on ovarian cancer. The aim of this study was to investigate the effects of 4-MU on ovarian cancer and to elucidate its mechanism of action. The HRA human ovarian serous adenocarcinoma cell line was used in this study. The effects of 4-MU on cell proliferation, migration, and invasion were determined by using in vitro assays as well as an in vivo rat peritoneal carcinomatosis model. The expression of HA synthase (HAS), CD44 HA receptor, vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF), and thymidine phosphorylase (TP) mRNA in HRA cells was analyzed by quantitative reverse transcriptase-polymerase chain reaction (qRT-PCR). 4-MU administration inhibited the growth of peritoneal tumors and significantly prolonged survival. In vitro experiments showed that 4-MU inhibited HRA cell proliferation in a dose-dependent manner, while it did not affect HRA cell invasion and migration. 4-MU significantly decreased TP mRNA expression in HRA cells. On the other hand, since HAS2, CD44, and VEGF endogenous mRNA expression levels were very low in HRA cells, it was impossible to evaluate the effect of 4-MU treatment.
Question: Does 4-Methylumbelliferone inhibit ovarian cancer growth by suppressing thymidine phosphorylase expression?
Output:
|
PubmedQA135550
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: To study matrix metalloproteinases (MMP) and tissue inhibitors of metalloproteinases (TIMP) in the corneas from mice with ulcerative herpes stromal keratitis (HSK) treated with amniotic membrane transplantation (AMT). The corneas from BALB/c mice were infected with HSV-1. Mice with ulcerative HSK on postinfection (PI) day 14 were used for the experiments. In one group of mice, the corneas were treated with transplantation of amniotic membrane (AMT) that was secured with a tarsorrhaphy, and a control group underwent tarsorrhaphy alone. After 2 days, the appearance of corneal ulcers and stromal inflammation was judged clinically. Corneal sections were studied by immunohistochemistry for the expression of MMP-2, -8, and -9 and TIMP-1 and -2. MMP activity in the corneas was investigated by zymography, and the expression of the enzymes was measured by the Western blot technique. At day 14 PI, the ulcers stained intensely positive for MMP-2, -8, and -9 and TIMP-1 and -2. Ulceration (P < 0.001), stromal inflammation (P < 0.01) and inflammatory cell infiltration (P < 0.001) markedly improved by day 2 after AMT. This was associated with reduced expression (P < 0.01) and activity of MMP-8, and -9 and increased localization of TIMP-1 (P < 0.01), whereas TIMP-2 was not affected. In contrast, high levels of expression of MMP-8 and -9 remained in the cornea after tarsorrhaphy, and the TIMP-1 expression was only slightly upregulated.\n Question: Does transplantation of amniotic membrane in murine herpes stromal keratitis modulate matrix metalloproteinases in the cornea?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: To study matrix metalloproteinases (MMP) and tissue inhibitors of metalloproteinases (TIMP) in the corneas from mice with ulcerative herpes stromal keratitis (HSK) treated with amniotic membrane transplantation (AMT). The corneas from BALB/c mice were infected with HSV-1. Mice with ulcerative HSK on postinfection (PI) day 14 were used for the experiments. In one group of mice, the corneas were treated with transplantation of amniotic membrane (AMT) that was secured with a tarsorrhaphy, and a control group underwent tarsorrhaphy alone. After 2 days, the appearance of corneal ulcers and stromal inflammation was judged clinically. Corneal sections were studied by immunohistochemistry for the expression of MMP-2, -8, and -9 and TIMP-1 and -2. MMP activity in the corneas was investigated by zymography, and the expression of the enzymes was measured by the Western blot technique. At day 14 PI, the ulcers stained intensely positive for MMP-2, -8, and -9 and TIMP-1 and -2. Ulceration (P < 0.001), stromal inflammation (P < 0.01) and inflammatory cell infiltration (P < 0.001) markedly improved by day 2 after AMT. This was associated with reduced expression (P < 0.01) and activity of MMP-8, and -9 and increased localization of TIMP-1 (P < 0.01), whereas TIMP-2 was not affected. In contrast, high levels of expression of MMP-8 and -9 remained in the cornea after tarsorrhaphy, and the TIMP-1 expression was only slightly upregulated.
Question: Does transplantation of amniotic membrane in murine herpes stromal keratitis modulate matrix metalloproteinases in the cornea?
Output:
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PubmedQA46802
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Diagnosis of primary HIV infection (PHI) has important clinical and public health implications. HAART initiation at this stage remains controversial. Our objective was to identify predictors of disease progression among Argentinean seroconverters during the first year of infection, within a multicentre registry of PHI-patients diagnosed between 1997 and 2008. Cox regression was used to analyze predictors of progression (LT-CD4 < 350 cells/mm3, B, C events or death) at 12 months among untreated patients. Among 134 subjects, 74% presented with acute retroviral syndrome (ARS). Seven opportunistic infections (one death), nine B events, and 10 non-AIDS defining serious events were observed. Among the 92 untreated patients, 24 (26%) progressed at 12 months versus three (7%) in the treated group (p = 0.01). The 12-month progression rate among untreated patients with ARS was 34% (95% CI 22.5-46.3) versus 13% (95% CI 1.1-24.7) in asymptomatic patients (p = 0.04). In univariate analysis, ARS, baseline LT-CD4 < 350 cells/mm3, and baseline and six-month viral load (VL) > 100,000 copies/mL were associated with progression. In multivariate analysis, only ARS and baseline VL > 100,000 copies/mL remained independently associated; HR: 8.44 (95% CI 0.97-73.42) and 9.44 (95% CI 1.38-64.68), respectively.\n Question: Are acute retroviral syndrome and high baseline viral load predictors of rapid HIV progression among untreated Argentinean seroconverters?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: Diagnosis of primary HIV infection (PHI) has important clinical and public health implications. HAART initiation at this stage remains controversial. Our objective was to identify predictors of disease progression among Argentinean seroconverters during the first year of infection, within a multicentre registry of PHI-patients diagnosed between 1997 and 2008. Cox regression was used to analyze predictors of progression (LT-CD4 < 350 cells/mm3, B, C events or death) at 12 months among untreated patients. Among 134 subjects, 74% presented with acute retroviral syndrome (ARS). Seven opportunistic infections (one death), nine B events, and 10 non-AIDS defining serious events were observed. Among the 92 untreated patients, 24 (26%) progressed at 12 months versus three (7%) in the treated group (p = 0.01). The 12-month progression rate among untreated patients with ARS was 34% (95% CI 22.5-46.3) versus 13% (95% CI 1.1-24.7) in asymptomatic patients (p = 0.04). In univariate analysis, ARS, baseline LT-CD4 < 350 cells/mm3, and baseline and six-month viral load (VL) > 100,000 copies/mL were associated with progression. In multivariate analysis, only ARS and baseline VL > 100,000 copies/mL remained independently associated; HR: 8.44 (95% CI 0.97-73.42) and 9.44 (95% CI 1.38-64.68), respectively.
Question: Are acute retroviral syndrome and high baseline viral load predictors of rapid HIV progression among untreated Argentinean seroconverters?
Output:
|
PubmedQA153957
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Coagulopathy has a high prevalence in critically ill patients. An increased International Normalized Ratio (INR) is a common trigger to transfuse fresh frozen plasma (FFP), even in the absence of bleeding. Therefore, FFP is frequently administered to these patients. However, the efficacy of FFP in correcting hemostatic disorders in non-bleeding recipients has been questioned. To assess whether INR prolongation parallels changes in the results of other tests investigating hemostasis, and to evaluate the coagulant effects of a fixed dose of FFP in non-bleeding critically ill patients with a coagulopathy. Markers of coagulation, individual factor levels and levels of natural anticoagulants were measured. Also, thrombin generation and thromboelastometry (ROTEM) assays were performed before and after FFP transfusion (12 mL kg(-1) ) to 38 non-bleeding critically ill patients with an increased INR (1.5-3.0). At baseline, levels of factor II, FV, FVII, protein C, protein S and antithrombin were reduced, and thrombin generation was impaired. ROTEM variables were within reference ranges, except for a prolonged INTEM clot formation time. FFP transfusion increased the levels of coagulation factors (FII, 34% [interquartile range (IQR) 26-46] before vs. 44% [IQR 38-52] after; FV, 48% [IQR 28-76] before vs. 58% [IQR 44-90] after; and FVII, 25% [IQR 16-38] before vs. 37% [IQR 28-55] after), and the levels of anticoagulant proteins. Thrombin generation was unaffected by FFP transfusion (endogenous thrombin potential, 72% [IQR 51-88] before vs. 71% [IQR 42-89] after), whereas ROTEM EXTEM clotting time and maximum clot firmness slightly improved in response to FFP.\n Question: Does fresh frozen plasma transfusion fail to influence the hemostatic balance in critically ill patients with a coagulopathy?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: Coagulopathy has a high prevalence in critically ill patients. An increased International Normalized Ratio (INR) is a common trigger to transfuse fresh frozen plasma (FFP), even in the absence of bleeding. Therefore, FFP is frequently administered to these patients. However, the efficacy of FFP in correcting hemostatic disorders in non-bleeding recipients has been questioned. To assess whether INR prolongation parallels changes in the results of other tests investigating hemostasis, and to evaluate the coagulant effects of a fixed dose of FFP in non-bleeding critically ill patients with a coagulopathy. Markers of coagulation, individual factor levels and levels of natural anticoagulants were measured. Also, thrombin generation and thromboelastometry (ROTEM) assays were performed before and after FFP transfusion (12 mL kg(-1) ) to 38 non-bleeding critically ill patients with an increased INR (1.5-3.0). At baseline, levels of factor II, FV, FVII, protein C, protein S and antithrombin were reduced, and thrombin generation was impaired. ROTEM variables were within reference ranges, except for a prolonged INTEM clot formation time. FFP transfusion increased the levels of coagulation factors (FII, 34% [interquartile range (IQR) 26-46] before vs. 44% [IQR 38-52] after; FV, 48% [IQR 28-76] before vs. 58% [IQR 44-90] after; and FVII, 25% [IQR 16-38] before vs. 37% [IQR 28-55] after), and the levels of anticoagulant proteins. Thrombin generation was unaffected by FFP transfusion (endogenous thrombin potential, 72% [IQR 51-88] before vs. 71% [IQR 42-89] after), whereas ROTEM EXTEM clotting time and maximum clot firmness slightly improved in response to FFP.
Question: Does fresh frozen plasma transfusion fail to influence the hemostatic balance in critically ill patients with a coagulopathy?
Output:
|
PubmedQA119524
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: To investigate the relationship between chronic alcohol administration and purine nucleotide metabolism in vivo. Rat models of alcohol dependence and withdrawal were used. The concentrations of uric acid (UAC), urea nitrogen (UREA), creatinine (CREA), and beta-2-microglobulin (β2-M) and creatinine clearance rate (CCR) in plasma were measured. The PLC method was used to detect the absolute content of purine nucleotides in different tissues. Enzymatic activities of adenosine deaminase (ADA), xanthine oxidase (XO), ribose 5-phosphate pyrophosphokinase (RPPPK), glutamine phosphoribosylpyrophosphate amidotransferase (GPRPPAT), hypoxanthine-guanine phosphate ribose transferase (HGPRT), and adenine phosphoribosyltransferase (APRT) in the tissues were analyzed. Real-time PCR was used to determine the relative level of ADA and XO. The renal function of rats with alcohol dependence was normal. Further, the content of purine nucleotides (GMP, AMP, GTP, and ATP) in tissues of the rats was decreased, which indicated that the increased uric acid should be derived from the decomposition of nucleotides in vivo. The activity of XO and ADA increased, and their mRNA expression was enhanced in the alcohol dependence group, but there was no significant difference in the activity of RPPPK and GPRPPAT in the liver, small intestine, and muscle; furthermore, no significant difference in the activity of HGPRT and APRT was observed in the brain.\n Question: Does chronic alcohol administration affect purine nucleotide catabolism in vivo?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: To investigate the relationship between chronic alcohol administration and purine nucleotide metabolism in vivo. Rat models of alcohol dependence and withdrawal were used. The concentrations of uric acid (UAC), urea nitrogen (UREA), creatinine (CREA), and beta-2-microglobulin (β2-M) and creatinine clearance rate (CCR) in plasma were measured. The PLC method was used to detect the absolute content of purine nucleotides in different tissues. Enzymatic activities of adenosine deaminase (ADA), xanthine oxidase (XO), ribose 5-phosphate pyrophosphokinase (RPPPK), glutamine phosphoribosylpyrophosphate amidotransferase (GPRPPAT), hypoxanthine-guanine phosphate ribose transferase (HGPRT), and adenine phosphoribosyltransferase (APRT) in the tissues were analyzed. Real-time PCR was used to determine the relative level of ADA and XO. The renal function of rats with alcohol dependence was normal. Further, the content of purine nucleotides (GMP, AMP, GTP, and ATP) in tissues of the rats was decreased, which indicated that the increased uric acid should be derived from the decomposition of nucleotides in vivo. The activity of XO and ADA increased, and their mRNA expression was enhanced in the alcohol dependence group, but there was no significant difference in the activity of RPPPK and GPRPPAT in the liver, small intestine, and muscle; furthermore, no significant difference in the activity of HGPRT and APRT was observed in the brain.
Question: Does chronic alcohol administration affect purine nucleotide catabolism in vivo?
Output:
|
PubmedQA156532
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: This study was aimed at examining a separate or combined effect of tamoxifen and tranilast drugs on growth and proliferation of breast cancer cells. Breast cancer is one of the most common cancers and the second leading cause of cancer death among women worldwide. Tamoxifen is the most widely used anti-estrogen for the treatment of breast cancer. Studies show that a combination therapy with other drugs enhances the activity of tamoxifen. Tranilast is an anti-inflammatory drug. We hypothesize that tranilast plus tamoxifen can work synergistically and help getting better result from this anticancer drug. Two breast cancer cell lines, MCF-7 and MDA-MB-231, were treated with graduated concentrations of tamoxifen and tranilast alone or in combination at 24, 48 or 72 hours for MCF-7, and 48 hours for MDA-MB-231 cells. We used the MTT assay and lactate dehydrogenase leakage (LDH) assay to evaluate cell viability and cytotoxicity, respectively. In both ER-positive and ER-negative breast cancer cell lines, the combination of tranilast and tamoxifen was more effective in growth inhibition than single drug exposure.\n Question: Do tamoxifen and tranilast show a synergistic effect against breast cancer in vitro?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: This study was aimed at examining a separate or combined effect of tamoxifen and tranilast drugs on growth and proliferation of breast cancer cells. Breast cancer is one of the most common cancers and the second leading cause of cancer death among women worldwide. Tamoxifen is the most widely used anti-estrogen for the treatment of breast cancer. Studies show that a combination therapy with other drugs enhances the activity of tamoxifen. Tranilast is an anti-inflammatory drug. We hypothesize that tranilast plus tamoxifen can work synergistically and help getting better result from this anticancer drug. Two breast cancer cell lines, MCF-7 and MDA-MB-231, were treated with graduated concentrations of tamoxifen and tranilast alone or in combination at 24, 48 or 72 hours for MCF-7, and 48 hours for MDA-MB-231 cells. We used the MTT assay and lactate dehydrogenase leakage (LDH) assay to evaluate cell viability and cytotoxicity, respectively. In both ER-positive and ER-negative breast cancer cell lines, the combination of tranilast and tamoxifen was more effective in growth inhibition than single drug exposure.
Question: Do tamoxifen and tranilast show a synergistic effect against breast cancer in vitro?
Output:
|
PubmedQA92344
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Changes in oxygenation are often used to guide the recruitment procedure during open lung high-frequency ventilation in preterm infants. However, data on the feasibility and safety of this approach in daily clinical practice are limited. To prospectively collect data on ventilator settings, gas exchange, and circulatory parameters before and after surfactant therapy during open lung high-frequency ventilation. In 103 preterm infants with respiratory distress syndrome, the opening, closing, and optimal pressures were determined during high-frequency ventilation by increasing and decreasing stepwise the continuous distending pressure, defining optimal recruitment as adequate oxygenation using a fraction of inspired oxygen not exceeding 0.25. This procedure was repeated after each surfactant treatment. The mean presurfactant opening and optimal continuous distending pressures were, respectively, 20.5 +/- 4.3 and 14.0 +/- 4.0 cm H2O, with a fraction of inspired oxygen of 0.24 +/- 0.04. Surfactant treatment enabled a reduction in the mean optimal pressure of almost 6 cm H2O without compromising oxygenation. Blood pressure and heart rate remained stable and no air leaks were observed during the recruitment procedures. The mortality rate and the incidence of severe intracranial hemorrhage or periventricular leukomalacia and chronic lung disease at 36 wk were comparable to previously reported data.\n Question: Do lung recruitment using oxygenation during open lung high-frequency ventilation in preterm infants?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: Changes in oxygenation are often used to guide the recruitment procedure during open lung high-frequency ventilation in preterm infants. However, data on the feasibility and safety of this approach in daily clinical practice are limited. To prospectively collect data on ventilator settings, gas exchange, and circulatory parameters before and after surfactant therapy during open lung high-frequency ventilation. In 103 preterm infants with respiratory distress syndrome, the opening, closing, and optimal pressures were determined during high-frequency ventilation by increasing and decreasing stepwise the continuous distending pressure, defining optimal recruitment as adequate oxygenation using a fraction of inspired oxygen not exceeding 0.25. This procedure was repeated after each surfactant treatment. The mean presurfactant opening and optimal continuous distending pressures were, respectively, 20.5 +/- 4.3 and 14.0 +/- 4.0 cm H2O, with a fraction of inspired oxygen of 0.24 +/- 0.04. Surfactant treatment enabled a reduction in the mean optimal pressure of almost 6 cm H2O without compromising oxygenation. Blood pressure and heart rate remained stable and no air leaks were observed during the recruitment procedures. The mortality rate and the incidence of severe intracranial hemorrhage or periventricular leukomalacia and chronic lung disease at 36 wk were comparable to previously reported data.
Question: Do lung recruitment using oxygenation during open lung high-frequency ventilation in preterm infants?
Output:
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PubmedQA207343
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: We previously suggested that a non-neuronal cholinergic system modulates energy metabolism through the mitochondria. However, the mechanisms responsible for making this system crucial remained undetermined. In this study, we developed a fusion protein expression vector containing a luciferase gene fused to the folic acid receptor-α gene. This protein of the vector was confirmed to target the plasma membrane of transfected HEK293 cells, and vector-derived luciferase activities and ATP levels in viable cells were positively correlated (r = 0.599). Using this luciferase vector, choline acetyltransferase (ChAT)-expressing cells (i.e., cells with an activated non-neuronal cholinergic system) had increased cellular ATP levels. ChAT-expressing cells also had upregulated IGF-1R and Glut-1 protein expressions as well as increased glucose uptake. This activated non-neuronal cholinergic system with efficient glucose metabolism rendered cells resistant to serum depletion-induced cell death.\n Question: Does a non-neuronal cholinergic system regulate cellular ATP levels to maintain cell viability?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: We previously suggested that a non-neuronal cholinergic system modulates energy metabolism through the mitochondria. However, the mechanisms responsible for making this system crucial remained undetermined. In this study, we developed a fusion protein expression vector containing a luciferase gene fused to the folic acid receptor-α gene. This protein of the vector was confirmed to target the plasma membrane of transfected HEK293 cells, and vector-derived luciferase activities and ATP levels in viable cells were positively correlated (r = 0.599). Using this luciferase vector, choline acetyltransferase (ChAT)-expressing cells (i.e., cells with an activated non-neuronal cholinergic system) had increased cellular ATP levels. ChAT-expressing cells also had upregulated IGF-1R and Glut-1 protein expressions as well as increased glucose uptake. This activated non-neuronal cholinergic system with efficient glucose metabolism rendered cells resistant to serum depletion-induced cell death.
Question: Does a non-neuronal cholinergic system regulate cellular ATP levels to maintain cell viability?
Output:
|
PubmedQA136668
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Hyperlipidemia, overweight, insulin resistance and hypertension are associated with non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. The knowledge about these conditions as etiologic factors in liver cirrhosis is, however, limited. In this study, we examined the relation between overweight and hypertriglyceridemia, and development of liver cirrhosis in a general population. An epidemiological, longitudinal study was conducted involving men at the age of 50 with 40 years of follow-up. Baseline data were collected in 1963 and 1967. Cases of liver cirrhosis were identified by searching the Swedish Hospital Discharge Register and death certificates of the Central Bureau of Statistics. The independent effect of BMI, triglyceride levels and alcohol habits for cirrhosis of the liver was calculated by using multiple logistic regression analysis. Elevated BMI and triglycerides were significant independent risk factors for the development of liver cirrhosis (OR 1.27 and 1.99, respectively, p < 0.01).\n Question: Are overweight and hypertriglyceridemia risk factors for liver cirrhosis in middle-aged Swedish men?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: Hyperlipidemia, overweight, insulin resistance and hypertension are associated with non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. The knowledge about these conditions as etiologic factors in liver cirrhosis is, however, limited. In this study, we examined the relation between overweight and hypertriglyceridemia, and development of liver cirrhosis in a general population. An epidemiological, longitudinal study was conducted involving men at the age of 50 with 40 years of follow-up. Baseline data were collected in 1963 and 1967. Cases of liver cirrhosis were identified by searching the Swedish Hospital Discharge Register and death certificates of the Central Bureau of Statistics. The independent effect of BMI, triglyceride levels and alcohol habits for cirrhosis of the liver was calculated by using multiple logistic regression analysis. Elevated BMI and triglycerides were significant independent risk factors for the development of liver cirrhosis (OR 1.27 and 1.99, respectively, p < 0.01).
Question: Are overweight and hypertriglyceridemia risk factors for liver cirrhosis in middle-aged Swedish men?
Output:
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PubmedQA95372
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Sleep-disordered breathing (SDB) induces nighttime disturbance of arterial gases, such as carbon dioxide. However, it is still unclear whether nighttime SDB-related gas abnormality is related to respiratory dysregulation in daytime. Therefore, we examined the relationship between the arterial partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PaCO(2)) at nighttime and the respiratory response to exercise in daytime. Eighteen men (age, mean ± SD; 55 ± 11 years) with heart disease underwent multichannel respiratory monitoring through the night with transdermal measurement of PaCO(2) (PtcCO(2)) reflecting PaCO(2) and a cardiopulmonary exercise test in daytime. The ventilatory equivalent (VE)/carbon dioxide production (VCO(2)) slope as an index of ventilatory response to exercise and peak oxygen consumption (VO(2)) were obtained with a cardiopulmonary exercise test. Of the 18 patients, 10 patients had obstructive SDB, 5 had central SDB, and 3 patients did not have SDB. The mean apnea-hypopnea index was 21 ± 17. Minimum nighttime saturation of O(2) was positively correlated with peak VO(2), but not with VE/VCO(2). Nighttime PtcCO(2) was not correlated with peak VO(2) but was negatively correlated with the VE/VCO(2) slope of the daytime cardiopulmonary exercise test (r=-0.53).\n Question: Does sleep-disordered breathing with nighttime hypocapnia relate to daytime enhanced ventilatory response to exercise in patients with heart disease?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: Sleep-disordered breathing (SDB) induces nighttime disturbance of arterial gases, such as carbon dioxide. However, it is still unclear whether nighttime SDB-related gas abnormality is related to respiratory dysregulation in daytime. Therefore, we examined the relationship between the arterial partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PaCO(2)) at nighttime and the respiratory response to exercise in daytime. Eighteen men (age, mean ± SD; 55 ± 11 years) with heart disease underwent multichannel respiratory monitoring through the night with transdermal measurement of PaCO(2) (PtcCO(2)) reflecting PaCO(2) and a cardiopulmonary exercise test in daytime. The ventilatory equivalent (VE)/carbon dioxide production (VCO(2)) slope as an index of ventilatory response to exercise and peak oxygen consumption (VO(2)) were obtained with a cardiopulmonary exercise test. Of the 18 patients, 10 patients had obstructive SDB, 5 had central SDB, and 3 patients did not have SDB. The mean apnea-hypopnea index was 21 ± 17. Minimum nighttime saturation of O(2) was positively correlated with peak VO(2), but not with VE/VCO(2). Nighttime PtcCO(2) was not correlated with peak VO(2) but was negatively correlated with the VE/VCO(2) slope of the daytime cardiopulmonary exercise test (r=-0.53).
Question: Does sleep-disordered breathing with nighttime hypocapnia relate to daytime enhanced ventilatory response to exercise in patients with heart disease?
Output:
|
PubmedQA78285
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: To study the protective effect of Astragalus saponin (AS) on vascular endothelial cell (VEC) in burn patients. Eighty burn patients were divided randomly into 2 groups, the AS group and the burn control group. Blood level of circulatory endothelial cell (CEC), endothelin (ET), nitric oxide (NO), lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) and alanine transaminase (ALT) were determined before treatment and 1 day, 5, 10 and 21 days after treatment, and compared with those in 10 healthy persons as a normal control group. All the parameters determined in the AS group were significantly higher than those in the normal control group. But as compared with the burn control group, the parameters in the AS group after treatment were all lower significantly.\n Question: Do [ Effect of Astragalus saponin on vascular endothelial cell and its function in burn patients ]?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: To study the protective effect of Astragalus saponin (AS) on vascular endothelial cell (VEC) in burn patients. Eighty burn patients were divided randomly into 2 groups, the AS group and the burn control group. Blood level of circulatory endothelial cell (CEC), endothelin (ET), nitric oxide (NO), lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) and alanine transaminase (ALT) were determined before treatment and 1 day, 5, 10 and 21 days after treatment, and compared with those in 10 healthy persons as a normal control group. All the parameters determined in the AS group were significantly higher than those in the normal control group. But as compared with the burn control group, the parameters in the AS group after treatment were all lower significantly.
Question: Do [ Effect of Astragalus saponin on vascular endothelial cell and its function in burn patients ]?
Output:
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PubmedQA177590
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Health disparities have been associated with the prevalence of cardiovascular disease. In cardiac surgery, association has been found between race, sex, and poorer prognosis after surgery. However, there is a complex interplay between race, sex, and socioeconomic position (SEP). In our investigation we sought to identify which of these was the driver of risk-adjusted survival. From January 1, 1995, and December 30, 2005, 23 330 patients (15 156 white men, 6932 white women, 678 black men, and 564 black women) underwent isolated coronary artery bypass grafting, valve, or combined coronary artery bypass grafting and valve procedures. Median follow-up was 5.8 years (25th and 75th percentiles: 3 and 8.6 years). Effect of race, sex, and SEP on all-cause mortality was examined with 2-phase Cox model and generalized propensity score technique. As expected, blacks and women had lower SEP as compared with whites and men for all 6 SEP indicators. Patients with lower SEP had more atherosclerotic disease burden, more comorbidity, and were more symptomatic. Lower SEP was associated with a risk-adjusted dose-dependent reduction in survival after surgery (men, P<0.0001; women, P=0.0079), but black race, once adjusted for SEP, was not.\n Question: Is socioeconomic position , not race , linked to death after cardiac surgery?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: Health disparities have been associated with the prevalence of cardiovascular disease. In cardiac surgery, association has been found between race, sex, and poorer prognosis after surgery. However, there is a complex interplay between race, sex, and socioeconomic position (SEP). In our investigation we sought to identify which of these was the driver of risk-adjusted survival. From January 1, 1995, and December 30, 2005, 23 330 patients (15 156 white men, 6932 white women, 678 black men, and 564 black women) underwent isolated coronary artery bypass grafting, valve, or combined coronary artery bypass grafting and valve procedures. Median follow-up was 5.8 years (25th and 75th percentiles: 3 and 8.6 years). Effect of race, sex, and SEP on all-cause mortality was examined with 2-phase Cox model and generalized propensity score technique. As expected, blacks and women had lower SEP as compared with whites and men for all 6 SEP indicators. Patients with lower SEP had more atherosclerotic disease burden, more comorbidity, and were more symptomatic. Lower SEP was associated with a risk-adjusted dose-dependent reduction in survival after surgery (men, P<0.0001; women, P=0.0079), but black race, once adjusted for SEP, was not.
Question: Is socioeconomic position , not race , linked to death after cardiac surgery?
Output:
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PubmedQA200449
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Death in the early stages of severe acute pancreatitis is frequently the result of multiple organ dysfunction, but its mechanism is not clear. To investigate the state of nuclear factor-kappaB (NF-kappaB) in macrophages of rats with lethal pancreatitis, and to assess the effectiveness of pyrrolidine dithiocarbamate, an inhibitor of NF-kappaB, on the pathology and mortality. Taurocholate pancreatitis was produced in rats, and the severity of the disease, the mortality, and activation of NF-kappaB in peritoneal and alveolar macrophages were compared in rats receiving pyrrolidine dithiocarbamate (PDTC) treatment and those that were not. Taurocholate pancreatitis produced massive necrosis, haemorrhage, and severe leucocyte infiltration in the pancreas as well as alveolar septal thickening in the lung. NF-kappaB was activated in peritoneal and alveolar macrophages six hours after pancreatitis induction. Pretreatment with PDTC dose-dependently attenuated the NF-kappaB activation and improved the survival of the rats, although it did not affect the early increase in serum amylase and histological findings.\n Question: Does inhibition of nuclear factor-kappaB activation improve the survival of rats with taurocholate pancreatitis?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: Death in the early stages of severe acute pancreatitis is frequently the result of multiple organ dysfunction, but its mechanism is not clear. To investigate the state of nuclear factor-kappaB (NF-kappaB) in macrophages of rats with lethal pancreatitis, and to assess the effectiveness of pyrrolidine dithiocarbamate, an inhibitor of NF-kappaB, on the pathology and mortality. Taurocholate pancreatitis was produced in rats, and the severity of the disease, the mortality, and activation of NF-kappaB in peritoneal and alveolar macrophages were compared in rats receiving pyrrolidine dithiocarbamate (PDTC) treatment and those that were not. Taurocholate pancreatitis produced massive necrosis, haemorrhage, and severe leucocyte infiltration in the pancreas as well as alveolar septal thickening in the lung. NF-kappaB was activated in peritoneal and alveolar macrophages six hours after pancreatitis induction. Pretreatment with PDTC dose-dependently attenuated the NF-kappaB activation and improved the survival of the rats, although it did not affect the early increase in serum amylase and histological findings.
Question: Does inhibition of nuclear factor-kappaB activation improve the survival of rats with taurocholate pancreatitis?
Output:
|
PubmedQA139286
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Intestinal metaplasia (IM) and spasmolytic polypeptide-expressing metaplasia (SPEM) are precursors to gastric carcinogenesis. We sought to identify molecular biomarkers of gastric metaplasias and gastric cancer by gene expression profiling of metaplastic lesions from patients. Complementary DNA microarray analysis was performed on IM and SPEM cells isolated from patient samples using laser capture microdissection. Up-regulated transcripts in metaplastic lesions were confirmed by immunostaining analysis in IM, SPEM, and gastric cancer tissues. Proteins that were highly expressed specifically in gastric cancer tissues were analyzed for their association with survival in a test set (n = 450) and a validation set (n = 502) of samples from gastric cancer patients. Compared with normal chief cells, 858 genes were differentially expressed in IM or SPEM samples. Immunostaining was detected for 12 proteins, including 3 new markers of IM (ACE2, LGALS4, AKR1B10) and 3 of SPEM (OLFM4, LYZ, DPCR1). Of 13 proteins expressed in IM or SPEM, 8 were expressed by 17%-50% of human gastric cancer tissues (MUC13, OLFM4, CDH17, KRT20, MUC5AC, LGALS4, AKR1B10, REG4). Expression of CDH17 or MUC13 correlated with patient survival in the test and validation sets. Multivariate analysis showed that CDH17 was an independent prognostic factor in patients with stage I or node-negative disease.\n Question: Does gene expression profiling of metaplastic lineages identify CDH17 as a prognostic marker in early stage gastric cancer?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: Intestinal metaplasia (IM) and spasmolytic polypeptide-expressing metaplasia (SPEM) are precursors to gastric carcinogenesis. We sought to identify molecular biomarkers of gastric metaplasias and gastric cancer by gene expression profiling of metaplastic lesions from patients. Complementary DNA microarray analysis was performed on IM and SPEM cells isolated from patient samples using laser capture microdissection. Up-regulated transcripts in metaplastic lesions were confirmed by immunostaining analysis in IM, SPEM, and gastric cancer tissues. Proteins that were highly expressed specifically in gastric cancer tissues were analyzed for their association with survival in a test set (n = 450) and a validation set (n = 502) of samples from gastric cancer patients. Compared with normal chief cells, 858 genes were differentially expressed in IM or SPEM samples. Immunostaining was detected for 12 proteins, including 3 new markers of IM (ACE2, LGALS4, AKR1B10) and 3 of SPEM (OLFM4, LYZ, DPCR1). Of 13 proteins expressed in IM or SPEM, 8 were expressed by 17%-50% of human gastric cancer tissues (MUC13, OLFM4, CDH17, KRT20, MUC5AC, LGALS4, AKR1B10, REG4). Expression of CDH17 or MUC13 correlated with patient survival in the test and validation sets. Multivariate analysis showed that CDH17 was an independent prognostic factor in patients with stage I or node-negative disease.
Question: Does gene expression profiling of metaplastic lineages identify CDH17 as a prognostic marker in early stage gastric cancer?
Output:
|
PubmedQA189539
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: The cyclic nucleotides, cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) and cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP), are intracellular second messengers that play an important role in modulating inflammatory cells involved in allergic diseases. In general, cAMP suppresses the activity of immune and inflammatory cells. We aim to evaluate the roles of cAMP and cGMP in regulating basophil activity. Basophil-enriched preparations were incubated with analogs and then challenged with anti-IgE or IL-3 (4 or 24 hours). Supernatants were assayed for histamine, IL-4, and IL-13 release. The effects of Sp-8-CPT-cAMPS and Sp-8-CPT-cGMPS on IL-3-dependent mediator release from basophils were determined. The cells were pre-incubated with an analog and then incubated with IL-3 for 24 hours. Sp-8-CPT-cAMPS was an effective (P < 0.05) inhibitor of IL-4, IL-13, and histamine release from basophils. However, paradoxically, Sp-8-CPT-cGMPS enhanced histamine release and IL-13 generation, but by contrast, had little effect on IL-4 generation. Sp-8-CPT-cGMPS inhibited cytokine generation, but enhanced the release of histamine release to a modest extent.\n Question: Do the effect of cyclic nucleotide analog drugs on the mediators release from basophils?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: The cyclic nucleotides, cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) and cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP), are intracellular second messengers that play an important role in modulating inflammatory cells involved in allergic diseases. In general, cAMP suppresses the activity of immune and inflammatory cells. We aim to evaluate the roles of cAMP and cGMP in regulating basophil activity. Basophil-enriched preparations were incubated with analogs and then challenged with anti-IgE or IL-3 (4 or 24 hours). Supernatants were assayed for histamine, IL-4, and IL-13 release. The effects of Sp-8-CPT-cAMPS and Sp-8-CPT-cGMPS on IL-3-dependent mediator release from basophils were determined. The cells were pre-incubated with an analog and then incubated with IL-3 for 24 hours. Sp-8-CPT-cAMPS was an effective (P < 0.05) inhibitor of IL-4, IL-13, and histamine release from basophils. However, paradoxically, Sp-8-CPT-cGMPS enhanced histamine release and IL-13 generation, but by contrast, had little effect on IL-4 generation. Sp-8-CPT-cGMPS inhibited cytokine generation, but enhanced the release of histamine release to a modest extent.
Question: Do the effect of cyclic nucleotide analog drugs on the mediators release from basophils?
Output:
|
PubmedQA163049
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Although silicone rubber (SR) implants are most commonly used and effective for soft-tissue augmentation, they still have been implicated in many adverse reactions. To overcome this problem, a novel composite beta-tricalcium phosphate/silicone rubber (beta-TCP/SR) was prepared by adding beta-TCP into a SR matrix. This study was to evaluate its application potential by investigating the mechanical properties and biocompatibility of beta-TCP/SR. Mechanical properties, including Shore A hardness and tensile strength, were evaluated with 3-mm-thick samples and a universal testing machine. Cytocompatibility tests were conducted in vitro using 0.2-mm-thick beta-TCP/SR samples by seeding fibroblasts onto different samples. Soft-tissue response to beta-TCP/SR and pull-out measurements were investigated 4 weeks and 24 weeks after implantation. The main mechanical properties were all significantly changed after mixing beta-TCP into the SR matrix, except for tearing strength. The cytocompatibility test showed enhanced adhesion and proliferation of fibroblasts onto beta-TCP/SR. Fibrous tissue ingrowth after resorption of beta-TCP was observed by in vivo histologic analysis. The peri-implant capsules in the beta-TCP/SR group were thinner than in the SR group 24 weeks after implantation. In a 24-week test, the maximum force required to pull out the beta-TCP/SR sheet was about six times greater than that needed for SR.\n Question: Do mechanical and biological evaluations of beta-tricalcium phosphate/silicone rubber composite as a novel soft-tissue implant?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: Although silicone rubber (SR) implants are most commonly used and effective for soft-tissue augmentation, they still have been implicated in many adverse reactions. To overcome this problem, a novel composite beta-tricalcium phosphate/silicone rubber (beta-TCP/SR) was prepared by adding beta-TCP into a SR matrix. This study was to evaluate its application potential by investigating the mechanical properties and biocompatibility of beta-TCP/SR. Mechanical properties, including Shore A hardness and tensile strength, were evaluated with 3-mm-thick samples and a universal testing machine. Cytocompatibility tests were conducted in vitro using 0.2-mm-thick beta-TCP/SR samples by seeding fibroblasts onto different samples. Soft-tissue response to beta-TCP/SR and pull-out measurements were investigated 4 weeks and 24 weeks after implantation. The main mechanical properties were all significantly changed after mixing beta-TCP into the SR matrix, except for tearing strength. The cytocompatibility test showed enhanced adhesion and proliferation of fibroblasts onto beta-TCP/SR. Fibrous tissue ingrowth after resorption of beta-TCP was observed by in vivo histologic analysis. The peri-implant capsules in the beta-TCP/SR group were thinner than in the SR group 24 weeks after implantation. In a 24-week test, the maximum force required to pull out the beta-TCP/SR sheet was about six times greater than that needed for SR.
Question: Do mechanical and biological evaluations of beta-tricalcium phosphate/silicone rubber composite as a novel soft-tissue implant?
Output:
|
PubmedQA46504
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Age-related macular degeneration (AMD) is the most common cause of blindness in older people in developed countries, and risk factors for this condition may be classified as genetic and environmental. Apolipoprotein E is putatively involved in the transport of the macular pigment (MP) carotenoids lutein (L) and zeaxanthin (Z) in serum and may also influence retinal capture of these compounds. This study was designed to investigate the relationship between macular pigment optical density (MPOD) and ApoE genotype. This was a cross-sectional study of 302 healthy adult subjects. Dietary intake of L and Z was assessed by food frequency questionnaire, and MPOD was measured by customized heterochromatic flicker photometry. Serum L and Z were measured by HPLC. ApoE genotyping was performed by direct polymerase chain reaction amplification and DNA nucleotide sequencing from peripheral blood. Genotype data were available on 300 of the 302 (99.3%) subjects. The mean (+/- SD) age of the subjects in this study was 47.89 +/- 11.05 (range, 21-66) years. Subjects were classed into one of three ApoE genotype groups, as follows: group 1, epsilon2epsilon2 or epsilon2epsilon3; group 2, epsilon3epsilon3; group 3, epsilon2epsilon4 or epsilon3epsilon4 or epsilon4epsilon4. All three groups were statistically comparable in terms of age, sex, body mass index, cigarette smoking, and dietary and serum levels of L and Z. There was a statistically significant association between ApoE genotype and MPOD. Subjects who had at least one epsilon4 allele had a higher MPOD across the macula than subjects without this allele (group 1 MPOD area, 0.70 +/- 0.40; group 2 MPOD area, 0.67 +/- 0.42; group 3 MPOD area, 0.85 +/- 0.46; one-way ANOVA, P = 0.014.\n Question: Is apolipoprotein E genotype associated with macular pigment optical density?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: Age-related macular degeneration (AMD) is the most common cause of blindness in older people in developed countries, and risk factors for this condition may be classified as genetic and environmental. Apolipoprotein E is putatively involved in the transport of the macular pigment (MP) carotenoids lutein (L) and zeaxanthin (Z) in serum and may also influence retinal capture of these compounds. This study was designed to investigate the relationship between macular pigment optical density (MPOD) and ApoE genotype. This was a cross-sectional study of 302 healthy adult subjects. Dietary intake of L and Z was assessed by food frequency questionnaire, and MPOD was measured by customized heterochromatic flicker photometry. Serum L and Z were measured by HPLC. ApoE genotyping was performed by direct polymerase chain reaction amplification and DNA nucleotide sequencing from peripheral blood. Genotype data were available on 300 of the 302 (99.3%) subjects. The mean (+/- SD) age of the subjects in this study was 47.89 +/- 11.05 (range, 21-66) years. Subjects were classed into one of three ApoE genotype groups, as follows: group 1, epsilon2epsilon2 or epsilon2epsilon3; group 2, epsilon3epsilon3; group 3, epsilon2epsilon4 or epsilon3epsilon4 or epsilon4epsilon4. All three groups were statistically comparable in terms of age, sex, body mass index, cigarette smoking, and dietary and serum levels of L and Z. There was a statistically significant association between ApoE genotype and MPOD. Subjects who had at least one epsilon4 allele had a higher MPOD across the macula than subjects without this allele (group 1 MPOD area, 0.70 +/- 0.40; group 2 MPOD area, 0.67 +/- 0.42; group 3 MPOD area, 0.85 +/- 0.46; one-way ANOVA, P = 0.014.
Question: Is apolipoprotein E genotype associated with macular pigment optical density?
Output:
|
PubmedQA191433
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Association between lymphocyte-sensitivity to immunosuppressants in transplant recipients in vitro and clinical outcomes has been demonstrated. In general, renal transplant recipients are treated with a combination of immunosuppressants such as either glucocorticoid/cyclosporin A (CsA) or glucocorticoid/tacrolimus (FK506) but the pharmacological complementarity of these drugs is still controversial. We examined relationships between the lymphocyte-sensitivities to these immunosuppressants. We examined lymphocyte-sensitivities to prednisolone (PSL), CsA, and FK506 in vitro in a total of 190 chronic renal failure (CRF) patients and 140 healthy subjects. The lymphocyte-sensitivity was evaluated from the IC50 value against mitogen-stimulated lymphocyte-blastogenesis in vitro. Statistically significant correlations of the IC50 values in CRF patients between the following pairs of drugs were observed: PSL and CsA (P<0.0001; n=129, r=0.419), PSL and FK506 (P<0.001; n=54, r=0. 441), and CsA and FK506 (P<0.0001; n=45, r=0.608). Similar correlations were also observed in lymphocytes from healthy subjects. The population of CRF patients who exhibited high IC50 values (low sensitivities) to PSL and FK506 was significantly larger than that of healthy subjects (P<0.05).\n Question: Does lymphocyte-sensitivity to glucocorticoid correlate with the sensitivity to cyclosporin A and tacrolimus in chronic renal failure patients?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: Association between lymphocyte-sensitivity to immunosuppressants in transplant recipients in vitro and clinical outcomes has been demonstrated. In general, renal transplant recipients are treated with a combination of immunosuppressants such as either glucocorticoid/cyclosporin A (CsA) or glucocorticoid/tacrolimus (FK506) but the pharmacological complementarity of these drugs is still controversial. We examined relationships between the lymphocyte-sensitivities to these immunosuppressants. We examined lymphocyte-sensitivities to prednisolone (PSL), CsA, and FK506 in vitro in a total of 190 chronic renal failure (CRF) patients and 140 healthy subjects. The lymphocyte-sensitivity was evaluated from the IC50 value against mitogen-stimulated lymphocyte-blastogenesis in vitro. Statistically significant correlations of the IC50 values in CRF patients between the following pairs of drugs were observed: PSL and CsA (P<0.0001; n=129, r=0.419), PSL and FK506 (P<0.001; n=54, r=0. 441), and CsA and FK506 (P<0.0001; n=45, r=0.608). Similar correlations were also observed in lymphocytes from healthy subjects. The population of CRF patients who exhibited high IC50 values (low sensitivities) to PSL and FK506 was significantly larger than that of healthy subjects (P<0.05).
Question: Does lymphocyte-sensitivity to glucocorticoid correlate with the sensitivity to cyclosporin A and tacrolimus in chronic renal failure patients?
Output:
|
PubmedQA169020
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Although the pathogenesis of Behcet's disease (BD) is unknown, immune dysfunction appears to be involved. To improve understanding of the role of T cells and cytokines in BD, the current study analysed the localization and extent of expression of T cell subsets, cytokines, chemokines, and chemokine receptors in oral ulcers from BD patients and for comparison in oral ulcers from patients with recurrent aphthous stomatitis (RAS), as well as in healthy oral mucosa. Biopsies from oral ulcers of 25 BD patients and 19 RAS patients and oral mucosa from six healthy volunteers were immunoperoxidase stained. Both CD4- and CD8-positive T cells were present in the oral ulcers of BD and RAS patients. The T helper (Th)1 cytokines interleukin (IL)-12, interferon (IFN)-gamma, and tumour necrosis factor (TNF)alpha and the Th1-associated chemokine receptors CCR5 and CXCR3 were increased in both patient groups as compared to normal controls, indicating the involvement of a Th1 immune response in the immunopathology of both BD and RAS. However, the Th2 cytokine IL-4 was only observed in oral ulcers of BD patients but not in RAS patients.\n Question: Is expression of cytokines , chemokines , and chemokine receptors in oral ulcers of patients with Behcet 's disease ( BD ) and recurrent aphthous stomatitis Th1-associated , although Th2-association is also observed in patients with BD?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: Although the pathogenesis of Behcet's disease (BD) is unknown, immune dysfunction appears to be involved. To improve understanding of the role of T cells and cytokines in BD, the current study analysed the localization and extent of expression of T cell subsets, cytokines, chemokines, and chemokine receptors in oral ulcers from BD patients and for comparison in oral ulcers from patients with recurrent aphthous stomatitis (RAS), as well as in healthy oral mucosa. Biopsies from oral ulcers of 25 BD patients and 19 RAS patients and oral mucosa from six healthy volunteers were immunoperoxidase stained. Both CD4- and CD8-positive T cells were present in the oral ulcers of BD and RAS patients. The T helper (Th)1 cytokines interleukin (IL)-12, interferon (IFN)-gamma, and tumour necrosis factor (TNF)alpha and the Th1-associated chemokine receptors CCR5 and CXCR3 were increased in both patient groups as compared to normal controls, indicating the involvement of a Th1 immune response in the immunopathology of both BD and RAS. However, the Th2 cytokine IL-4 was only observed in oral ulcers of BD patients but not in RAS patients.
Question: Is expression of cytokines , chemokines , and chemokine receptors in oral ulcers of patients with Behcet 's disease ( BD ) and recurrent aphthous stomatitis Th1-associated , although Th2-association is also observed in patients with BD?
Output:
|
PubmedQA52358
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: • To introduce a modified method for managing the distal ureter in laparoscopic nephroureterectomy (LNU) for upper tract transitional cell carcinoma (TCC) and to evaluate the feasibility and safety of this method. • Six consecutive patients underwent LNU using a one-port pneumovesicum method for pathologically confirmed upper tract TCC. • Each patient was placed on the operating table in the lithotomy position and the pneumovesicum method was applied with CO(2) insufflation. Dissection was performed circumferentially through the entire detrusor muscle to disconnect the ureter from the bladder wall. A 10-mm trocar was placed into the bladder above the pubic bone. The distal ureter was occluded using a Hem-o-lok clip and pushed out of the bladder. Laparoscopic nephroureterectomy was then performed with the patient in the lateral position. • After surgery, all six patients received systemic chemotherapy and follow-up. • All procedures were performed successfully. • The median (range) operating time for the complete procedure was 105 (85-140) min, and the median (range) estimated blood loss was 125 (60-230) mL. • Seven days after surgery, each patient underwent cystography, which confirmed no extravasation of urine. • None of the patients developed bladder tumour recurrence or metastatic disease during follow-up.\n Question: Is a one-port pneumovesicum method in en bloc laparoscopic nephroureterectomy with bladder cuff resection feasible and safe for upper tract transitional cell carcinoma?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: • To introduce a modified method for managing the distal ureter in laparoscopic nephroureterectomy (LNU) for upper tract transitional cell carcinoma (TCC) and to evaluate the feasibility and safety of this method. • Six consecutive patients underwent LNU using a one-port pneumovesicum method for pathologically confirmed upper tract TCC. • Each patient was placed on the operating table in the lithotomy position and the pneumovesicum method was applied with CO(2) insufflation. Dissection was performed circumferentially through the entire detrusor muscle to disconnect the ureter from the bladder wall. A 10-mm trocar was placed into the bladder above the pubic bone. The distal ureter was occluded using a Hem-o-lok clip and pushed out of the bladder. Laparoscopic nephroureterectomy was then performed with the patient in the lateral position. • After surgery, all six patients received systemic chemotherapy and follow-up. • All procedures were performed successfully. • The median (range) operating time for the complete procedure was 105 (85-140) min, and the median (range) estimated blood loss was 125 (60-230) mL. • Seven days after surgery, each patient underwent cystography, which confirmed no extravasation of urine. • None of the patients developed bladder tumour recurrence or metastatic disease during follow-up.
Question: Is a one-port pneumovesicum method in en bloc laparoscopic nephroureterectomy with bladder cuff resection feasible and safe for upper tract transitional cell carcinoma?
Output:
|
PubmedQA14030
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Immigrant women represent disadvantaged and vulnerable members of the torture survivor population. They tend to be isolated and have negative coping strategies resulting in poor health and well-being. The purpose of this pilot study is to develop and evaluate an educational and interactive women's health-based programme using health promotion and empowerment strategies, with the intent of using the knowledge gained to contribute to an ongoing women's health programme. A one-group pre-test to post-test design was used with weekly intervention sessions over six weeks, with final evaluation on week seven. Topics covered included nutrition, exercise, healthy cooking, medications, personal and dental hygiene, women's health, and birth control. Achievement tests for health-related knowledge were developed by the principal investigator to match the content of each session. Tests were given before and after the session on weeks one through six, and tests on all content modules were repeated one week after the conclusion of the programme. The short version of the World Health Organization quality of life scale (WHOQOL-BREF) was administered at the start of the first session and at the conclusion of the programme. Participants' WHOQOL-BREF scores improved significantly from the beginning to the end of the programme. Improvements in achievement scores from pre to post test for each session and from pre-test to the follow-up test at the end of the programme were also statistically significant. Finally, the overall change from pre to post to follow-up achievement test scores was statistically significant. Observable changes in the women were also seen over the duration of the programme, adding confidence to the results and effectiveness of the intervention.\n Question: Do knowledge and quality of life in female torture survivors?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: Immigrant women represent disadvantaged and vulnerable members of the torture survivor population. They tend to be isolated and have negative coping strategies resulting in poor health and well-being. The purpose of this pilot study is to develop and evaluate an educational and interactive women's health-based programme using health promotion and empowerment strategies, with the intent of using the knowledge gained to contribute to an ongoing women's health programme. A one-group pre-test to post-test design was used with weekly intervention sessions over six weeks, with final evaluation on week seven. Topics covered included nutrition, exercise, healthy cooking, medications, personal and dental hygiene, women's health, and birth control. Achievement tests for health-related knowledge were developed by the principal investigator to match the content of each session. Tests were given before and after the session on weeks one through six, and tests on all content modules were repeated one week after the conclusion of the programme. The short version of the World Health Organization quality of life scale (WHOQOL-BREF) was administered at the start of the first session and at the conclusion of the programme. Participants' WHOQOL-BREF scores improved significantly from the beginning to the end of the programme. Improvements in achievement scores from pre to post test for each session and from pre-test to the follow-up test at the end of the programme were also statistically significant. Finally, the overall change from pre to post to follow-up achievement test scores was statistically significant. Observable changes in the women were also seen over the duration of the programme, adding confidence to the results and effectiveness of the intervention.
Question: Do knowledge and quality of life in female torture survivors?
Output:
|
PubmedQA35758
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Vascular abnormalities and expression of pro-angiogenic factors are observed in inflammatory bowel diseases (IBD). In this study, the role of thrombospondin-1 (TSP-1), an antiangiogenic protein, was analyzed using the dextran sulfate sodium (DSS) model for IBD. Wild-type (WT) and thrombospondin-1-deficient (TSP-1(-/-)) mice were subjected to four cycles (7 days) of DSS. Basic fibroblast growth factor (bFGF), vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF), transforming growth factor beta 1 (TGFbeta-1), and pro-apoptotic proteins such as Fas and its ligand (FasL) were determined by enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay. Double immunohistochemistry for cluster of differential 31 (CD31) and panendothelial cell antigen-32 antibodies was performed for detecting blood vessels. The terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase-mediated dUTP nick end-labeling assay was also performed for identifying apoptotic cells. Inflammation, dysplasia, microvascular density (MVD), apoptotic indices (AI), protein 53 (p53), and beta-catenin expression were determined. VEGF and bFGF protein levels and MVD were higher in the TSP-1(-/-) mice (p = 0.0312, p = 0.0246, and p = 0.0085, respectively). AI in the endothelial cells (EC) and FasL levels were significantly lower in TSP-1(-/-) compared to WT mice (p = 0.0042 and p = 0.0362, respectively). Dysplasia was detected in 66% of TSP-1(-/-) mice compared to 14% in WT mice. Hscores of ss-catenin and areas overexpressing p53 were higher in TSP-1(-/-) mice (p = 0.0002 and p = 0.0339, respectively).\n Question: Does lack of thrombospondin-1 increase angiogenesis in a model of chronic inflammatory bowel disease?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: Vascular abnormalities and expression of pro-angiogenic factors are observed in inflammatory bowel diseases (IBD). In this study, the role of thrombospondin-1 (TSP-1), an antiangiogenic protein, was analyzed using the dextran sulfate sodium (DSS) model for IBD. Wild-type (WT) and thrombospondin-1-deficient (TSP-1(-/-)) mice were subjected to four cycles (7 days) of DSS. Basic fibroblast growth factor (bFGF), vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF), transforming growth factor beta 1 (TGFbeta-1), and pro-apoptotic proteins such as Fas and its ligand (FasL) were determined by enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay. Double immunohistochemistry for cluster of differential 31 (CD31) and panendothelial cell antigen-32 antibodies was performed for detecting blood vessels. The terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase-mediated dUTP nick end-labeling assay was also performed for identifying apoptotic cells. Inflammation, dysplasia, microvascular density (MVD), apoptotic indices (AI), protein 53 (p53), and beta-catenin expression were determined. VEGF and bFGF protein levels and MVD were higher in the TSP-1(-/-) mice (p = 0.0312, p = 0.0246, and p = 0.0085, respectively). AI in the endothelial cells (EC) and FasL levels were significantly lower in TSP-1(-/-) compared to WT mice (p = 0.0042 and p = 0.0362, respectively). Dysplasia was detected in 66% of TSP-1(-/-) mice compared to 14% in WT mice. Hscores of ss-catenin and areas overexpressing p53 were higher in TSP-1(-/-) mice (p = 0.0002 and p = 0.0339, respectively).
Question: Does lack of thrombospondin-1 increase angiogenesis in a model of chronic inflammatory bowel disease?
Output:
|
PubmedQA22245
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: To determine whether a diminished intrapartum amniotic fluid volume represents a risk of adverse neonatal outcome when it occurs in conjunction with prolonged labor. The intrapartum amniotic fluid index (iAFI) was measured in 242 parturients over 35 weeks of gestation during 1st-stage labor, and the umbilical artery blood gas was analyzed at delivery. The subjects were divided into group A (n = 99), having a diminished amniotic fluid volume (iAFI < or = 8.0 cm) and group B (n = 143), having a normal amniotic fluid volume (iAFI 8.1-20.0 cm), and selected antenatal, delivery, and neonatal variables were compared. In addition, the two groups were subdivided according to the duration of labor. Statistical analysis was performed using independent Student's t test, Mann-Whitney U test, chi-square analysis, and Fisher's exact test where appropriate. p < 0.05 was considered significant. The patient characteristics and pregnancy outcomes were similar in groups A and B, as were the incidences of an umbilical artery blood pH <7.20 and/or an Apgar score <7 (group A 9.5%, group B 10.1%). In group A, however, the incidence of an adverse neonatal outcome was 23.5% in cases in whom the duration of labor was longer than 8 h which was significantly higher than in cases in whom the duration of labor was 8 h or less (2.8%; p < 0.01). In group B, the incidence of an adverse neonatal outcome was similar in the two subgroups.\n Question: Is a diminished intrapartum amniotic fluid index a predictive marker of possible adverse neonatal outcome when associated with prolonged labor?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: To determine whether a diminished intrapartum amniotic fluid volume represents a risk of adverse neonatal outcome when it occurs in conjunction with prolonged labor. The intrapartum amniotic fluid index (iAFI) was measured in 242 parturients over 35 weeks of gestation during 1st-stage labor, and the umbilical artery blood gas was analyzed at delivery. The subjects were divided into group A (n = 99), having a diminished amniotic fluid volume (iAFI < or = 8.0 cm) and group B (n = 143), having a normal amniotic fluid volume (iAFI 8.1-20.0 cm), and selected antenatal, delivery, and neonatal variables were compared. In addition, the two groups were subdivided according to the duration of labor. Statistical analysis was performed using independent Student's t test, Mann-Whitney U test, chi-square analysis, and Fisher's exact test where appropriate. p < 0.05 was considered significant. The patient characteristics and pregnancy outcomes were similar in groups A and B, as were the incidences of an umbilical artery blood pH <7.20 and/or an Apgar score <7 (group A 9.5%, group B 10.1%). In group A, however, the incidence of an adverse neonatal outcome was 23.5% in cases in whom the duration of labor was longer than 8 h which was significantly higher than in cases in whom the duration of labor was 8 h or less (2.8%; p < 0.01). In group B, the incidence of an adverse neonatal outcome was similar in the two subgroups.
Question: Is a diminished intrapartum amniotic fluid index a predictive marker of possible adverse neonatal outcome when associated with prolonged labor?
Output:
|
PubmedQA36154
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: It has been suggested that part of the increased vulnerability for psychosis in individuals with hearing impairment (HI) is the consequence of a decreased ability to form correct representations of the social world and attributions of intention of others. It was therefore hypothesized that associations between HI and psychosis risk would be sensitive to contextual variables representing higher level of social complexity, conceptualized as the population density of the social environment ('urbanicity'). Urbanicity and objective HI were assessed in the Maastricht Aging Study (MAAS), a longitudinal study of 1,823 participants from the general population in Maastricht, the Netherlands. Participants were tested at baseline (T0) and at 6-year (T2) and 12-year follow-up (T4). The degree to which the association between HI (T0-T2) and psychotic experiences at T4 was moderated by T0 urbanicity was examined. The association between HI and psychosis was conditional on level of urbanicity (interaction chi2=7.51, p=.006), with low effect size in non-urbanized areas (b=-0.81, 95% CI:-2.98, 1.36) and high effect size in the most urbanized areas (b=2.56, 95% CI: 0.47, 4.65). Although social isolation (b=1.74, p=.022) and loneliness (b=0.61, pb.001) were both associated with psychosis, they could not explain the observed interaction.\n Question: Is evidence that the impact of hearing impairment on psychosis risk moderated by the level of complexity of the social environment?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: It has been suggested that part of the increased vulnerability for psychosis in individuals with hearing impairment (HI) is the consequence of a decreased ability to form correct representations of the social world and attributions of intention of others. It was therefore hypothesized that associations between HI and psychosis risk would be sensitive to contextual variables representing higher level of social complexity, conceptualized as the population density of the social environment ('urbanicity'). Urbanicity and objective HI were assessed in the Maastricht Aging Study (MAAS), a longitudinal study of 1,823 participants from the general population in Maastricht, the Netherlands. Participants were tested at baseline (T0) and at 6-year (T2) and 12-year follow-up (T4). The degree to which the association between HI (T0-T2) and psychotic experiences at T4 was moderated by T0 urbanicity was examined. The association between HI and psychosis was conditional on level of urbanicity (interaction chi2=7.51, p=.006), with low effect size in non-urbanized areas (b=-0.81, 95% CI:-2.98, 1.36) and high effect size in the most urbanized areas (b=2.56, 95% CI: 0.47, 4.65). Although social isolation (b=1.74, p=.022) and loneliness (b=0.61, pb.001) were both associated with psychosis, they could not explain the observed interaction.
Question: Is evidence that the impact of hearing impairment on psychosis risk moderated by the level of complexity of the social environment?
Output:
|
PubmedQA155590
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Preeclampsia (preE), is characterized by abnormal placental invasion and function. Marinobufagenin (MBG), a cardiotonic steroid (CTS), inhibits cytotrophoblast (CTB) cell functions that are critical for normal placental development. This study tests the hypothesis that CTSs induce anti-angiogenic and anti-proliferative effects in CTB cells. Human extravillous CTB cells of the line Sw-71, derived from first trimester chorionic villus tissue, were incubated with 0, 0.1, 1, 10, and 100 nM of each of three CTSs (MBG, cinobufatalin (CINO) and ouabain (OUB)) for 48 h. Thereafter, levels of pro-angiogenic (vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF165), placental growth factor (PlGF)) and anti-angiogenic (soluble fms-like tyrosine kinase-1 (sFlt-1), soluble endoglin (sEng)) factors were measured in culture media using ELISA kits. Expression of three receptors (VEGF receptor 1 (VEGFR1), angiogenic angiotensin type 1 receptor (AT1) and anti-angiogenic angiotensin type 2 receptor (AT2)) were assayed using immunoblotting (western blots) in cell lysates. sFlt-1 and sEng secretion were increased while VEGF165 and PIGF were decreased in the culture media of CTB cells treated with 1 nM or more of each CTSs (p < 0.01 for each). The AT2 receptor expression was up-regulated (p < 0.05) in CTB cells treated with 1 nM or more of MBG and CINO and with 100 nM OUB, while AT1 and VEGFR1 expressions decreased (p < 0.05) with 1 nM or more of MBG and 10 nM or more of CINO and OUB.\n Question: Do cardiotonic steroids induce anti-angiogenic and anti-proliferative profiles in first trimester extravillous cytotrophoblast cells?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: Preeclampsia (preE), is characterized by abnormal placental invasion and function. Marinobufagenin (MBG), a cardiotonic steroid (CTS), inhibits cytotrophoblast (CTB) cell functions that are critical for normal placental development. This study tests the hypothesis that CTSs induce anti-angiogenic and anti-proliferative effects in CTB cells. Human extravillous CTB cells of the line Sw-71, derived from first trimester chorionic villus tissue, were incubated with 0, 0.1, 1, 10, and 100 nM of each of three CTSs (MBG, cinobufatalin (CINO) and ouabain (OUB)) for 48 h. Thereafter, levels of pro-angiogenic (vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF165), placental growth factor (PlGF)) and anti-angiogenic (soluble fms-like tyrosine kinase-1 (sFlt-1), soluble endoglin (sEng)) factors were measured in culture media using ELISA kits. Expression of three receptors (VEGF receptor 1 (VEGFR1), angiogenic angiotensin type 1 receptor (AT1) and anti-angiogenic angiotensin type 2 receptor (AT2)) were assayed using immunoblotting (western blots) in cell lysates. sFlt-1 and sEng secretion were increased while VEGF165 and PIGF were decreased in the culture media of CTB cells treated with 1 nM or more of each CTSs (p < 0.01 for each). The AT2 receptor expression was up-regulated (p < 0.05) in CTB cells treated with 1 nM or more of MBG and CINO and with 100 nM OUB, while AT1 and VEGFR1 expressions decreased (p < 0.05) with 1 nM or more of MBG and 10 nM or more of CINO and OUB.
Question: Do cardiotonic steroids induce anti-angiogenic and anti-proliferative profiles in first trimester extravillous cytotrophoblast cells?
Output:
|
PubmedQA137664
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: To describe lesbians' personal and health care experiences of becoming pregnant, giving birth, and being mothers and comothers within the context of potentially oppressive family, social, and political structures. Critical ethnography. Participants' homes, lesbian mother support group, and prenatal clinics and hospitals in the Pacific Northwest. English-speaking self-identified lesbian women, including 21 interview and six focus-group participants and approximately 43 observed in a support group. In-depth open-ended interviews, focus group, and participant observation. Content/categorical analysis followed by discussion of the mother's stories and a critical conversation about lesbian mothering. The seven organizing themes are as follows: preparing the way: becoming ready; conception: you can't just fall into it; you can hear a heartbeat: pregnancy; birthing our babies; the work of mothers and mothers who work; families who sustain and families who oppose; and sources of support in everyday life. The first four are described in this article.\n Question: Are we mothers too : childbearing experiences of lesbian families?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: To describe lesbians' personal and health care experiences of becoming pregnant, giving birth, and being mothers and comothers within the context of potentially oppressive family, social, and political structures. Critical ethnography. Participants' homes, lesbian mother support group, and prenatal clinics and hospitals in the Pacific Northwest. English-speaking self-identified lesbian women, including 21 interview and six focus-group participants and approximately 43 observed in a support group. In-depth open-ended interviews, focus group, and participant observation. Content/categorical analysis followed by discussion of the mother's stories and a critical conversation about lesbian mothering. The seven organizing themes are as follows: preparing the way: becoming ready; conception: you can't just fall into it; you can hear a heartbeat: pregnancy; birthing our babies; the work of mothers and mothers who work; families who sustain and families who oppose; and sources of support in everyday life. The first four are described in this article.
Question: Are we mothers too : childbearing experiences of lesbian families?
Output:
|
PubmedQA38152
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Polyneuropathy is associated with several pathological conditions. Amyloidosis is a less common cause of polyneuropathy. Amyloidosis is caused by the accumulation of insoluble protein fibrils (amyloid) in the extracellular matrix. Primary systemic amyloidosis is caused by B-lymphocyte dyscrasia. Polyneuropathy is the first sign of primary systemic amyloidosis in about 20% of the cases, and is characterised by relentless progression, painfulness, and prominent symptoms of autonomic neuropathy. We describe three cases of primary systemic amyloidosis that started with polyneuropathy. The diagnosis of primary systemic amyloidosis is often delayed more than two years after the onset of polyneuropathy. Biopsy of rectum, fat tissue, bone marrow, or peripheral nerve are diagnostic tools.\n Question: Is [ Polyneuropathy an early finding in primary systemic amyloidosis ]?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: Polyneuropathy is associated with several pathological conditions. Amyloidosis is a less common cause of polyneuropathy. Amyloidosis is caused by the accumulation of insoluble protein fibrils (amyloid) in the extracellular matrix. Primary systemic amyloidosis is caused by B-lymphocyte dyscrasia. Polyneuropathy is the first sign of primary systemic amyloidosis in about 20% of the cases, and is characterised by relentless progression, painfulness, and prominent symptoms of autonomic neuropathy. We describe three cases of primary systemic amyloidosis that started with polyneuropathy. The diagnosis of primary systemic amyloidosis is often delayed more than two years after the onset of polyneuropathy. Biopsy of rectum, fat tissue, bone marrow, or peripheral nerve are diagnostic tools.
Question: Is [ Polyneuropathy an early finding in primary systemic amyloidosis ]?
Output:
|
PubmedQA170722
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: To assess the ability of a decremental trial of positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) to identify an optimal PEEP level that maintains oxygenation after a lung-recruitment maneuver. Prospective clinical trial. Surgical intensive care unit of a university hospital. Twenty sedated patients with acute lung injury and/or acute respiratory distress syndrome, ventilated for 1.2 +/- 0.4 d. Each patient received up to 3 lung-recruitment maneuvers with continuous positive airway pressure of 40 cm H2O sustained for 40 s to increase the ratio of P(aO2) to F(IO2) by > 20%. Following the lung-recruitment maneuver, PEEP was set at 20 cm H2O and then the F(IO2) was decreased until the oxygen saturation (measured via pulse oximetry [S(pO2)]) was 90-94%. PEEP was then decreased in 2-cm H2O steps until the S(pO2) dropped below 90%. The step preceding the drop to below 90% was considered the optimal PEEP. The lung was then re-recruited and PEEP and F(IO2) were set at the identified levels. The patients were followed for 4 h after the PEEP trial and the setting of PEEP and F(IO2). After the lung-recruitment maneuver, all the patients' P(aO2)/F(IO2) increased > 50%. The mean + SD P(aO2)/F(IO2) on the optimal decremental trial PEEP was 211 + 79 mm Hg, versus 135 + 37 mm Hg at baseline (p < 0.001), and was sustained at that level for the 4-h study period (227 + 81 mm Hg at 4 h). F(IO2) at baseline was 0.54 + 0.12 versus 0.38 + 0.12 (p < 0.001) at 4 h. PEEP was 11.9 + 3.0 cm H2O at baseline and 9.1 + 4.7 cm H2O (p = 0.011) at 4 h.\n Question: Does a decremental PEEP trial identify the PEEP level that maintains oxygenation after lung recruitment?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: To assess the ability of a decremental trial of positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) to identify an optimal PEEP level that maintains oxygenation after a lung-recruitment maneuver. Prospective clinical trial. Surgical intensive care unit of a university hospital. Twenty sedated patients with acute lung injury and/or acute respiratory distress syndrome, ventilated for 1.2 +/- 0.4 d. Each patient received up to 3 lung-recruitment maneuvers with continuous positive airway pressure of 40 cm H2O sustained for 40 s to increase the ratio of P(aO2) to F(IO2) by > 20%. Following the lung-recruitment maneuver, PEEP was set at 20 cm H2O and then the F(IO2) was decreased until the oxygen saturation (measured via pulse oximetry [S(pO2)]) was 90-94%. PEEP was then decreased in 2-cm H2O steps until the S(pO2) dropped below 90%. The step preceding the drop to below 90% was considered the optimal PEEP. The lung was then re-recruited and PEEP and F(IO2) were set at the identified levels. The patients were followed for 4 h after the PEEP trial and the setting of PEEP and F(IO2). After the lung-recruitment maneuver, all the patients' P(aO2)/F(IO2) increased > 50%. The mean + SD P(aO2)/F(IO2) on the optimal decremental trial PEEP was 211 + 79 mm Hg, versus 135 + 37 mm Hg at baseline (p < 0.001), and was sustained at that level for the 4-h study period (227 + 81 mm Hg at 4 h). F(IO2) at baseline was 0.54 + 0.12 versus 0.38 + 0.12 (p < 0.001) at 4 h. PEEP was 11.9 + 3.0 cm H2O at baseline and 9.1 + 4.7 cm H2O (p = 0.011) at 4 h.
Question: Does a decremental PEEP trial identify the PEEP level that maintains oxygenation after lung recruitment?
Output:
|
PubmedQA106795
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Determination of fractional flow reserve (FFR) allows the functional assessment of coronary stenoses before and after an intervention. Preliminary data suggest that a FFR > or = 0.94 is associated with an excellent clinical outcome after stent implantation. However, these results were limited both by the number of patients included and the use of non-contemporary stent designs. We sought to determine the prognostic value of FFR measurements in a large patient cohort undergoing coronary stent implantation. Eighty-nine consecutive patients were enrolled in whom a stent implantation was performed and a pressure wire was used as a guide wire. Patients were followed for at least 6 months. Death, myocardial infarction (MI) and target vessel revascularization (TVR) were considered cardiac events. A FFR > or = 0.94 was regarded as an optimal functional result. A complete follow-up was available in all patents. Pre-interventional FFR increased from 0.66 +/- 0.16 to 0.95 +/- 0.05 (p < 0.0001) after stent implantation. Sixteen (18%) events occurred during follow-up including 10 (11.2%) TVR. Final FFR was significantly higher in patients without compared to patients with an event (0.92 +/- 0.06 vs. 0.96 +/- 0.05, p < 0.003). By univariate analysis, the presence of diabetes mellitus, left ventricular function, residual diameter stenosis and final FFR were associated with a worse clinical outcome. In the multivariate analysis, only the final FFR and left ventricular function remained as significant predictors for cardiac events (relative risk, 3.50; 95% CI: 1.29-9.52, P < 0.014, and 0.97; 95% CI: 0.93-1.00, p = 0.047).\n Question: Does fractional flow reserve predict major adverse cardiac events after coronary stent implantation?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: Determination of fractional flow reserve (FFR) allows the functional assessment of coronary stenoses before and after an intervention. Preliminary data suggest that a FFR > or = 0.94 is associated with an excellent clinical outcome after stent implantation. However, these results were limited both by the number of patients included and the use of non-contemporary stent designs. We sought to determine the prognostic value of FFR measurements in a large patient cohort undergoing coronary stent implantation. Eighty-nine consecutive patients were enrolled in whom a stent implantation was performed and a pressure wire was used as a guide wire. Patients were followed for at least 6 months. Death, myocardial infarction (MI) and target vessel revascularization (TVR) were considered cardiac events. A FFR > or = 0.94 was regarded as an optimal functional result. A complete follow-up was available in all patents. Pre-interventional FFR increased from 0.66 +/- 0.16 to 0.95 +/- 0.05 (p < 0.0001) after stent implantation. Sixteen (18%) events occurred during follow-up including 10 (11.2%) TVR. Final FFR was significantly higher in patients without compared to patients with an event (0.92 +/- 0.06 vs. 0.96 +/- 0.05, p < 0.003). By univariate analysis, the presence of diabetes mellitus, left ventricular function, residual diameter stenosis and final FFR were associated with a worse clinical outcome. In the multivariate analysis, only the final FFR and left ventricular function remained as significant predictors for cardiac events (relative risk, 3.50; 95% CI: 1.29-9.52, P < 0.014, and 0.97; 95% CI: 0.93-1.00, p = 0.047).
Question: Does fractional flow reserve predict major adverse cardiac events after coronary stent implantation?
Output:
|
PubmedQA187917
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: The purpose of this study was to investigate how an intergenerational legacy of type 2 diabetes affected the knowledge, attitudes, and treatment strategies of Hispanic young adults with diabetes. Eight Hispanic young adults (ages 18-30 years) participated in a series of in-home longitudinal qualitative interviews, and 11 of their family members completed single in-home interviews, regarding their diabetes management practices. Interview transcripts were analyzed thematically by a team of researchers. Five themes emerged that characterized the influence of an intergenerational legacy of diabetes on young adults: food and family (how meal preparation and eating are shared within families), doing together (activity participation is contingent on others' participation), knowledge and expectations (expectations for the future and understandings of diabetes are shaped by family members), miscarried helping (well-intentioned actions have negative consequences), and reciprocal support (children and parents support each other's diabetes care).\n Question: Are `` We all gon na get diabetic these days '' : the impact of a living legacy of type 2 diabetes on Hispanic young adults ' diabetes care?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: The purpose of this study was to investigate how an intergenerational legacy of type 2 diabetes affected the knowledge, attitudes, and treatment strategies of Hispanic young adults with diabetes. Eight Hispanic young adults (ages 18-30 years) participated in a series of in-home longitudinal qualitative interviews, and 11 of their family members completed single in-home interviews, regarding their diabetes management practices. Interview transcripts were analyzed thematically by a team of researchers. Five themes emerged that characterized the influence of an intergenerational legacy of diabetes on young adults: food and family (how meal preparation and eating are shared within families), doing together (activity participation is contingent on others' participation), knowledge and expectations (expectations for the future and understandings of diabetes are shaped by family members), miscarried helping (well-intentioned actions have negative consequences), and reciprocal support (children and parents support each other's diabetes care).
Question: Are `` We all gon na get diabetic these days '' : the impact of a living legacy of type 2 diabetes on Hispanic young adults ' diabetes care?
Output:
|
PubmedQA44126
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Antarctic notothenioids are an impressive adaptive radiation. While they share recent common ancestry with several species-depauperate lineages that exhibit a relictual distribution in areas peripheral to the Southern Ocean, an understanding of their evolutionary origins and biogeographic history is limited as the sister lineage of notothenioids remains unidentified. The phylogenetic placement of notothenioids among major lineages of perciform fishes, which include sculpins, rockfishes, sticklebacks, eelpouts, scorpionfishes, perches, groupers and soapfishes, remains unresolved. We investigate the phylogenetic position of notothenioids using DNA sequences of 10 protein coding nuclear genes sampled from more than 650 percomorph species. The biogeographic history of notothenioids is reconstructed using a maximum likelihood method that integrates phylogenetic relationships, estimated divergence times, geographic distributions and paleogeographic history. Percophis brasiliensis is resolved, with strong node support, as the notothenioid sister lineage. The species is endemic to the subtropical and temperate Atlantic coast of southern South America. Biogeographic reconstructions imply the initial diversification of notothenioids involved the western portion of the East Gondwanan Weddellian Province. The geographic disjunctions among the major lineages of notothenioids show biogeographic and temporal correspondence with the fragmentation of East Gondwana.\n Question: Does identification of the notothenioid sister lineage illuminate the biogeographic history of an Antarctic adaptive radiation?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: Antarctic notothenioids are an impressive adaptive radiation. While they share recent common ancestry with several species-depauperate lineages that exhibit a relictual distribution in areas peripheral to the Southern Ocean, an understanding of their evolutionary origins and biogeographic history is limited as the sister lineage of notothenioids remains unidentified. The phylogenetic placement of notothenioids among major lineages of perciform fishes, which include sculpins, rockfishes, sticklebacks, eelpouts, scorpionfishes, perches, groupers and soapfishes, remains unresolved. We investigate the phylogenetic position of notothenioids using DNA sequences of 10 protein coding nuclear genes sampled from more than 650 percomorph species. The biogeographic history of notothenioids is reconstructed using a maximum likelihood method that integrates phylogenetic relationships, estimated divergence times, geographic distributions and paleogeographic history. Percophis brasiliensis is resolved, with strong node support, as the notothenioid sister lineage. The species is endemic to the subtropical and temperate Atlantic coast of southern South America. Biogeographic reconstructions imply the initial diversification of notothenioids involved the western portion of the East Gondwanan Weddellian Province. The geographic disjunctions among the major lineages of notothenioids show biogeographic and temporal correspondence with the fragmentation of East Gondwana.
Question: Does identification of the notothenioid sister lineage illuminate the biogeographic history of an Antarctic adaptive radiation?
Output:
|
PubmedQA62879
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Laboratory tests are usually requested for monitoring during outpatient parenteral antimicrobial therapy (OPAT), but these recommendations are not always followed. The purpose of this study was to determine whether rehospitalization during the OPAT course is associated with the availability of these test results to the treating physician. Electronic health records (EHRs) from all patients in the Cleveland Clinic OPAT registry with start dates from 1 January to 28 February 2011 were reviewed in a retrospective cohort study. Comprehensive data on patient and OPAT characteristics were obtained for the first OPAT course per patient. Availability of laboratory test results was defined as documentation of results of at least one recommended test in the health system's EHR. Proportions of patients rehospitalized were compared for OPAT courses with test results available and non-available. Adjustments were made for patient age, hospital length of stay, anticipated OPAT duration, OPAT site and Charlson comorbidity index score. Four hundred patients received OPAT during the study period; 60% at home, 36% in skilled nursing facilities or long-term acute care facilities and 4% in other settings. Recommended monitoring laboratory test results were available to infectious disease physicians in 291 (73%) OPAT episodes. There were 82 patient readmissions (21%) while on OPAT. In a multivariable logistic regression model, non-availability of recommended test results was independently associated with readmissions while on OPAT (adjusted OR 2.53; 95% CI 1.36-4.73).\n Question: Do association of laboratory test result availability and rehospitalizations in an outpatient parenteral antimicrobial therapy programme?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: Laboratory tests are usually requested for monitoring during outpatient parenteral antimicrobial therapy (OPAT), but these recommendations are not always followed. The purpose of this study was to determine whether rehospitalization during the OPAT course is associated with the availability of these test results to the treating physician. Electronic health records (EHRs) from all patients in the Cleveland Clinic OPAT registry with start dates from 1 January to 28 February 2011 were reviewed in a retrospective cohort study. Comprehensive data on patient and OPAT characteristics were obtained for the first OPAT course per patient. Availability of laboratory test results was defined as documentation of results of at least one recommended test in the health system's EHR. Proportions of patients rehospitalized were compared for OPAT courses with test results available and non-available. Adjustments were made for patient age, hospital length of stay, anticipated OPAT duration, OPAT site and Charlson comorbidity index score. Four hundred patients received OPAT during the study period; 60% at home, 36% in skilled nursing facilities or long-term acute care facilities and 4% in other settings. Recommended monitoring laboratory test results were available to infectious disease physicians in 291 (73%) OPAT episodes. There were 82 patient readmissions (21%) while on OPAT. In a multivariable logistic regression model, non-availability of recommended test results was independently associated with readmissions while on OPAT (adjusted OR 2.53; 95% CI 1.36-4.73).
Question: Do association of laboratory test result availability and rehospitalizations in an outpatient parenteral antimicrobial therapy programme?
Output:
|
PubmedQA34710
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Cancer cachexia is a complex syndrome related to a negative energy balance resulting in muscle wasting. Implication of muscle mitochondrial bioenergetics alterations during cancer cachexia was suggested. Therefore, the aim of this study was to explore the efficiency of oxidative phosphorylation in skeletal muscle mitochondria in a preclinical model of cancer cachexia. Berlin-Druckrey IX rats with peritoneal carcinosis (PC) were used as a model of cancer cachexia with healthy pair-fed rats (PF) as control. Hindlimb muscle morphology and fibre type composition were analysed in parallel with ubiquitin ligases and UCP gene expression. Oxidative phosphorylation was investigated in isolated muscle mitochondria by measuring oxygen consumption and ATP synthesis rate. PC rats underwent significant muscle wasting affecting fast glycolytic muscles due to a reduction in fibre cross-sectional area. MuRF1 and MAFbx gene expression were significantly increased (9- and 3.5-fold, respectively) in the muscle of PC compared to PF rats. Oxygen consumption in non-phosphorylating state and the ATP/O were similar in both groups. Muscle UCP2 gene was overexpressed in PC rats. State III and the uncoupled state were significantly lower in muscle mitochondria from PC rats with a parallel reduction in complex IV activity (-30 %).\n Question: Is cancer cachexia associated with a decrease in skeletal muscle mitochondrial oxidative capacities without alteration of ATP production efficiency?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: Cancer cachexia is a complex syndrome related to a negative energy balance resulting in muscle wasting. Implication of muscle mitochondrial bioenergetics alterations during cancer cachexia was suggested. Therefore, the aim of this study was to explore the efficiency of oxidative phosphorylation in skeletal muscle mitochondria in a preclinical model of cancer cachexia. Berlin-Druckrey IX rats with peritoneal carcinosis (PC) were used as a model of cancer cachexia with healthy pair-fed rats (PF) as control. Hindlimb muscle morphology and fibre type composition were analysed in parallel with ubiquitin ligases and UCP gene expression. Oxidative phosphorylation was investigated in isolated muscle mitochondria by measuring oxygen consumption and ATP synthesis rate. PC rats underwent significant muscle wasting affecting fast glycolytic muscles due to a reduction in fibre cross-sectional area. MuRF1 and MAFbx gene expression were significantly increased (9- and 3.5-fold, respectively) in the muscle of PC compared to PF rats. Oxygen consumption in non-phosphorylating state and the ATP/O were similar in both groups. Muscle UCP2 gene was overexpressed in PC rats. State III and the uncoupled state were significantly lower in muscle mitochondria from PC rats with a parallel reduction in complex IV activity (-30 %).
Question: Is cancer cachexia associated with a decrease in skeletal muscle mitochondrial oxidative capacities without alteration of ATP production efficiency?
Output:
|
PubmedQA38354
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: To determine the effects of eosinophilic inflammation on olfactory sensory neuron cell death. Mice were sensitized to intranasal Aspergillus fumigatus extract and subsequently challenged acutely or chronically with the same allergen. The olfactory neuroepithelium was assessed for immunohistochemical evidence of apoptosis and inflammation. Sensitized mice challenged with allergen demonstrated elevated eosinophil infiltration of the respiratory and olfactory mucosae, with olfactory sensory neuron apoptosis. Remarkably, massive neuronal apoptosis without eosinophil infiltration occurred in nonsensitized mice after a single dose of extract.\n Question: Does intranasal Aspergillus fumigatus exposure induce eosinophilic inflammation and olfactory sensory neuron cell death in mice?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: To determine the effects of eosinophilic inflammation on olfactory sensory neuron cell death. Mice were sensitized to intranasal Aspergillus fumigatus extract and subsequently challenged acutely or chronically with the same allergen. The olfactory neuroepithelium was assessed for immunohistochemical evidence of apoptosis and inflammation. Sensitized mice challenged with allergen demonstrated elevated eosinophil infiltration of the respiratory and olfactory mucosae, with olfactory sensory neuron apoptosis. Remarkably, massive neuronal apoptosis without eosinophil infiltration occurred in nonsensitized mice after a single dose of extract.
Question: Does intranasal Aspergillus fumigatus exposure induce eosinophilic inflammation and olfactory sensory neuron cell death in mice?
Output:
|
PubmedQA107615
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: The identification of still unrevealed mechanisms affecting the anti-HIV CD8 T-cell response in HIV-1 infection. Starting from the observation that anti-Tat immunization is associated with improved CD8 T-cell immunity, we developed both in-vitro and ex-vivo assays to characterize the effects of extra-cellular Tat on the adaptive CD8 T-cell response. The effects of Tat on CD8 T-cell activation were assayed using CD8 T-cell clones specific for either cellular (MART-1) or viral (HIV-1 Nef) antigens, and HIV-1 Gag-specific CD8 T cells from HIV-1 patients. The interaction between CD8 T lymphocytes and immobilized Tat, but not its soluble form, inhibits peptide-specific CD8 T-lymphocyte activation. The inhibition does not depend on Tat trans-activation activity, but on the interaction of the Tat RGD domain with α5β1 and αvβ3 integrins. Impaired CD8 T-cell activation was also observed in cocultures of CD8 T cells with HIV-1-infected cells. Anti-Tat Abs abrogate the inhibitory effect, consistently with the evidence that extracellular Tat accumulates on the cell membrane of virus-producing cells. The Tat-induced inhibition of cell activation associates with increased apoptosis of CD8 T cells. Finally, the inhibition of cell activation also takes place in Gag-specific CD8 T lymphocytes from HIV-1-infected patients.\n Question: Does surface-bound Tat inhibit antigen-specific CD8+ T-cell activation in an integrin-dependent manner?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: The identification of still unrevealed mechanisms affecting the anti-HIV CD8 T-cell response in HIV-1 infection. Starting from the observation that anti-Tat immunization is associated with improved CD8 T-cell immunity, we developed both in-vitro and ex-vivo assays to characterize the effects of extra-cellular Tat on the adaptive CD8 T-cell response. The effects of Tat on CD8 T-cell activation were assayed using CD8 T-cell clones specific for either cellular (MART-1) or viral (HIV-1 Nef) antigens, and HIV-1 Gag-specific CD8 T cells from HIV-1 patients. The interaction between CD8 T lymphocytes and immobilized Tat, but not its soluble form, inhibits peptide-specific CD8 T-lymphocyte activation. The inhibition does not depend on Tat trans-activation activity, but on the interaction of the Tat RGD domain with α5β1 and αvβ3 integrins. Impaired CD8 T-cell activation was also observed in cocultures of CD8 T cells with HIV-1-infected cells. Anti-Tat Abs abrogate the inhibitory effect, consistently with the evidence that extracellular Tat accumulates on the cell membrane of virus-producing cells. The Tat-induced inhibition of cell activation associates with increased apoptosis of CD8 T cells. Finally, the inhibition of cell activation also takes place in Gag-specific CD8 T lymphocytes from HIV-1-infected patients.
Question: Does surface-bound Tat inhibit antigen-specific CD8+ T-cell activation in an integrin-dependent manner?
Output:
|
PubmedQA115038
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: The purpose of this study was to evaluate the efficacy of high-resolution axillary ultrasound in detecting axillary lymph node metastases after neoadjuvant chemotherapy in patients with locally advanced breast cancer. Fifty-three patients with stage II or III breast cancer undergoing neoadjuvant chemotherapy who had a physical examination, high-resolution axillary ultrasound, and axillary lymph node dissection from January 1999 to September 2003 were included in this study. The positive predictive value of the postchemotherapy ultrasound for predicting pathologic nodal involvement was 83%, but the negative predictive value was only 52%. Postchemotherapy physical examination was also poor at predicting pathologic nodal involvement with a positive predictive value of 93% and a negative predictive value of only 58%.\n Question: Is high-resolution axillary ultrasound a poor prognostic test for determining pathologic lymph node status in patients undergoing neoadjuvant chemotherapy for locally advanced breast cancer?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: The purpose of this study was to evaluate the efficacy of high-resolution axillary ultrasound in detecting axillary lymph node metastases after neoadjuvant chemotherapy in patients with locally advanced breast cancer. Fifty-three patients with stage II or III breast cancer undergoing neoadjuvant chemotherapy who had a physical examination, high-resolution axillary ultrasound, and axillary lymph node dissection from January 1999 to September 2003 were included in this study. The positive predictive value of the postchemotherapy ultrasound for predicting pathologic nodal involvement was 83%, but the negative predictive value was only 52%. Postchemotherapy physical examination was also poor at predicting pathologic nodal involvement with a positive predictive value of 93% and a negative predictive value of only 58%.
Question: Is high-resolution axillary ultrasound a poor prognostic test for determining pathologic lymph node status in patients undergoing neoadjuvant chemotherapy for locally advanced breast cancer?
Output:
|
PubmedQA72879
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: The purpose of this study was to examine the effects of exercise on maximum QTc interval (QTcmax) and QTc dispersion (QTcd) in diabetic patients without clinically evident heart disease. Seventy-six diabetic patients who had no coronary artery disease or hypertension (group I; mean age 48 +/- 9 years old) and 40 healthy volunteers (group II; mean age 46 +/- 13 years old) were enrolled in the study. Cases with clinically evident heart disease were excluded from the study. Resting 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) and maximal treadmill exercise test (according to Bruce protocol) were performed in all cases. The QTcmax interval was determined at rest (RQTcmax) and during peak exercise (PQTcmax). Also, the QTcd was measured at rest (RQTcd) and during peak exercise (PQTcd). Autonomic neuropathy was assessed by measuring the heart rate variability (HRV). There was no significant difference between clinical characteristics of two groups. In group I, HRV parameters were significantly lower than group II. RQTcd, PQTcd, RQTcmax, and PQTcmax were significantly longer in group I (56 +/- 16 vs 34 +/- 11; P< 0.001, 62 +/- 22 vs 40 +/- 15; P < 0.001, respectively). In diabetic patients, there was no significant difference between RQTcmax and PQTcmax (428 +/- 19 vs 420 +/- 31; P > 0.05), and no significant difference was present between RQTcd and PQTcd (56 +/- 16 vs 62 +/- 22; P > 0.05, respectively).\n Question: Does exercise increase QTcmax and QTcd in diabetic patients with autonomic neuropathy?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "no"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: The purpose of this study was to examine the effects of exercise on maximum QTc interval (QTcmax) and QTc dispersion (QTcd) in diabetic patients without clinically evident heart disease. Seventy-six diabetic patients who had no coronary artery disease or hypertension (group I; mean age 48 +/- 9 years old) and 40 healthy volunteers (group II; mean age 46 +/- 13 years old) were enrolled in the study. Cases with clinically evident heart disease were excluded from the study. Resting 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) and maximal treadmill exercise test (according to Bruce protocol) were performed in all cases. The QTcmax interval was determined at rest (RQTcmax) and during peak exercise (PQTcmax). Also, the QTcd was measured at rest (RQTcd) and during peak exercise (PQTcd). Autonomic neuropathy was assessed by measuring the heart rate variability (HRV). There was no significant difference between clinical characteristics of two groups. In group I, HRV parameters were significantly lower than group II. RQTcd, PQTcd, RQTcmax, and PQTcmax were significantly longer in group I (56 +/- 16 vs 34 +/- 11; P< 0.001, 62 +/- 22 vs 40 +/- 15; P < 0.001, respectively). In diabetic patients, there was no significant difference between RQTcmax and PQTcmax (428 +/- 19 vs 420 +/- 31; P > 0.05), and no significant difference was present between RQTcd and PQTcd (56 +/- 16 vs 62 +/- 22; P > 0.05, respectively).
Question: Does exercise increase QTcmax and QTcd in diabetic patients with autonomic neuropathy?
Output:
|
PubmedQA50939
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: To examine whether hyperthermia aggravates cerebral injury in acute ischemia by an excitotoxic mechanism, we studied the relationship between body temperature on admission and CSF concentrations of neuroexcitatory amino acids in 128 patients with acute ischemic stroke of less than 24 h duration. Stroke worsening was defined as the percent change between the Canadian Stroke Scale (CSS) at 48 h and the CSS on admission. Infarct volume was measured on days 4-7 on cranial computed tomography. Excitatory amino acids were analyzed using HPLC. Glutamate concentration [median (min.-max.)] was 11 (2-19) micromol/l in hyperthermic patients (body temperature >37.5 degreesC) and 5 (2-22) micromol/l in normothermic patients (p < 0.0001). Glycine concentration in hyperthermic and normothermic patients was 16 (3-21) micromol/l and 9 (3-50) micromol/l, respectively (p < 0.0001). Glutamate was significantly higher in patients with hyperthermia only during the first 12 h after the onset of symptoms. The CSF concentrations of glutamate (r = 0.52; p < 0.0001) and glycine (r = 0.62; p < 0.0001) correlated with body temperature. Body temperature was significantly related to stroke worsening and infarct size, but this effect was dependent on the glutamate effect.\n Question: Is aggravation of acute ischemic stroke by hyperthermia related to an excitotoxic mechanism?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: To examine whether hyperthermia aggravates cerebral injury in acute ischemia by an excitotoxic mechanism, we studied the relationship between body temperature on admission and CSF concentrations of neuroexcitatory amino acids in 128 patients with acute ischemic stroke of less than 24 h duration. Stroke worsening was defined as the percent change between the Canadian Stroke Scale (CSS) at 48 h and the CSS on admission. Infarct volume was measured on days 4-7 on cranial computed tomography. Excitatory amino acids were analyzed using HPLC. Glutamate concentration [median (min.-max.)] was 11 (2-19) micromol/l in hyperthermic patients (body temperature >37.5 degreesC) and 5 (2-22) micromol/l in normothermic patients (p < 0.0001). Glycine concentration in hyperthermic and normothermic patients was 16 (3-21) micromol/l and 9 (3-50) micromol/l, respectively (p < 0.0001). Glutamate was significantly higher in patients with hyperthermia only during the first 12 h after the onset of symptoms. The CSF concentrations of glutamate (r = 0.52; p < 0.0001) and glycine (r = 0.62; p < 0.0001) correlated with body temperature. Body temperature was significantly related to stroke worsening and infarct size, but this effect was dependent on the glutamate effect.
Question: Is aggravation of acute ischemic stroke by hyperthermia related to an excitotoxic mechanism?
Output:
|
PubmedQA199059
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: The incidences of decompensated cirrhosis (defined by ascites, hepatic encephalopathy, or bleeding esophageal varices), hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC), and liver-related mortality among patients infected with hepatitis C virus (HCV) who achieve a sustained viral response (SVR), compared with patients who fail treatment (treatment failure), are unclear. We performed a meta-analysis to quantify the incidences of these outcomes. This meta-analysis included observational cohort studies that followed HCV treatment failure patients; data were collected regarding the incidence of decompensated cirrhosis, HCC, or liver-related mortality and stratified by SVR status. Two investigators independently extracted data on patient populations, study methods, and results by using standardized forms. The agreement between investigators in data extraction was greater than 95%. Data analysis was performed separately for studies that enrolled only HCV patients with advanced fibrosis. We identified 26 appropriate studies for meta-analysis. Among treatment failure patients with advanced fibrosis, rates of liver-related mortality (2.73%/year; 95% confidence interval [CI], 1.38-4.080), HCC (3.22%/year, 95% CI, 2.02-4.42), and hepatic decompensation (2.92%/year; 95% CI, 1.61-4.22) were substantial. Patients with SVR are significantly less likely than patients who experienced treatment failure to develop liver-related mortality (relative risk [RR], 0.23; 95% CI, 0.10-0.52), HCC (RR, 0.21; 95% CI, 0.16-0.27), or hepatic decompensation (RR, 0.16; 95% CI, 0.04-0.59).\n Question: Is a sustained viral response associated with reduced liver-related morbidity and mortality in patients with hepatitis C virus?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: The incidences of decompensated cirrhosis (defined by ascites, hepatic encephalopathy, or bleeding esophageal varices), hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC), and liver-related mortality among patients infected with hepatitis C virus (HCV) who achieve a sustained viral response (SVR), compared with patients who fail treatment (treatment failure), are unclear. We performed a meta-analysis to quantify the incidences of these outcomes. This meta-analysis included observational cohort studies that followed HCV treatment failure patients; data were collected regarding the incidence of decompensated cirrhosis, HCC, or liver-related mortality and stratified by SVR status. Two investigators independently extracted data on patient populations, study methods, and results by using standardized forms. The agreement between investigators in data extraction was greater than 95%. Data analysis was performed separately for studies that enrolled only HCV patients with advanced fibrosis. We identified 26 appropriate studies for meta-analysis. Among treatment failure patients with advanced fibrosis, rates of liver-related mortality (2.73%/year; 95% confidence interval [CI], 1.38-4.080), HCC (3.22%/year, 95% CI, 2.02-4.42), and hepatic decompensation (2.92%/year; 95% CI, 1.61-4.22) were substantial. Patients with SVR are significantly less likely than patients who experienced treatment failure to develop liver-related mortality (relative risk [RR], 0.23; 95% CI, 0.10-0.52), HCC (RR, 0.21; 95% CI, 0.16-0.27), or hepatic decompensation (RR, 0.16; 95% CI, 0.04-0.59).
Question: Is a sustained viral response associated with reduced liver-related morbidity and mortality in patients with hepatitis C virus?
Output:
|
PubmedQA147377
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Both angiotensin-II (AT-II) and aldosterone (Ald) play pivotal roles in the pathogenesis of diseases in several organs including the liver. We previously reported that suppression of AT-II and Ald with angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor (ACE-I) and selective Ald blocker (SAB), respectively, attenuated the rat liver fibrogenesis and hepatocarcinogenesis. The aim of our current study was to elucidate the combined effects of ACE-I and SAB in the progression of a non-diabetic rat model of steatohepatitis, and the possible mechanisms involved. In the choline-deficient L-amino acid-defined (CDAA) diet-induced model, the effects of ACE-I and SAB on liver fibrosis development and hepatocarcinogenesis were elucidated, especially in conjunction with neovascularization. Treatment with both ACE-I and SAB suppressed the development of liver fibrosis and glutathione-S-transferase placental form (GST-P) positive pre-neoplastic lesions. The combined treatment with both agents exerted more inhibitory effects as compared with either a single agent along with suppression of the activated hepatic stellate cells (Ac-HSC) and neovascularization, both of which play important roles in these processes. Our in vitro study showed that AT-II type 1 receptor blocker (ARB) and SAB inhibited Ac-HSC proliferation and in vitro angiogenesis along with suppression of the in vivo studies.\n Question: Does dual blockade of angiotensin-II and aldosterone suppress the progression of a non-diabetic rat model of steatohepatitis?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: Both angiotensin-II (AT-II) and aldosterone (Ald) play pivotal roles in the pathogenesis of diseases in several organs including the liver. We previously reported that suppression of AT-II and Ald with angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor (ACE-I) and selective Ald blocker (SAB), respectively, attenuated the rat liver fibrogenesis and hepatocarcinogenesis. The aim of our current study was to elucidate the combined effects of ACE-I and SAB in the progression of a non-diabetic rat model of steatohepatitis, and the possible mechanisms involved. In the choline-deficient L-amino acid-defined (CDAA) diet-induced model, the effects of ACE-I and SAB on liver fibrosis development and hepatocarcinogenesis were elucidated, especially in conjunction with neovascularization. Treatment with both ACE-I and SAB suppressed the development of liver fibrosis and glutathione-S-transferase placental form (GST-P) positive pre-neoplastic lesions. The combined treatment with both agents exerted more inhibitory effects as compared with either a single agent along with suppression of the activated hepatic stellate cells (Ac-HSC) and neovascularization, both of which play important roles in these processes. Our in vitro study showed that AT-II type 1 receptor blocker (ARB) and SAB inhibited Ac-HSC proliferation and in vitro angiogenesis along with suppression of the in vivo studies.
Question: Does dual blockade of angiotensin-II and aldosterone suppress the progression of a non-diabetic rat model of steatohepatitis?
Output:
|
PubmedQA9624
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: It has been a matter of controversy whether the polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is actually a causal factor of miscarriages because of the absence of internationally established criteria. We, therefore, in this study investigated whether PCOS and a polycystic ovary (PCO) morphology have predictive value for subsequent miscarriages using new International and Japanese criteria. A total of 195 patients with a history of two consecutive first trimester miscarriages and without abnormal chromosomes in either partner, antiphospholipid antibodies or uterine anomalies, were examined. The prospective pregnancy outcome was compared between patients with and without PCOS, PCO morphology, elevated luteinizing hormone (LH), hyperandrogenism and obesity. Of a total of 195 patients, 56 (28.7%) miscarried subsequently. Three (1.5%) and 12 (6.2%) were diagnosed as suffering from PCOS by Japanese and International criteria respectively. There was no relation between a diagnosis of PCOS, PCO morphology, elevated LH, free testosterone or obesity and the subsequent miscarriage rate.\n Question: Does the polycystic ovary syndrome predict further miscarriage in Japanese couples experiencing recurrent miscarriages?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "no"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: It has been a matter of controversy whether the polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is actually a causal factor of miscarriages because of the absence of internationally established criteria. We, therefore, in this study investigated whether PCOS and a polycystic ovary (PCO) morphology have predictive value for subsequent miscarriages using new International and Japanese criteria. A total of 195 patients with a history of two consecutive first trimester miscarriages and without abnormal chromosomes in either partner, antiphospholipid antibodies or uterine anomalies, were examined. The prospective pregnancy outcome was compared between patients with and without PCOS, PCO morphology, elevated luteinizing hormone (LH), hyperandrogenism and obesity. Of a total of 195 patients, 56 (28.7%) miscarried subsequently. Three (1.5%) and 12 (6.2%) were diagnosed as suffering from PCOS by Japanese and International criteria respectively. There was no relation between a diagnosis of PCOS, PCO morphology, elevated LH, free testosterone or obesity and the subsequent miscarriage rate.
Question: Does the polycystic ovary syndrome predict further miscarriage in Japanese couples experiencing recurrent miscarriages?
Output:
|
PubmedQA14871
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Unwanted multiple upper eyelid folds may occur after various blepharoplasty procedures used in Asian \"double-eyelid\" surgery. These multiple lines are caused by adhesions that may occur after inappropriate manipulation during blepharoplasty. Correction is difficult in cases of multiple reoperations because the adhesions in such cases are severe and an insufficient amount of tissue remains for reconstruction. The authors divided 62 patients into three groups. Patients in group 1 developed lines for reasons unrelated to eyelid surgery, those in group 2 developed lines after blepharoplasty, and those in group 3 developed lines after secondary operations. After skin incision, the authors performed a complete dissection and release of the scar tissue. Then, the authors augmented the preorbital area using eyelid tissues such as the orbicularis oculi muscle and orbital fat to prevent readhesion of the orbicularis oculi and levator muscles. For severe cases, unwanted creases were prevented by rolling the orbicularis oculi muscle and attaching a thick piece of tape to the problem area after surgery. In 57 patients (92 percent), the unwanted lines disappeared completely. Five patients (8 percent) experienced recurrence of the lines, but these lines were successfully corrected by reoperation. All cases with recurrence were in groups 2 and 3, in which the adhesions were very severe.\n Question: Does surgical correction of multiple upper eyelid fold in East Asians?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: Unwanted multiple upper eyelid folds may occur after various blepharoplasty procedures used in Asian "double-eyelid" surgery. These multiple lines are caused by adhesions that may occur after inappropriate manipulation during blepharoplasty. Correction is difficult in cases of multiple reoperations because the adhesions in such cases are severe and an insufficient amount of tissue remains for reconstruction. The authors divided 62 patients into three groups. Patients in group 1 developed lines for reasons unrelated to eyelid surgery, those in group 2 developed lines after blepharoplasty, and those in group 3 developed lines after secondary operations. After skin incision, the authors performed a complete dissection and release of the scar tissue. Then, the authors augmented the preorbital area using eyelid tissues such as the orbicularis oculi muscle and orbital fat to prevent readhesion of the orbicularis oculi and levator muscles. For severe cases, unwanted creases were prevented by rolling the orbicularis oculi muscle and attaching a thick piece of tape to the problem area after surgery. In 57 patients (92 percent), the unwanted lines disappeared completely. Five patients (8 percent) experienced recurrence of the lines, but these lines were successfully corrected by reoperation. All cases with recurrence were in groups 2 and 3, in which the adhesions were very severe.
Question: Does surgical correction of multiple upper eyelid fold in East Asians?
Output:
|
PubmedQA143201
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: New preventive strategies against the development of allergic diseases focus on potentially immunomodulatory components, such as bacterial LPSs. Optimal time frames for initiating immunomodulation to receive a sufficient effect against allergen sensitization are still unclear. Using a mouse model, we investigated the influence of prenatal LPS exposure on later allergen-mediated sensitization and airway inflammation in the offspring. Pregnant BALB/c mice were repeatedly exposed to aerosolized LPS (LPS Escherichia coli; 3x per week, day 7 of gestation time up to delivery). Some of the offspring were further exposed to aerosolized LPS before allergen sensitization with ovalbumin (OVA; administered intraperitoneally day 28 up to day 42) and OVA airway challenges (days 56-58). Positive control animals were placebo exposed to PBS instead of LPS, and negative control animals were first placebo exposed and later placebo sensitized with PBS instead of OVA. Compared with positive control animals, prenatal LPS exposure suppressed (1) allergen-specific sensitization (IgE production), (2) eosinophilic airway inflammation (reduced numbers of eosinophils in bronchoalveolar lavage fluids), and (3) in vivo airway reactivity in response to methacholine. These effects occurred only when prenatal was combined with further postnatal LPS exposure. Suppression of allergen-mediated inflammatory responses was associated with increased Toll-like receptor and T-bet expression by lung tissues and a shift toward predominantly T(H)1 immune responses in spleen cells cultured with OVA in vitro.\n Question: Does prenatal initiation of endotoxin airway exposure prevent subsequent allergen-induced sensitization and airway inflammation in mice?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: New preventive strategies against the development of allergic diseases focus on potentially immunomodulatory components, such as bacterial LPSs. Optimal time frames for initiating immunomodulation to receive a sufficient effect against allergen sensitization are still unclear. Using a mouse model, we investigated the influence of prenatal LPS exposure on later allergen-mediated sensitization and airway inflammation in the offspring. Pregnant BALB/c mice were repeatedly exposed to aerosolized LPS (LPS Escherichia coli; 3x per week, day 7 of gestation time up to delivery). Some of the offspring were further exposed to aerosolized LPS before allergen sensitization with ovalbumin (OVA; administered intraperitoneally day 28 up to day 42) and OVA airway challenges (days 56-58). Positive control animals were placebo exposed to PBS instead of LPS, and negative control animals were first placebo exposed and later placebo sensitized with PBS instead of OVA. Compared with positive control animals, prenatal LPS exposure suppressed (1) allergen-specific sensitization (IgE production), (2) eosinophilic airway inflammation (reduced numbers of eosinophils in bronchoalveolar lavage fluids), and (3) in vivo airway reactivity in response to methacholine. These effects occurred only when prenatal was combined with further postnatal LPS exposure. Suppression of allergen-mediated inflammatory responses was associated with increased Toll-like receptor and T-bet expression by lung tissues and a shift toward predominantly T(H)1 immune responses in spleen cells cultured with OVA in vitro.
Question: Does prenatal initiation of endotoxin airway exposure prevent subsequent allergen-induced sensitization and airway inflammation in mice?
Output:
|
PubmedQA184562
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Errors in prescribing antiretroviral therapy (ART) often occur with the hospitalization of HIV-infected patients. The rapid identification and prevention of errors may reduce patient harm and healthcare-associated costs. A retrospective review of hospitalized HIV-infected patients was carried out between 1 January 2009 and 31 December 2011. Errors were documented as omission, underdose, overdose, duplicate therapy, incorrect scheduling and/or incorrect therapy. The time to error correction was recorded. Relative risks (RRs) were computed to evaluate patient characteristics and error rates. A total of 289 medication errors were identified in 146/416 admissions (35%). The most common was drug omission (69%). At an error rate of 31%, nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors were associated with an increased risk of error when compared with protease inhibitors (RR 1.32; 95% CI 1.04-1.69) and co-formulated drugs (RR 1.59; 95% CI 1.19-2.09). Of the errors, 31% were corrected within the first 24 h, but over half (55%) were never remedied. Admissions with an omission error were 7.4 times more likely to have all errors corrected within 24 h than were admissions without an omission. Drug interactions with ART were detected on 51 occasions. For the study population (n = 177), an increased risk of admission error was observed for black (43%) compared with white (28%) individuals (RR 1.53; 95% CI 1.16-2.03) but no significant differences were observed between white patients and other minorities or between men and women.\n Question: Are antiretroviral medication prescribing errors common with hospitalization of HIV-infected patients?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: Errors in prescribing antiretroviral therapy (ART) often occur with the hospitalization of HIV-infected patients. The rapid identification and prevention of errors may reduce patient harm and healthcare-associated costs. A retrospective review of hospitalized HIV-infected patients was carried out between 1 January 2009 and 31 December 2011. Errors were documented as omission, underdose, overdose, duplicate therapy, incorrect scheduling and/or incorrect therapy. The time to error correction was recorded. Relative risks (RRs) were computed to evaluate patient characteristics and error rates. A total of 289 medication errors were identified in 146/416 admissions (35%). The most common was drug omission (69%). At an error rate of 31%, nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors were associated with an increased risk of error when compared with protease inhibitors (RR 1.32; 95% CI 1.04-1.69) and co-formulated drugs (RR 1.59; 95% CI 1.19-2.09). Of the errors, 31% were corrected within the first 24 h, but over half (55%) were never remedied. Admissions with an omission error were 7.4 times more likely to have all errors corrected within 24 h than were admissions without an omission. Drug interactions with ART were detected on 51 occasions. For the study population (n = 177), an increased risk of admission error was observed for black (43%) compared with white (28%) individuals (RR 1.53; 95% CI 1.16-2.03) but no significant differences were observed between white patients and other minorities or between men and women.
Question: Are antiretroviral medication prescribing errors common with hospitalization of HIV-infected patients?
Output:
|
PubmedQA182792
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: The purpose of this study was to determine whether diary-driven adjustment of Medication Event Monitoring System (MEMS) data based on Supporting Information strengthens the relationship between measured antiretroviral medication adherence and plasma HIV viral load (VL). HIV+ adolescents on antiretroviral treatment were monitored with MEMS for 30 days preceding a VL measurement. The primary outcome was VL ≥ 400 copies/mL. Handwritten diaries were used to comprehensively record deviations from recommended use (bottle opened but dose not taken or bottle not opened and dose taken). Data were adjusted (\"cleaned\") based on diary events. Data were \"capped\" at the prescribed number of doses/day. Receiver operator characteristic analysis compared the relationships between (i) raw MEMS data, (ii) diary-cleaned, (iii) capped, or (iv) cleaned and capped MEMS data and VL. Over 30 days preceding VL measurements, 273 adolescents had 465 diary events. Capping resulted in fewer patients classified as 95% adherent (65.2%) compared with raw data (71.4%), p < 0.001. Adherence was highly associated with VL (OR 1.05, p < 0.001). The area under the receiver operating characteristic curve for continuous adherence compared with VL was 0.89 (95%CI: 0.82-0.95). Neither diary-cleaning, capping, nor cleaning and capping MEMS data significantly altered the association between adherence and VL (p = 0.14, 0.40, and 0.19, respectively).\n Question: Is the adherence-outcome relationship altered by diary-driven adjustments of microelectronic monitor data?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "no"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: The purpose of this study was to determine whether diary-driven adjustment of Medication Event Monitoring System (MEMS) data based on Supporting Information strengthens the relationship between measured antiretroviral medication adherence and plasma HIV viral load (VL). HIV+ adolescents on antiretroviral treatment were monitored with MEMS for 30 days preceding a VL measurement. The primary outcome was VL ≥ 400 copies/mL. Handwritten diaries were used to comprehensively record deviations from recommended use (bottle opened but dose not taken or bottle not opened and dose taken). Data were adjusted ("cleaned") based on diary events. Data were "capped" at the prescribed number of doses/day. Receiver operator characteristic analysis compared the relationships between (i) raw MEMS data, (ii) diary-cleaned, (iii) capped, or (iv) cleaned and capped MEMS data and VL. Over 30 days preceding VL measurements, 273 adolescents had 465 diary events. Capping resulted in fewer patients classified as 95% adherent (65.2%) compared with raw data (71.4%), p < 0.001. Adherence was highly associated with VL (OR 1.05, p < 0.001). The area under the receiver operating characteristic curve for continuous adherence compared with VL was 0.89 (95%CI: 0.82-0.95). Neither diary-cleaning, capping, nor cleaning and capping MEMS data significantly altered the association between adherence and VL (p = 0.14, 0.40, and 0.19, respectively).
Question: Is the adherence-outcome relationship altered by diary-driven adjustments of microelectronic monitor data?
Output:
|
PubmedQA75366
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Hospital and surgeon (provider) volume are associated with clinically significant outcomes for many types of surgery. Volume-outcome studies in patients undergoing radical cystectomy for bladder cancer have focused primarily on postoperative mortality. In the current study, the authors assessed the effect of cystectomy provider volume on long-term mortality. Using administrative databases, 2535 patients who underwent cystectomy by 199 surgeons in 90 hospitals in Ontario, Canada, between 1992 and 2004 were identified. The impact of provider volume on overall survival (OS) was assessed using Cox proportional hazards models fully adjusted for patient and tumor characteristics. Separate models were fit to examine the effect of surgeon and hospital volume. To confirm that the impact of volume on OS was independent of the effect of volume on short-term mortality, analyses were repeated excluding those patients experiencing postoperative deaths. Of 2535 patients, 1796 (70.9%) died during the study period. Both higher hospital volume (hazards ratio [per unit increase in average annual number of procedures], 0.995; 95% confidence interval, 0.990-1.000 [P = .044]) and higher surgeon volume (hazards ratio, 0.984; 95% confidence interval, 0.975-0.994 [P = .002]) were found to be significantly associated with improved OS. Excluding post-operative deaths did not alter the results. Further analyses revealed that the benefit of high volume was attained by receiving care from either high-volume hospitals or high-volume surgeons.\n Question: Does higher surgeon and hospital volume improve long-term survival after radical cystectomy?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: Hospital and surgeon (provider) volume are associated with clinically significant outcomes for many types of surgery. Volume-outcome studies in patients undergoing radical cystectomy for bladder cancer have focused primarily on postoperative mortality. In the current study, the authors assessed the effect of cystectomy provider volume on long-term mortality. Using administrative databases, 2535 patients who underwent cystectomy by 199 surgeons in 90 hospitals in Ontario, Canada, between 1992 and 2004 were identified. The impact of provider volume on overall survival (OS) was assessed using Cox proportional hazards models fully adjusted for patient and tumor characteristics. Separate models were fit to examine the effect of surgeon and hospital volume. To confirm that the impact of volume on OS was independent of the effect of volume on short-term mortality, analyses were repeated excluding those patients experiencing postoperative deaths. Of 2535 patients, 1796 (70.9%) died during the study period. Both higher hospital volume (hazards ratio [per unit increase in average annual number of procedures], 0.995; 95% confidence interval, 0.990-1.000 [P = .044]) and higher surgeon volume (hazards ratio, 0.984; 95% confidence interval, 0.975-0.994 [P = .002]) were found to be significantly associated with improved OS. Excluding post-operative deaths did not alter the results. Further analyses revealed that the benefit of high volume was attained by receiving care from either high-volume hospitals or high-volume surgeons.
Question: Does higher surgeon and hospital volume improve long-term survival after radical cystectomy?
Output:
|
PubmedQA54185
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Numerical and structural centrosome changes have been described for and linked with genetic instability in solid tumors. Here, we specifically address centrosome aberrations in the adenoma-carcinoma sequence of colorectal cancer by detailed evaluation of gamma-tubulin staining patterns. Formalin-fixed and paraffin-embedded specimens (normal colonic epithelium n=21; low-grade intraepithelial neoplasia n=27, high-grade intraepithelial neoplasia n=16 and invasive adenocarcinomas n=33) were stained by an anti-gamma-tubulin antibody using standard immunofluorescence. Three-dimensional image stacks of the stainings were recorded (Zeiss LSM510 confocal microscope), followed by numerical and structural data analysis (DIAS software package) and statistical evaluation (NCSS-software). The mean centrosome signal per cell differed significantly (P<0.0001) between normal colonic epithelium (0.8775) and each low-grade intraepithelial neoplasia (1.787), high-grade intraepithelial neoplasia (2.259) and invasive carcinomas (2.267). Similarly, both the centrosomes' structural entropy (SE) and minimal spanning tree (MST) differed significantly (P<0.001) between normal (SE=3.956, MST=38.78) and each low- (SE=6.39, MST=26) and high-grade intraepithelial neoplasia (SE=5.75, MST=26.97) and invasive carcinoma (SE=6.86, MST=28.08).\n Question: Are numerical and structural centrosome aberrations an early and stable event in the adenoma-carcinoma sequence of colorectal carcinomas?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: Numerical and structural centrosome changes have been described for and linked with genetic instability in solid tumors. Here, we specifically address centrosome aberrations in the adenoma-carcinoma sequence of colorectal cancer by detailed evaluation of gamma-tubulin staining patterns. Formalin-fixed and paraffin-embedded specimens (normal colonic epithelium n=21; low-grade intraepithelial neoplasia n=27, high-grade intraepithelial neoplasia n=16 and invasive adenocarcinomas n=33) were stained by an anti-gamma-tubulin antibody using standard immunofluorescence. Three-dimensional image stacks of the stainings were recorded (Zeiss LSM510 confocal microscope), followed by numerical and structural data analysis (DIAS software package) and statistical evaluation (NCSS-software). The mean centrosome signal per cell differed significantly (P<0.0001) between normal colonic epithelium (0.8775) and each low-grade intraepithelial neoplasia (1.787), high-grade intraepithelial neoplasia (2.259) and invasive carcinomas (2.267). Similarly, both the centrosomes' structural entropy (SE) and minimal spanning tree (MST) differed significantly (P<0.001) between normal (SE=3.956, MST=38.78) and each low- (SE=6.39, MST=26) and high-grade intraepithelial neoplasia (SE=5.75, MST=26.97) and invasive carcinoma (SE=6.86, MST=28.08).
Question: Are numerical and structural centrosome aberrations an early and stable event in the adenoma-carcinoma sequence of colorectal carcinomas?
Output:
|
PubmedQA160934
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Research published in Circulation has shown that cardiac mortality is highest during December and January. We investigated whether some of this spike could be ascribed to the Christmas/New Year's holidays rather than to climatic factors. We fitted a locally weighted polynomial regression line to daily mortality to estimate the number of deaths expected during the holiday period, using the null hypothesis that natural-cause mortality is unaffected by the Christmas/New Year's holidays. We then compared the number of deaths expected during the holiday period, given the null hypothesis, with the number of deaths observed. For cardiac and noncardiac diseases, a spike in daily mortality occurs during the Christmas/New Year's holiday period. This spike persists after adjusting for trends and seasons and is particularly large for individuals who are dead on arrival at a hospital, die in the emergency department, or die as outpatients. For this group during the holiday period, 4.65% (+/-0.30%; 95% CI, 4.06% to 5.24%) more cardiac and 4.99% (+/-0.42%; 95% CI, 4.17% to 5.81%) more noncardiac deaths occur than would be expected if the holidays did not affect mortality. Cardiac mortality for individuals who are dead on arrival, die in the emergency department, or die as outpatients peaks at Christmas and again at New Year's. These twin holiday spikes also are conspicuous for noncardiac mortality. The excess in holiday mortality is growing proportionately larger over time, both for cardiac and noncardiac mortality.\n Question: Is cardiac mortality higher around Christmas and New Year 's than at any other time : the holidays as a risk factor for death?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: Research published in Circulation has shown that cardiac mortality is highest during December and January. We investigated whether some of this spike could be ascribed to the Christmas/New Year's holidays rather than to climatic factors. We fitted a locally weighted polynomial regression line to daily mortality to estimate the number of deaths expected during the holiday period, using the null hypothesis that natural-cause mortality is unaffected by the Christmas/New Year's holidays. We then compared the number of deaths expected during the holiday period, given the null hypothesis, with the number of deaths observed. For cardiac and noncardiac diseases, a spike in daily mortality occurs during the Christmas/New Year's holiday period. This spike persists after adjusting for trends and seasons and is particularly large for individuals who are dead on arrival at a hospital, die in the emergency department, or die as outpatients. For this group during the holiday period, 4.65% (+/-0.30%; 95% CI, 4.06% to 5.24%) more cardiac and 4.99% (+/-0.42%; 95% CI, 4.17% to 5.81%) more noncardiac deaths occur than would be expected if the holidays did not affect mortality. Cardiac mortality for individuals who are dead on arrival, die in the emergency department, or die as outpatients peaks at Christmas and again at New Year's. These twin holiday spikes also are conspicuous for noncardiac mortality. The excess in holiday mortality is growing proportionately larger over time, both for cardiac and noncardiac mortality.
Question: Is cardiac mortality higher around Christmas and New Year 's than at any other time : the holidays as a risk factor for death?
Output:
|
PubmedQA7313
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: To assess BGC823 gastric cancer (GC) cell metastasis after knockdown of liver-intestine cadherin (CDH17) and the therapeutic value of CDH17-RNAi-lentivirus in vivo. We evaluated primary tumor growth and assessed local infiltration and systemic tumor dissemination using an orthotopic implantation technique. The therapeutic value of CDH17 knockdown was examined by intratumoral administration of CDH17-RNA interference (RNAi)-lentivirus in an established GC tumor xenograft mouse model. Furthermore, a comparative proteomic approach was utilized to identify differentially expressed proteins in BGC823 and lenti-CDH17-miR-neg cells following CDH17 knockdown. Metastases in the liver and lung appeared earlier and more frequently in animals with tumors derived from BGC823 or lenti-CDH17-miR-neg cells than in tumors derived from lenti-CDH17-miR-B cells. Average tumor weight and volume in the CDH17-RNAi-lentivirus-treated group were significantly lower than those in the control group (tumor volume: 0.89 ± 0.04 cm³ vs 1.16 ± 0.06 cm³, P < 0.05; tumor weight: 1.15 ± 0.58 g vs 2.09 ± 0.08 g, P < 0.05). Fifteen differentially expressed proteins were identified after CDH17 silencing in BGC823 cells, including a variety of cytoskeletal and chaperone proteins as well as proteins involved in metabolism, immunity/defense, cell proliferation and differentiation, cell cycle, and signal transduction.\n Question: Does knockdown of liver-intestine cadherin decrease BGC823 cell invasiveness and metastasis in vivo?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: To assess BGC823 gastric cancer (GC) cell metastasis after knockdown of liver-intestine cadherin (CDH17) and the therapeutic value of CDH17-RNAi-lentivirus in vivo. We evaluated primary tumor growth and assessed local infiltration and systemic tumor dissemination using an orthotopic implantation technique. The therapeutic value of CDH17 knockdown was examined by intratumoral administration of CDH17-RNA interference (RNAi)-lentivirus in an established GC tumor xenograft mouse model. Furthermore, a comparative proteomic approach was utilized to identify differentially expressed proteins in BGC823 and lenti-CDH17-miR-neg cells following CDH17 knockdown. Metastases in the liver and lung appeared earlier and more frequently in animals with tumors derived from BGC823 or lenti-CDH17-miR-neg cells than in tumors derived from lenti-CDH17-miR-B cells. Average tumor weight and volume in the CDH17-RNAi-lentivirus-treated group were significantly lower than those in the control group (tumor volume: 0.89 ± 0.04 cm³ vs 1.16 ± 0.06 cm³, P < 0.05; tumor weight: 1.15 ± 0.58 g vs 2.09 ± 0.08 g, P < 0.05). Fifteen differentially expressed proteins were identified after CDH17 silencing in BGC823 cells, including a variety of cytoskeletal and chaperone proteins as well as proteins involved in metabolism, immunity/defense, cell proliferation and differentiation, cell cycle, and signal transduction.
Question: Does knockdown of liver-intestine cadherin decrease BGC823 cell invasiveness and metastasis in vivo?
Output:
|
PubmedQA32986
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Recent studies have indicated that maximum expiration could be a useful way of performing challenging exercises that include coactivation of the deep and superficial abdominal muscles. However, little is known about the effect of maximum expiration on the activity of the abdominal muscles during lumbar stabilizing exercise. The purpose of our study was to quantify changes in the activities of the abdominal muscles during side bridge exercise in combination with maximum expiration. Experimental laboratory study. The activities of the rectus abdominis (RA), external oblique (EO), and internal oblique (IO) muscles were measured using electromyography in 12 healthy men performing 3 tasks: holding the breath after maximum expiration in the supine position, holding the breath after resting expiration during side bridge exercise, and holding the breath after maximum expiration during side bridge exercise. Significant increases in the activities of the abdominal muscles (RA, EO, and IO) occurred with maximum expiration when compared with resting expiration during side bridge exercise (P <0.05).\n Question: Does maximum expiration activate the abdominal muscles during side bridge exercise?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: Recent studies have indicated that maximum expiration could be a useful way of performing challenging exercises that include coactivation of the deep and superficial abdominal muscles. However, little is known about the effect of maximum expiration on the activity of the abdominal muscles during lumbar stabilizing exercise. The purpose of our study was to quantify changes in the activities of the abdominal muscles during side bridge exercise in combination with maximum expiration. Experimental laboratory study. The activities of the rectus abdominis (RA), external oblique (EO), and internal oblique (IO) muscles were measured using electromyography in 12 healthy men performing 3 tasks: holding the breath after maximum expiration in the supine position, holding the breath after resting expiration during side bridge exercise, and holding the breath after maximum expiration during side bridge exercise. Significant increases in the activities of the abdominal muscles (RA, EO, and IO) occurred with maximum expiration when compared with resting expiration during side bridge exercise (P <0.05).
Question: Does maximum expiration activate the abdominal muscles during side bridge exercise?
Output:
|
PubmedQA190433
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: The D category VI (DVI) is one of the clinically most important partial D. Three different molecular structures causing the DVI phenotype have been described. To determine the molecular basis of the DVI phenotype in the Spanish population, 20 DVI samples, previously detected in serologic screening, were examined by polymerase chain reaction with RHD exon-specific primers. Unexpected findings were further pursued by cDNA nucleotide sequencing. A novel pattern of RHD exon amplification was detected, which did not correspond to any of the previously described molecular structures. The cDNA sequence led to the identification of the new hybrid RHD-Ce(3-5)-D allele. The origin of exon 2 is undeterminable, because the 5' breakpoint was located within a region of RHD and RHCE identical sequence, which encompasses this exon. Sequencing of intron 5 allowed the 3' breakpoint to be mapped between the sixth and seventh polymorphic sites. Serologically, the hybrid protein has a D epitope expression pattern identical to the previously described DVI phenotypes and an antigen density slightly lower than DVI type 3. The new DVI variant is linked to the DCe haplotype and expresses the low-incidence BARC antigen.\n Question: Is the D category VI type 4 allele prevalent in the Spanish population?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: The D category VI (DVI) is one of the clinically most important partial D. Three different molecular structures causing the DVI phenotype have been described. To determine the molecular basis of the DVI phenotype in the Spanish population, 20 DVI samples, previously detected in serologic screening, were examined by polymerase chain reaction with RHD exon-specific primers. Unexpected findings were further pursued by cDNA nucleotide sequencing. A novel pattern of RHD exon amplification was detected, which did not correspond to any of the previously described molecular structures. The cDNA sequence led to the identification of the new hybrid RHD-Ce(3-5)-D allele. The origin of exon 2 is undeterminable, because the 5' breakpoint was located within a region of RHD and RHCE identical sequence, which encompasses this exon. Sequencing of intron 5 allowed the 3' breakpoint to be mapped between the sixth and seventh polymorphic sites. Serologically, the hybrid protein has a D epitope expression pattern identical to the previously described DVI phenotypes and an antigen density slightly lower than DVI type 3. The new DVI variant is linked to the DCe haplotype and expresses the low-incidence BARC antigen.
Question: Is the D category VI type 4 allele prevalent in the Spanish population?
Output:
|
PubmedQA204353
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: The aim of this study is to investigate the relationship between plasma NH2-terminal pro-brain natriuretic peptide (NT-proBNP) levels and diabetic nephropathy in type 2 diabetic patients. The records of 983 patients with type 2 diabetes hospitalized in the Endocrinology and Metabolism Department of Peking University People's Hospital between January 2009 and December 2012 were reviewed. Based on their urinary albumin-to-creatinine ratio (UACR), the subjects were divided into three groups, those with normal, micro- and macro-albuminuria. Clinical manifestations and biochemical parameters, including plasma NT-proBNP concentrations, were compared between the three groups. The association between plasma NT-proBNP levels and stages of diabetic nephropathy was also evaluated by ordinal and stepwise linear regression analyses. The median plasma NT-proBNP concentration in the 983 patients with type 2 diabetes was 60.3 pg/ml, which is within the normal range of healthy subjects. One-way ANOVA analysis showed significant differences in plasma NT-proBNP concentrations among the three groups (p=0.000). Ordinal logistic regression analysis showed that plasma NT-proBNP concentration was an independent risk factor for advanced diabetic nephropathy (odds ratio=1.87,95% CI 1.52-2.29, p=0.000). Plasma NT-proBNP concentration was highly correlated with UACR (r=0.421, p=0.000) and had an independently positive association with UACR by stepwise linear regression analysis (p=0.000).\n Question: Is plasma NT-proBNP independently associated with albuminuria in type 2 diabetes?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: The aim of this study is to investigate the relationship between plasma NH2-terminal pro-brain natriuretic peptide (NT-proBNP) levels and diabetic nephropathy in type 2 diabetic patients. The records of 983 patients with type 2 diabetes hospitalized in the Endocrinology and Metabolism Department of Peking University People's Hospital between January 2009 and December 2012 were reviewed. Based on their urinary albumin-to-creatinine ratio (UACR), the subjects were divided into three groups, those with normal, micro- and macro-albuminuria. Clinical manifestations and biochemical parameters, including plasma NT-proBNP concentrations, were compared between the three groups. The association between plasma NT-proBNP levels and stages of diabetic nephropathy was also evaluated by ordinal and stepwise linear regression analyses. The median plasma NT-proBNP concentration in the 983 patients with type 2 diabetes was 60.3 pg/ml, which is within the normal range of healthy subjects. One-way ANOVA analysis showed significant differences in plasma NT-proBNP concentrations among the three groups (p=0.000). Ordinal logistic regression analysis showed that plasma NT-proBNP concentration was an independent risk factor for advanced diabetic nephropathy (odds ratio=1.87,95% CI 1.52-2.29, p=0.000). Plasma NT-proBNP concentration was highly correlated with UACR (r=0.421, p=0.000) and had an independently positive association with UACR by stepwise linear regression analysis (p=0.000).
Question: Is plasma NT-proBNP independently associated with albuminuria in type 2 diabetes?
Output:
|
PubmedQA75440
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Holmium laser enucleation of the prostate (HoLEP) is recognised as an alternative to transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). HoLEP has been demonstrated to be at least as effective as TURP with less morbidity but its introduction to practice has been limited in part by the learning curve of a novel procedure. This study examined the effects of introducing HoLEP alongside an established practice of TURP on early morbidity and length of hospital stay (LOS). A retrospective review of all patients who underwent HoLEP and TURP between April 2007 and July 2011 was undertaken. HoLEP was introduced in April 2008; patients undergoing TURP before this were considered as a historical control group. Data were collected concerning resection/enucleation weight, blood transfusions and LOS. Overall, 772 patients underwent HoLEP or TURP within the 52-month study period: 164 underwent TURP prior to the introduction of HoLEP (TURP-A), 425 had TURP after the introduction of HoLEP (TURP-B) and 183 underwent HoLEP. The mean removed weight was 24g (standard deviation [SD]: 21g) for TURP-A, 19g for TURP-B (SD: 16g) and 38g (SD: 32g) for HoLEP (p<0.005). Blood transfusion rates were 5.5%, 2.2% and 1.6% for the TURP-A, TURP-B and HoLEP groups respectively (p<0.05). For TURP-A patients, the mean LOS was 5.6 days (SD: 3.5 days, 95% confidence interval [CI]: 5.3-6.0 days). The mean LOS for TURP-B patients was 4.4 days (SD: 4.4 days, 95% CI: 4.2-4.8 days). HoLEP patients had a mean LOS of 3.0 days (SD: 3.0 days, 95% CI: 2.6-3.4 days).\n Question: Does introducing holmium laser enucleation of the prostate alongside transurethral resection of the prostate improve outcomes of each procedure?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: Holmium laser enucleation of the prostate (HoLEP) is recognised as an alternative to transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). HoLEP has been demonstrated to be at least as effective as TURP with less morbidity but its introduction to practice has been limited in part by the learning curve of a novel procedure. This study examined the effects of introducing HoLEP alongside an established practice of TURP on early morbidity and length of hospital stay (LOS). A retrospective review of all patients who underwent HoLEP and TURP between April 2007 and July 2011 was undertaken. HoLEP was introduced in April 2008; patients undergoing TURP before this were considered as a historical control group. Data were collected concerning resection/enucleation weight, blood transfusions and LOS. Overall, 772 patients underwent HoLEP or TURP within the 52-month study period: 164 underwent TURP prior to the introduction of HoLEP (TURP-A), 425 had TURP after the introduction of HoLEP (TURP-B) and 183 underwent HoLEP. The mean removed weight was 24g (standard deviation [SD]: 21g) for TURP-A, 19g for TURP-B (SD: 16g) and 38g (SD: 32g) for HoLEP (p<0.005). Blood transfusion rates were 5.5%, 2.2% and 1.6% for the TURP-A, TURP-B and HoLEP groups respectively (p<0.05). For TURP-A patients, the mean LOS was 5.6 days (SD: 3.5 days, 95% confidence interval [CI]: 5.3-6.0 days). The mean LOS for TURP-B patients was 4.4 days (SD: 4.4 days, 95% CI: 4.2-4.8 days). HoLEP patients had a mean LOS of 3.0 days (SD: 3.0 days, 95% CI: 2.6-3.4 days).
Question: Does introducing holmium laser enucleation of the prostate alongside transurethral resection of the prostate improve outcomes of each procedure?
Output:
|
PubmedQA4171
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Parathyroidectomy (PTx) is the most successful treatment for advanced secondary hyperparathyroidism (2HPT) not responsive to medical treatment. However, persistent HPT remains problematic after PTx if some glands remain. The clinical course in patients with persistent 2HPT was evaluated to clarify the risk for re-operation after PTx. Between March 1981 and December 2001, initial total PTx with forearm autograft were performed in 1156 uraemic patients. Persistent HPT cases were defined as those in which the lowest post-operative intact parathyroid hormone (i-PTH) concentration was >60 pg/ml, and patients were classified into groups A, B and C, with i-PTH concentrations of >or=500, 300-500 and 60-300 pg/ml, respectively. These patients were followed for 7-234 months after PTx. Persistent HPT was identified in 49/1156 patients (4.2%), with nine cases in group A, 10 in group B and 30 in group C. Re-operation was required in 21/49 (42.8%) cases, and in seven of these the last i-PTH concentration was >or=500 pg/ml. All cases in group A required re-operation. In group C, 11/30 (36.7%) patients required re-operation. The missed glands removed at re-operation were supernumerary in 14 cases, and located in the mediastinum in 13 cases. The frequency of advanced HPT and re-operation was not negligible.\n Question: Is re-operation frequently required when parathyroid glands remain after initial parathyroidectomy for advanced secondary hyperparathyroidism in uraemic patients?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: Parathyroidectomy (PTx) is the most successful treatment for advanced secondary hyperparathyroidism (2HPT) not responsive to medical treatment. However, persistent HPT remains problematic after PTx if some glands remain. The clinical course in patients with persistent 2HPT was evaluated to clarify the risk for re-operation after PTx. Between March 1981 and December 2001, initial total PTx with forearm autograft were performed in 1156 uraemic patients. Persistent HPT cases were defined as those in which the lowest post-operative intact parathyroid hormone (i-PTH) concentration was >60 pg/ml, and patients were classified into groups A, B and C, with i-PTH concentrations of >or=500, 300-500 and 60-300 pg/ml, respectively. These patients were followed for 7-234 months after PTx. Persistent HPT was identified in 49/1156 patients (4.2%), with nine cases in group A, 10 in group B and 30 in group C. Re-operation was required in 21/49 (42.8%) cases, and in seven of these the last i-PTH concentration was >or=500 pg/ml. All cases in group A required re-operation. In group C, 11/30 (36.7%) patients required re-operation. The missed glands removed at re-operation were supernumerary in 14 cases, and located in the mediastinum in 13 cases. The frequency of advanced HPT and re-operation was not negligible.
Question: Is re-operation frequently required when parathyroid glands remain after initial parathyroidectomy for advanced secondary hyperparathyroidism in uraemic patients?
Output:
|
PubmedQA178808
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Prostate specific antigen (PSA) is a well known biomarker for early diagnosis and management of prostate cancer. Furthermore, PSA has been documented to have anti-angiogenic and anti-tumorigenic activities in both in vitro and in vivo studies. However, little is known about the molecular mechanism(s) involved in regulation of these processes, in particular the role of the serine-protease enzymatic activity of PSA. Enzymatic activity of PSA isolated directly from seminal plasma was inhibited specifically (>95%) by incubation with zinc2+ . Human umbilical vein endothelial cells (HUVEC) were utilized to compare/contrast the physiological effects of enzymatically active versus inactive PSA. Equimolar concentrations of enzymatically active PSA and PSA enzymatically inactivated by incubation with Zn2+ had similar physiological effects on HUVEC, including inhibiting the gene expression of pro-angiogenic growth factors, like VEGF and bFGF, and up-regulation of expression of the anti-angiogenic growth factor IFN-γ; suppression of mRNA expression for markers of blood vessel development, like FAK, FLT, KDR, TWIST-1; P-38; inhibition of endothelial tube formation in the in vitro Matrigel Tube Formation Assay; and inhibition of endothelial cell invasion and migration properties.\n Question: Is enzymatic activity of free-prostate-specific antigen ( f-PSA ) required for some of its physiological activities?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "no"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: Prostate specific antigen (PSA) is a well known biomarker for early diagnosis and management of prostate cancer. Furthermore, PSA has been documented to have anti-angiogenic and anti-tumorigenic activities in both in vitro and in vivo studies. However, little is known about the molecular mechanism(s) involved in regulation of these processes, in particular the role of the serine-protease enzymatic activity of PSA. Enzymatic activity of PSA isolated directly from seminal plasma was inhibited specifically (>95%) by incubation with zinc2+ . Human umbilical vein endothelial cells (HUVEC) were utilized to compare/contrast the physiological effects of enzymatically active versus inactive PSA. Equimolar concentrations of enzymatically active PSA and PSA enzymatically inactivated by incubation with Zn2+ had similar physiological effects on HUVEC, including inhibiting the gene expression of pro-angiogenic growth factors, like VEGF and bFGF, and up-regulation of expression of the anti-angiogenic growth factor IFN-γ; suppression of mRNA expression for markers of blood vessel development, like FAK, FLT, KDR, TWIST-1; P-38; inhibition of endothelial tube formation in the in vitro Matrigel Tube Formation Assay; and inhibition of endothelial cell invasion and migration properties.
Question: Is enzymatic activity of free-prostate-specific antigen ( f-PSA ) required for some of its physiological activities?
Output:
|
PubmedQA25751
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Mmeasurement of ankle brachial pressure indices (ABPI) is important in the assessment of patients with peripheral vascular disease. Thirty-one hospitals with a vascular surgeon were selected at random. A telephone questionnaire was completed to assess the method used for the measurement of ABPI. Following the survey, 14 patients with peripheral vascular disease had their ABPI measurement done by two observers, a pre-registration house officer and a clinical nurse practitioner. Observers were blinded to their own and each other's results. Brachial systolic pressures were obtained using a DINAMAP(TM)(Critikon, Tampa, U.S.A.) automated blood pressure monitor, the Korotkoff method (12 cm cuff, parallel wrap) and an 8 MHz Doppler probe (Huntleigh) and sphygmomanometer. Ankle systolic pressures were obtained using the Doppler probe. The results were analysed using the Wilcoxon signed rank test. The survey demonstrated that at the majority of centres with vascular laboratories the brachial artery systolic pressures were measured using a Doppler probe. In contrast, at centres where the house officers performed the routine measurements, over 60% used the Korotkoff method to obtain this reading. One in four nurse practitioners used the Korotkoff method. When the ABPI values were calculated, the DINAMAP produced significantly higher median values than the Korotkoff (0.79 vs 0.72, p=0.003) and Doppler methods (0.79 vs 0.70, p<0.0001). The nurse had a higher median ABPI value of 0.76 compared with the doctor (0.71, p=0.01).\n Question: Does variation of method for measurement of brachial artery pressure significantly affect ankle-brachial pressure index values?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: Mmeasurement of ankle brachial pressure indices (ABPI) is important in the assessment of patients with peripheral vascular disease. Thirty-one hospitals with a vascular surgeon were selected at random. A telephone questionnaire was completed to assess the method used for the measurement of ABPI. Following the survey, 14 patients with peripheral vascular disease had their ABPI measurement done by two observers, a pre-registration house officer and a clinical nurse practitioner. Observers were blinded to their own and each other's results. Brachial systolic pressures were obtained using a DINAMAP(TM)(Critikon, Tampa, U.S.A.) automated blood pressure monitor, the Korotkoff method (12 cm cuff, parallel wrap) and an 8 MHz Doppler probe (Huntleigh) and sphygmomanometer. Ankle systolic pressures were obtained using the Doppler probe. The results were analysed using the Wilcoxon signed rank test. The survey demonstrated that at the majority of centres with vascular laboratories the brachial artery systolic pressures were measured using a Doppler probe. In contrast, at centres where the house officers performed the routine measurements, over 60% used the Korotkoff method to obtain this reading. One in four nurse practitioners used the Korotkoff method. When the ABPI values were calculated, the DINAMAP produced significantly higher median values than the Korotkoff (0.79 vs 0.72, p=0.003) and Doppler methods (0.79 vs 0.70, p<0.0001). The nurse had a higher median ABPI value of 0.76 compared with the doctor (0.71, p=0.01).
Question: Does variation of method for measurement of brachial artery pressure significantly affect ankle-brachial pressure index values?
Output:
|
PubmedQA166727
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: The results of surgical therapy alone for pancreatic cancer are disappointing. We explored surgical results after neoadjuvant chemoradiation therapy (NACRT) for patients with pancreatic cancer that extended beyond the pancreas. Sixty-eight consecutive patients with pancreatic cancer who underwent pancreatic resection were included. Twenty-seven patients underwent surgical resection after NACRT (NACRT group). The other 41 patients were classified as surgery-alone group. Surgical results were compared in patients who underwent curative resection (R0/1) who were followed up for at least 25 months and underwent no adjuvant therapy. A lower frequency of lymph node metastasis was observed in the NACRT group (P < 0.05). The frequency of residual tumor grading in the NACRT group was significantly different from that in surgery-alone (R0/1/2%, 52/15/33 vs 22/51/27; P = 0.0040). In R0/1 cases, overall survival and disease-free survival rates in the NACRT group (n = 18) were significantly longer than in surgery-alone (n = 30, P < 0.05). The rate of local recurrence in the NACRT group was significantly less than in surgery-alone (11% vs 47%, P = 0.0024).\n Question: Does surgical result after preoperative chemoradiation therapy for patients with pancreatic cancer?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: The results of surgical therapy alone for pancreatic cancer are disappointing. We explored surgical results after neoadjuvant chemoradiation therapy (NACRT) for patients with pancreatic cancer that extended beyond the pancreas. Sixty-eight consecutive patients with pancreatic cancer who underwent pancreatic resection were included. Twenty-seven patients underwent surgical resection after NACRT (NACRT group). The other 41 patients were classified as surgery-alone group. Surgical results were compared in patients who underwent curative resection (R0/1) who were followed up for at least 25 months and underwent no adjuvant therapy. A lower frequency of lymph node metastasis was observed in the NACRT group (P < 0.05). The frequency of residual tumor grading in the NACRT group was significantly different from that in surgery-alone (R0/1/2%, 52/15/33 vs 22/51/27; P = 0.0040). In R0/1 cases, overall survival and disease-free survival rates in the NACRT group (n = 18) were significantly longer than in surgery-alone (n = 30, P < 0.05). The rate of local recurrence in the NACRT group was significantly less than in surgery-alone (11% vs 47%, P = 0.0024).
Question: Does surgical result after preoperative chemoradiation therapy for patients with pancreatic cancer?
Output:
|
PubmedQA79820
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Both C1-inhibitor (C1-INH) and antibodies against the CD18 adhesion molecule have been shown to reduce ischaemia-reperfusion injuries. The objective of this study was to investigate the effect of increased ischaemia times and to determine whether inhibiting C1 or blocking the CD18 function was protective in skeletal muscle ischaemia-reperfusion injury after aortic cross-clamping. BALB/c mice were subjected to aortic cross-clamping below the renal artery for 60, 75 or 105 min, followed by 3 h of reperfusion. Two-thirds of a total dose of anti-CD18 antibody (40 mg/kg) or human C1-INH (1,000 IU/kg) was given by intraperitoneal injection before ischaemia and one-third immediately after the clamping. Creatine kinase (CK) in the plasma was used as an indicator of muscle injury severity. There was a consistent rise in the plasma CK concentration proportional to the length of ischaemia (P < 0.0005). C1-INH treatment significantly (P = 0.012) reduced the plasma CK for the ischaemia times of 75 and 105 min. The anti-CD18 antibody did not have any effect, as demonstrated by the CK values that were similar to controls (P = 0.836).\n Question: Does c1-inhibitor reduce the ischaemia-reperfusion injury of skeletal muscles in mice after aortic cross-clamping?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: Both C1-inhibitor (C1-INH) and antibodies against the CD18 adhesion molecule have been shown to reduce ischaemia-reperfusion injuries. The objective of this study was to investigate the effect of increased ischaemia times and to determine whether inhibiting C1 or blocking the CD18 function was protective in skeletal muscle ischaemia-reperfusion injury after aortic cross-clamping. BALB/c mice were subjected to aortic cross-clamping below the renal artery for 60, 75 or 105 min, followed by 3 h of reperfusion. Two-thirds of a total dose of anti-CD18 antibody (40 mg/kg) or human C1-INH (1,000 IU/kg) was given by intraperitoneal injection before ischaemia and one-third immediately after the clamping. Creatine kinase (CK) in the plasma was used as an indicator of muscle injury severity. There was a consistent rise in the plasma CK concentration proportional to the length of ischaemia (P < 0.0005). C1-INH treatment significantly (P = 0.012) reduced the plasma CK for the ischaemia times of 75 and 105 min. The anti-CD18 antibody did not have any effect, as demonstrated by the CK values that were similar to controls (P = 0.836).
Question: Does c1-inhibitor reduce the ischaemia-reperfusion injury of skeletal muscles in mice after aortic cross-clamping?
Output:
|
PubmedQA20650
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Genes encoding the circadian pacemaker in the hypothalamic suprachiasmatic nuclei (SCN) of mammals have recently been identified, but the molecular basis of circadian timing in peripheral tissue is not well understood. We used a custom-made cDNA microarray to identify mouse liver transcripts that show circadian cycles of abundance under constant conditions. Using two independent tissue sampling and hybridization regimes, we show that approximately 9% of the 2122 genes studied show robust circadian cycling in the liver. These transcripts were categorized by their phase of abundance, defining clusters of day- and night-related genes, and also by the function of their products. Circadian regulation of genes was tissue specific, insofar as novel rhythmic liver genes were not necessarily rhythmic in the brain, even when expressed in the SCN. The rhythmic transcriptome in the periphery is, nevertheless, dependent on the SCN because surgical ablation of the SCN severely dampened or destroyed completely the cyclical expression of both canonical circadian genes and novel genes identified by microarray analysis.\n Question: Is circadian cycling of the mouse liver transcriptome , as revealed by cDNA microarray , driven by the suprachiasmatic nucleus?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: Genes encoding the circadian pacemaker in the hypothalamic suprachiasmatic nuclei (SCN) of mammals have recently been identified, but the molecular basis of circadian timing in peripheral tissue is not well understood. We used a custom-made cDNA microarray to identify mouse liver transcripts that show circadian cycles of abundance under constant conditions. Using two independent tissue sampling and hybridization regimes, we show that approximately 9% of the 2122 genes studied show robust circadian cycling in the liver. These transcripts were categorized by their phase of abundance, defining clusters of day- and night-related genes, and also by the function of their products. Circadian regulation of genes was tissue specific, insofar as novel rhythmic liver genes were not necessarily rhythmic in the brain, even when expressed in the SCN. The rhythmic transcriptome in the periphery is, nevertheless, dependent on the SCN because surgical ablation of the SCN severely dampened or destroyed completely the cyclical expression of both canonical circadian genes and novel genes identified by microarray analysis.
Question: Is circadian cycling of the mouse liver transcriptome , as revealed by cDNA microarray , driven by the suprachiasmatic nucleus?
Output:
|
PubmedQA115147
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: To investigate the effects of a novel agent, caffeic acid phethyl ester (CAPE) on nuclear factor (NF)-kappaB activation and apoptosis in the androgen-independent PC3 prostate cancer cell line. PC-3 cells were assessed for NF-kappaB activation induced by paclitaxel and tumour necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha), using a p65 enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay, with or without CAPE treatment. The corresponding apoptosis was assessed with propidium iodide DNA staining using flow cytometry. The pan-caspase inhibitor Z-VAD-FMK was used to investigate the mechanism of apoptosis. Alterations in the expression of inhibitor of apoptosis proteins (IAP), cIAP-1, cIAP-2 and XIAP, were detected using western blot analysis. CAPE prevented paclitaxel and TNFalpha-mediated NF-kappaB activation. Its ability to induce apoptosis in a dose-dependent manner was associated with the loss of cIAP-1, cIAP-2 and XIAP expression. Pretreatment with Z-VAD-FMK prevented CAPE-induced apoptosis and the loss of the IAPs.\n Question: Is caffeic acid phenethyl ester-induced PC-3 cell apoptosis caspase-dependent and mediated through the loss of inhibitors of apoptosis proteins?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: To investigate the effects of a novel agent, caffeic acid phethyl ester (CAPE) on nuclear factor (NF)-kappaB activation and apoptosis in the androgen-independent PC3 prostate cancer cell line. PC-3 cells were assessed for NF-kappaB activation induced by paclitaxel and tumour necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha), using a p65 enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay, with or without CAPE treatment. The corresponding apoptosis was assessed with propidium iodide DNA staining using flow cytometry. The pan-caspase inhibitor Z-VAD-FMK was used to investigate the mechanism of apoptosis. Alterations in the expression of inhibitor of apoptosis proteins (IAP), cIAP-1, cIAP-2 and XIAP, were detected using western blot analysis. CAPE prevented paclitaxel and TNFalpha-mediated NF-kappaB activation. Its ability to induce apoptosis in a dose-dependent manner was associated with the loss of cIAP-1, cIAP-2 and XIAP expression. Pretreatment with Z-VAD-FMK prevented CAPE-induced apoptosis and the loss of the IAPs.
Question: Is caffeic acid phenethyl ester-induced PC-3 cell apoptosis caspase-dependent and mediated through the loss of inhibitors of apoptosis proteins?
Output:
|
PubmedQA83174
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: To determine the relationship between simulation training for vaginal delivery maneuvers and subsequent participation in live deliveries during the clinical rotation and to assess medical students' performance and confidence in vaginal delivery maneuvers with and without simulation training. Medical students were randomized to receive or not to receive simulation training for vaginal delivery maneuvers on a mannequin simulator at the start of a 6-week clerkship. Both groups received traditional didactic and clinical teaching. One researcher, blinded to randomization, scored student competence of delivery maneuvers and overall delivery performance on simulator. Delivery performance was scored (1-5, with 5 being the highest) at weeks 1 and 5 of the clerkship. Students were surveyed to assess self-confidence in the ability to perform delivery maneuvers at weeks 1 and 5, and participation in live deliveries was evaluated using student obstetric patient logs. Thirty-three students were randomized, 18 to simulation training [simulation group (SIM)] and 15 to no simulation training [control group (CON)]. Clerkship logs demonstrated that SIM students participated in more deliveries than CON students (9.8 +/- 3.7 versus 6.2 +/- 2.8, P < 0.005). SIM reported increased confidence in ability to perform a vaginal delivery, when compared with CON at the end of the clerkship (3.81 +/- 0.83 versus 3.00 +/- 1.0, respectively, P < 0.05). The overall delivery performance score was significantly higher in SIM, when compared with CON at week 1 (3.94 +/- 0.94 versus 2.07 +/- 1.22, respectively, P < 0.001) and week 5 (4.88 +/- 0.33 versus 4.31 +/- 0.63, P < 0.001) in the simulated environment.\n Question: Does simulation training improve medical students ' learning experiences when performing real vaginal deliveries?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: To determine the relationship between simulation training for vaginal delivery maneuvers and subsequent participation in live deliveries during the clinical rotation and to assess medical students' performance and confidence in vaginal delivery maneuvers with and without simulation training. Medical students were randomized to receive or not to receive simulation training for vaginal delivery maneuvers on a mannequin simulator at the start of a 6-week clerkship. Both groups received traditional didactic and clinical teaching. One researcher, blinded to randomization, scored student competence of delivery maneuvers and overall delivery performance on simulator. Delivery performance was scored (1-5, with 5 being the highest) at weeks 1 and 5 of the clerkship. Students were surveyed to assess self-confidence in the ability to perform delivery maneuvers at weeks 1 and 5, and participation in live deliveries was evaluated using student obstetric patient logs. Thirty-three students were randomized, 18 to simulation training [simulation group (SIM)] and 15 to no simulation training [control group (CON)]. Clerkship logs demonstrated that SIM students participated in more deliveries than CON students (9.8 +/- 3.7 versus 6.2 +/- 2.8, P < 0.005). SIM reported increased confidence in ability to perform a vaginal delivery, when compared with CON at the end of the clerkship (3.81 +/- 0.83 versus 3.00 +/- 1.0, respectively, P < 0.05). The overall delivery performance score was significantly higher in SIM, when compared with CON at week 1 (3.94 +/- 0.94 versus 2.07 +/- 1.22, respectively, P < 0.001) and week 5 (4.88 +/- 0.33 versus 4.31 +/- 0.63, P < 0.001) in the simulated environment.
Question: Does simulation training improve medical students ' learning experiences when performing real vaginal deliveries?
Output:
|
PubmedQA184570
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Aging-related kidney diseases are a major health concern. Currently, models to study renal aging are lacking. Due to a reduced life-span progeroid models hold the promise to facilitate aging studies and allow examination of tissue-specific changes. Defects in genome maintenance in the Ercc1(-/Δ) progeroid mouse model result in premature aging and typical age-related pathologies. Here, we compared the glomerular transcriptome of young and aged Ercc1-deficient mice to young and aged WT mice in order to establish a novel model for research of aging-related kidney disease. In a principal component analysis, age and genotype emerged as first and second principal components. Hierarchical clustering of all 521 genes differentially regulated between young and old WT and young and old Ercc1(-/Δ) mice showed cluster formation between young WT and Ercc1(-/Δ) as well as old WT and Ercc1(-/Δ) samples. An unexpectedly high number of 77 genes were differentially regulated in both WT and Ercc1(-/Δ) mice (p < 0.0001). GO term enrichment analysis revealed these genes to be involved in immune and inflammatory response, cell death, and chemotaxis. In a network analysis, these genes were part of insulin signaling, chemokine and cytokine signaling and extracellular matrix pathways.\n Question: Does transcriptional profiling reveal progeroid Ercc1 ( -/Δ ) mice as a model system for glomerular aging?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: Aging-related kidney diseases are a major health concern. Currently, models to study renal aging are lacking. Due to a reduced life-span progeroid models hold the promise to facilitate aging studies and allow examination of tissue-specific changes. Defects in genome maintenance in the Ercc1(-/Δ) progeroid mouse model result in premature aging and typical age-related pathologies. Here, we compared the glomerular transcriptome of young and aged Ercc1-deficient mice to young and aged WT mice in order to establish a novel model for research of aging-related kidney disease. In a principal component analysis, age and genotype emerged as first and second principal components. Hierarchical clustering of all 521 genes differentially regulated between young and old WT and young and old Ercc1(-/Δ) mice showed cluster formation between young WT and Ercc1(-/Δ) as well as old WT and Ercc1(-/Δ) samples. An unexpectedly high number of 77 genes were differentially regulated in both WT and Ercc1(-/Δ) mice (p < 0.0001). GO term enrichment analysis revealed these genes to be involved in immune and inflammatory response, cell death, and chemotaxis. In a network analysis, these genes were part of insulin signaling, chemokine and cytokine signaling and extracellular matrix pathways.
Question: Does transcriptional profiling reveal progeroid Ercc1 ( -/Δ ) mice as a model system for glomerular aging?
Output:
|
PubmedQA21125
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: The NAC (NAM, ATAF and CUC) transcriptional factors constitute a large family with more than 150 members in rice and some of them have been demonstrated to play crucial roles in plant abiotic stress response. Here, we report the characterization of a rice stress-responsive NAC gene, ONAC095, and the exploration of its function in drought and cold stress tolerance. Expression of ONAC095 was up-regulated by drought stress and abscisic acid (ABA) but down-regulated by cold stress. ONAC095 protein had transactivation activity and the C2 domain in C-terminal was found to be critical for transactivation activity. Transgenic rice lines with overexpression of ONAC095 (ONAC095-OE) and dominant chimeric repressor-mediated suppression of ONAC095 (ONAC095-SRDX) were generated. The ONAC095-OE plants showed comparable phenotype to wild type under drought and cold stress conditions. However, the ONAC095-SRDX plants displayed an improved drought tolerance but exhibited an attenuated cold tolerance. The ONAC095-SRDX plants had decreased water loss rate, increased proline and soluble sugar contents, and up-regulated expression of drought-responsive genes under drought condition, whereas the ONAC095-SRDX plants accumulated excess reactive oxygen species, increased malondialdehyde content and down-regulated expression of cold-responsive genes under cold condition. Furthermore, ONAC095-SRDX plants showed an increased ABA sensitivity, contained an elevated ABA level, and displayed altered expression of ABA biosynthetic and metabolic genes as well as some ABA signaling-related genes.\n Question: Does rice NAC transcription factor ONAC095 play opposite roles in drought and cold stress tolerance?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: The NAC (NAM, ATAF and CUC) transcriptional factors constitute a large family with more than 150 members in rice and some of them have been demonstrated to play crucial roles in plant abiotic stress response. Here, we report the characterization of a rice stress-responsive NAC gene, ONAC095, and the exploration of its function in drought and cold stress tolerance. Expression of ONAC095 was up-regulated by drought stress and abscisic acid (ABA) but down-regulated by cold stress. ONAC095 protein had transactivation activity and the C2 domain in C-terminal was found to be critical for transactivation activity. Transgenic rice lines with overexpression of ONAC095 (ONAC095-OE) and dominant chimeric repressor-mediated suppression of ONAC095 (ONAC095-SRDX) were generated. The ONAC095-OE plants showed comparable phenotype to wild type under drought and cold stress conditions. However, the ONAC095-SRDX plants displayed an improved drought tolerance but exhibited an attenuated cold tolerance. The ONAC095-SRDX plants had decreased water loss rate, increased proline and soluble sugar contents, and up-regulated expression of drought-responsive genes under drought condition, whereas the ONAC095-SRDX plants accumulated excess reactive oxygen species, increased malondialdehyde content and down-regulated expression of cold-responsive genes under cold condition. Furthermore, ONAC095-SRDX plants showed an increased ABA sensitivity, contained an elevated ABA level, and displayed altered expression of ABA biosynthetic and metabolic genes as well as some ABA signaling-related genes.
Question: Does rice NAC transcription factor ONAC095 play opposite roles in drought and cold stress tolerance?
Output:
|
PubmedQA122857
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: This study was carried out to evaluate implant drills' cleaning protocols efficiency as tested by the use of nuclear medicine. Eighty-one new drills of 2 different implant systems (Nobel Biocare and BioMet 3i) were selected as study samples. Six of these drills were used as positive control group, and the rest were contaminated with TC-labeled blood. The instruments were divided randomly into 5 groups (negative control group; group 1: immersion and brushing; group 2: immersion and brushing and then evaluation under magnifier; group 3: immersion and brushing and then ultrasonic cleaning for 15 minutes; and group 4: immersion and brushing and then ultrasonic cleaning for 30 minutes) so that every group contained equal number of each implant drills brand. Then the emitted γ rays were counted by means of a gamma counter. Statistically significant differences were observed between the full cleaning protocol and ultrasonication group (P < 0.009). Immersion and brushing, and ultrasonic cleaning for 30 minutes before sterilization, were the most effective methods to remove contamination.\n Question: Do comparison of different cleaning procedures of implant drills using TC99?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: This study was carried out to evaluate implant drills' cleaning protocols efficiency as tested by the use of nuclear medicine. Eighty-one new drills of 2 different implant systems (Nobel Biocare and BioMet 3i) were selected as study samples. Six of these drills were used as positive control group, and the rest were contaminated with TC-labeled blood. The instruments were divided randomly into 5 groups (negative control group; group 1: immersion and brushing; group 2: immersion and brushing and then evaluation under magnifier; group 3: immersion and brushing and then ultrasonic cleaning for 15 minutes; and group 4: immersion and brushing and then ultrasonic cleaning for 30 minutes) so that every group contained equal number of each implant drills brand. Then the emitted γ rays were counted by means of a gamma counter. Statistically significant differences were observed between the full cleaning protocol and ultrasonication group (P < 0.009). Immersion and brushing, and ultrasonic cleaning for 30 minutes before sterilization, were the most effective methods to remove contamination.
Question: Do comparison of different cleaning procedures of implant drills using TC99?
Output:
|
PubmedQA42555
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: The broad and overlapping clinical manifestations of D816V KIT-associated systemic mastocytosis with eosinophilia and FIP1L1/PDGFRA-associated chronic eosinophilic leukemia (CEL), coupled with the increase in activated eosinophils and mast cells seen in both disorders, have led to confusion in the nomenclature. It is of paramount importance, however, to distinguish between these 2 groups of patients because of differences in clinical sequelae, prognoses, and selection of treatment. We thus sought to identify clinical and laboratory features that could be used to distinguish these 2 diagnoses. We compared 12 patients with D816V-positive systemic mastocytosis with eosinophilia with 17 patients with FIP1L1/PDGFRA-positive CEL. Distinguishing features were used to create a risk factor scoring system. This system correctly classified 16 of 17 FIP1L1/PDGFRA-positive patients with CEL and all 12 patients with systemic mastocytosis with eosinophilia. Thirty-four FIP1L1/PDGFRA-positive patients described in the literature were also classified using this system, and although a complete set of data was not available for any of the historical patients, 21 were correctly classified.\n Question: Are kIT D816V-associated systemic mastocytosis with eosinophilia and FIP1L1/PDGFRA-associated chronic eosinophilic leukemia distinct entities?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: The broad and overlapping clinical manifestations of D816V KIT-associated systemic mastocytosis with eosinophilia and FIP1L1/PDGFRA-associated chronic eosinophilic leukemia (CEL), coupled with the increase in activated eosinophils and mast cells seen in both disorders, have led to confusion in the nomenclature. It is of paramount importance, however, to distinguish between these 2 groups of patients because of differences in clinical sequelae, prognoses, and selection of treatment. We thus sought to identify clinical and laboratory features that could be used to distinguish these 2 diagnoses. We compared 12 patients with D816V-positive systemic mastocytosis with eosinophilia with 17 patients with FIP1L1/PDGFRA-positive CEL. Distinguishing features were used to create a risk factor scoring system. This system correctly classified 16 of 17 FIP1L1/PDGFRA-positive patients with CEL and all 12 patients with systemic mastocytosis with eosinophilia. Thirty-four FIP1L1/PDGFRA-positive patients described in the literature were also classified using this system, and although a complete set of data was not available for any of the historical patients, 21 were correctly classified.
Question: Are kIT D816V-associated systemic mastocytosis with eosinophilia and FIP1L1/PDGFRA-associated chronic eosinophilic leukemia distinct entities?
Output:
|
PubmedQA65694
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: The seed of Entada phaseoloides (L.) Merr. (Entada phaseoloides) has been long used as a folk medicine for the treatment of Diabetes mellitus by Chinese ethnic minorities. Recent reports have demonstrated that total saponins from Entada phaseoloides (TSEP) could reduce fasting blood glucose in type 2 diabetic rats. However, the mechanism has not been fully elucidated. The aim of this study was to explore the underlying mechanisms of TSEP on type 2 Diabetes mellitus (T2DM). Primary mouse hepatocytes and HepG2 cells were used to investigate the effects of TSEP on gluconeogenesis. After treatment with TSEP, glucose production, genes expression levels of Glucose-6-phosphatase (G6pase) and Phosphoenoylpyruvate carboxykinase (Pepck) were detected. The efficacy and underlying mechanism of TSEP on AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK) signaling pathway were determinated. TSEP significantly inhibited glucose production and the gluconeogenic gene expression. Treatment with TSEP elevated the phosphorylation of AMPK, which in turn promoted the phosphorylation of acetyl coenzyme A (ACC) and Akt/glycogen synthase kinase 3β (GSK3β), respectively. Furthermore, TSEP reduced lipid accumulation and improved insulin sensitivity in hepatocytes.\n Question: Does entada phaseoloides extract suppress hepatic gluconeogenesis via activation of the AMPK signaling pathway?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: The seed of Entada phaseoloides (L.) Merr. (Entada phaseoloides) has been long used as a folk medicine for the treatment of Diabetes mellitus by Chinese ethnic minorities. Recent reports have demonstrated that total saponins from Entada phaseoloides (TSEP) could reduce fasting blood glucose in type 2 diabetic rats. However, the mechanism has not been fully elucidated. The aim of this study was to explore the underlying mechanisms of TSEP on type 2 Diabetes mellitus (T2DM). Primary mouse hepatocytes and HepG2 cells were used to investigate the effects of TSEP on gluconeogenesis. After treatment with TSEP, glucose production, genes expression levels of Glucose-6-phosphatase (G6pase) and Phosphoenoylpyruvate carboxykinase (Pepck) were detected. The efficacy and underlying mechanism of TSEP on AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK) signaling pathway were determinated. TSEP significantly inhibited glucose production and the gluconeogenic gene expression. Treatment with TSEP elevated the phosphorylation of AMPK, which in turn promoted the phosphorylation of acetyl coenzyme A (ACC) and Akt/glycogen synthase kinase 3β (GSK3β), respectively. Furthermore, TSEP reduced lipid accumulation and improved insulin sensitivity in hepatocytes.
Question: Does entada phaseoloides extract suppress hepatic gluconeogenesis via activation of the AMPK signaling pathway?
Output:
|
PubmedQA71451
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: To evaluate plasma cystatin level as a covariate to predict topotecan pharmacokinetics. Cystatin C, a member of the cystatin superfamily of cysteine proteinase inhibitors, has been recently proposed as an alternative endogenous marker of glomerular filtration. Renal function is known as a key factor of topotecan clearance. Data were obtained from 59 patients who underwent drug monitoring for individual dosing of topotecan. Topotecan plasma concentrations versus time were analyzed using a nonlinear mixed effect model according to a two-compartment pharmacokinetic model and a first-order conditional estimation method. A proportional error model was used for residual and interpatient variabilities. Data-splitting was done randomly to create a model-building data set (44 patients) and a model validation data set (15 patients). Using the building data set, four covariates significantly decreased the objective function value and interindividual variability on topotecan clearance (CL) when tested individually: ideal body weight (IBW), serum creatinine, age, and cystatin C level. The best model was: CL (L/hour) = 20.2 [cystatin C (mg/L) / 1.06](-0.60) [IBW (kg) / 57](0.95). Prospective evaluation using the validation data set confirmed that the model based on cystatin C had a better predictive value than the models based on serum creatinine or body surface area.\n Question: Is serum cystatin C a better marker of topotecan clearance than serum creatinine?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: To evaluate plasma cystatin level as a covariate to predict topotecan pharmacokinetics. Cystatin C, a member of the cystatin superfamily of cysteine proteinase inhibitors, has been recently proposed as an alternative endogenous marker of glomerular filtration. Renal function is known as a key factor of topotecan clearance. Data were obtained from 59 patients who underwent drug monitoring for individual dosing of topotecan. Topotecan plasma concentrations versus time were analyzed using a nonlinear mixed effect model according to a two-compartment pharmacokinetic model and a first-order conditional estimation method. A proportional error model was used for residual and interpatient variabilities. Data-splitting was done randomly to create a model-building data set (44 patients) and a model validation data set (15 patients). Using the building data set, four covariates significantly decreased the objective function value and interindividual variability on topotecan clearance (CL) when tested individually: ideal body weight (IBW), serum creatinine, age, and cystatin C level. The best model was: CL (L/hour) = 20.2 [cystatin C (mg/L) / 1.06](-0.60) [IBW (kg) / 57](0.95). Prospective evaluation using the validation data set confirmed that the model based on cystatin C had a better predictive value than the models based on serum creatinine or body surface area.
Question: Is serum cystatin C a better marker of topotecan clearance than serum creatinine?
Output:
|
PubmedQA149910
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: A gain-of-function variation within the locus that encodes protein tyrosine phosphatase nonreceptor type (PTPN)22 is associated with a reduced risk for Crohn's disease (CD), whereas a loss-of-function variant seems to promote autoimmune disorders. We investigated how loss of PTPN22 could contribute to chronic inflammation of the intestine. Intestinal tissue samples from patients with or without inflammatory bowel disease (controls) were analyzed for levels of PTPN22 messenger RNA (mRNA) and protein. In human THP-1 monocytes, protein levels were analyzed by immunoblotting, mRNA levels by real-time polymerase chain reaction, and cytokine release by enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay. Intestinal tissue samples from patients with CD had reduced levels of PTPN22 mRNA and protein, compared with samples from controls. In human THP-1 monocytes, interferon-γ (IFN-γ) induced expression and activity of PTPN22. Loss of PTPN22 increased levels of p38-mitogen-activated protein kinase, but reduced phosphorylation of nuclear factor-κB subunits. Increased activity of suppressor of cytokine signaling-1 was accompanied by reduced phosphorylation of signal-transducer and activator of transcription protein 1 and signal-transducer and activator of transcription protein 3 in PTPN22-deficient cells incubated with cytokines. PTPN22 knockdown increased secretion of the inflammatory cytokines interleukin (IL)-6 and IL-17, but reduced expression or secretion of T-bet, intercellular adhesion molecule-1, nucleotide-binding oligomerization domain containing-2, monocyte chemoattractant protein-1, IL-2, and IL-12p40 in response to IFN-γ.\n Question: Does loss of protein tyrosine phosphatase nonreceptor type 22 regulate interferon-γ-induced signaling in human monocytes?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: A gain-of-function variation within the locus that encodes protein tyrosine phosphatase nonreceptor type (PTPN)22 is associated with a reduced risk for Crohn's disease (CD), whereas a loss-of-function variant seems to promote autoimmune disorders. We investigated how loss of PTPN22 could contribute to chronic inflammation of the intestine. Intestinal tissue samples from patients with or without inflammatory bowel disease (controls) were analyzed for levels of PTPN22 messenger RNA (mRNA) and protein. In human THP-1 monocytes, protein levels were analyzed by immunoblotting, mRNA levels by real-time polymerase chain reaction, and cytokine release by enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay. Intestinal tissue samples from patients with CD had reduced levels of PTPN22 mRNA and protein, compared with samples from controls. In human THP-1 monocytes, interferon-γ (IFN-γ) induced expression and activity of PTPN22. Loss of PTPN22 increased levels of p38-mitogen-activated protein kinase, but reduced phosphorylation of nuclear factor-κB subunits. Increased activity of suppressor of cytokine signaling-1 was accompanied by reduced phosphorylation of signal-transducer and activator of transcription protein 1 and signal-transducer and activator of transcription protein 3 in PTPN22-deficient cells incubated with cytokines. PTPN22 knockdown increased secretion of the inflammatory cytokines interleukin (IL)-6 and IL-17, but reduced expression or secretion of T-bet, intercellular adhesion molecule-1, nucleotide-binding oligomerization domain containing-2, monocyte chemoattractant protein-1, IL-2, and IL-12p40 in response to IFN-γ.
Question: Does loss of protein tyrosine phosphatase nonreceptor type 22 regulate interferon-γ-induced signaling in human monocytes?
Output:
|
PubmedQA65496
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Lymphangioleiomyomatosis (LAM) is an uncommon, progressive, cystic lung disease that causes shortness of breath, hypoxemia, and impaired health-related quality of life (HRQL). Whether St. George's Respiratory Questionnaire (SGRQ), a respiratory-specific HRQL instrument, captures longitudinal changes in HRQL in patients with LAM is unknown. Using data from the Multicenter International Lymphangioleiomyomatosis Efficacy and Safety of Sirolimus trial, we performed analyses to examine associations between SGRQ scores and values for four external measures (anchors). Anchors included (1) FEV₁, (2) diffusing capacity of the lung for carbon monoxide, (3) distance walked during the 6-min walk test, and (4) serum vascular endothelial growth factor-D. SGRQ scores correlated with the majority of anchor values at baseline, 6 months, and 12 months. Results from longitudinal analyses demonstrated that SGRQ change scores tracked changes over time in values for each of the four anchors. At 12 months, subjects with the greatest improvement from baseline in FEV₁ experienced the greatest improvement in SGRQ scores (Symptoms domain, -13.4 ± 14.6 points; Activity domain, -6.46 ± 8.20 points; Impacts domain, -6.25 ± 12.8 points; SGRQ total, -7.53 ± 10.0 points). Plots of cumulative distribution functions further supported the longitudinal validity of the SGRQ in LAM.\n Question: Does st. George 's Respiratory Questionnaire have longitudinal construct validity in lymphangioleiomyomatosis?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: Lymphangioleiomyomatosis (LAM) is an uncommon, progressive, cystic lung disease that causes shortness of breath, hypoxemia, and impaired health-related quality of life (HRQL). Whether St. George's Respiratory Questionnaire (SGRQ), a respiratory-specific HRQL instrument, captures longitudinal changes in HRQL in patients with LAM is unknown. Using data from the Multicenter International Lymphangioleiomyomatosis Efficacy and Safety of Sirolimus trial, we performed analyses to examine associations between SGRQ scores and values for four external measures (anchors). Anchors included (1) FEV₁, (2) diffusing capacity of the lung for carbon monoxide, (3) distance walked during the 6-min walk test, and (4) serum vascular endothelial growth factor-D. SGRQ scores correlated with the majority of anchor values at baseline, 6 months, and 12 months. Results from longitudinal analyses demonstrated that SGRQ change scores tracked changes over time in values for each of the four anchors. At 12 months, subjects with the greatest improvement from baseline in FEV₁ experienced the greatest improvement in SGRQ scores (Symptoms domain, -13.4 ± 14.6 points; Activity domain, -6.46 ± 8.20 points; Impacts domain, -6.25 ± 12.8 points; SGRQ total, -7.53 ± 10.0 points). Plots of cumulative distribution functions further supported the longitudinal validity of the SGRQ in LAM.
Question: Does st. George 's Respiratory Questionnaire have longitudinal construct validity in lymphangioleiomyomatosis?
Output:
|
PubmedQA124071
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: As sex related differences in opioid-induced elevations of nociceptive thresholds have been observed in sheep, a study was undertaken to determine if puberty, oestrus, pregnancy or administration of the hormones oestrogen and testosterone had any effect on these differences. Withdrawal latency to a nociceptive thermal source was measured in Romney cross sheep consisting of lambs (n = 6) prior to and after their first oestrus, ram lambs (n = 6) prior to and after puberty, non-oestrous ewes (n = 6), oestrous ewes (n = 6), pregnant and subsequently suckling ewes (n = 12), wethers (n = 6) and rams (n = 6). The effects of a kappa opioid agonist (GR 89696), oestradiol benzoate, testosterone and saline on this withdrawal latency were tested in all groups. GR 89696 increased withdrawal latency in all animals, compared to saline, but this was most marked in ewes, particularly those in oestrus or in late pregnancy. Testosterone and oestradiol had no effect on their own, or in combination, on the withdrawal latency seen with saline alone. Oestradiol increased the effects of GR 89696 on lambs pre-pubertal ram lambs, ewes and wethers but not on post-pubertal ram lambs nor rams. Co-administration of testosterone antagonised this oestradiol effect.\n Question: Do steroidal hormones determine sex-related differences in opioid-induced elevation of nociceptive threshold in sheep ( Ovis aries )?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: As sex related differences in opioid-induced elevations of nociceptive thresholds have been observed in sheep, a study was undertaken to determine if puberty, oestrus, pregnancy or administration of the hormones oestrogen and testosterone had any effect on these differences. Withdrawal latency to a nociceptive thermal source was measured in Romney cross sheep consisting of lambs (n = 6) prior to and after their first oestrus, ram lambs (n = 6) prior to and after puberty, non-oestrous ewes (n = 6), oestrous ewes (n = 6), pregnant and subsequently suckling ewes (n = 12), wethers (n = 6) and rams (n = 6). The effects of a kappa opioid agonist (GR 89696), oestradiol benzoate, testosterone and saline on this withdrawal latency were tested in all groups. GR 89696 increased withdrawal latency in all animals, compared to saline, but this was most marked in ewes, particularly those in oestrus or in late pregnancy. Testosterone and oestradiol had no effect on their own, or in combination, on the withdrawal latency seen with saline alone. Oestradiol increased the effects of GR 89696 on lambs pre-pubertal ram lambs, ewes and wethers but not on post-pubertal ram lambs nor rams. Co-administration of testosterone antagonised this oestradiol effect.
Question: Do steroidal hormones determine sex-related differences in opioid-induced elevation of nociceptive threshold in sheep ( Ovis aries )?
Output:
|
PubmedQA60475
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: In our previous study, we had demonstrated that intramuscular (i.m.) dextromethorphan (DM) could provide a preemptive analgesic effect and improve postoperative pain management. Regrow is a long-duration slow-release oral dextromethorphan available for clinical use with good patient compliance. The present study was designed to examine whether oral regrow may also offer the same preemptive analgesic effect as i.m. DM does in postoperative pain management. Seventy-five patients, ASA status I and II, scheduled for hemorrhoidectomy were included and randomly assigned to the control and study groups. In the control group patients received placebo orally 8 h before surgical incision. In the study group, patients received regrow orally either 120 mg (R-120) or 240 mg (R-240) 8 h before skin incision. Pethidine (1 mg/kg, i.m.) was given for postoperative pain relief on demand. The time to first pethidine injection, total pethidine consumption, worst pain score, and pethidine-related side effects were recorded for two days. The times to first pethidine injection were 5.4 +/- 3.1, 6.5 +/- 3.5 and 12.7 +/- 5.7 h in the control, R-120 and R-240 groups, respectively. Total pethidine consumptions were 150 +/- 12, 132 +/- 11.8 and 82 +/- 12.5 mg in the control, R-120 and R-240 groups, respectively. The worst visual analog scale pain scores were respectively 7.2 +/- 0.4, 6.9 +/- 0.2 and 5.5 +/- 0.4 in the control, R-120 and R-240 groups during the 2-day observation. Five and three patients suffered pethidine-related side effects in the control and R-120 groups, respectively.\n Question: Does oral slow release dextromethorphan premedication provide a pethidine spare effect on posthemorrhoidectomy pain management?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: In our previous study, we had demonstrated that intramuscular (i.m.) dextromethorphan (DM) could provide a preemptive analgesic effect and improve postoperative pain management. Regrow is a long-duration slow-release oral dextromethorphan available for clinical use with good patient compliance. The present study was designed to examine whether oral regrow may also offer the same preemptive analgesic effect as i.m. DM does in postoperative pain management. Seventy-five patients, ASA status I and II, scheduled for hemorrhoidectomy were included and randomly assigned to the control and study groups. In the control group patients received placebo orally 8 h before surgical incision. In the study group, patients received regrow orally either 120 mg (R-120) or 240 mg (R-240) 8 h before skin incision. Pethidine (1 mg/kg, i.m.) was given for postoperative pain relief on demand. The time to first pethidine injection, total pethidine consumption, worst pain score, and pethidine-related side effects were recorded for two days. The times to first pethidine injection were 5.4 +/- 3.1, 6.5 +/- 3.5 and 12.7 +/- 5.7 h in the control, R-120 and R-240 groups, respectively. Total pethidine consumptions were 150 +/- 12, 132 +/- 11.8 and 82 +/- 12.5 mg in the control, R-120 and R-240 groups, respectively. The worst visual analog scale pain scores were respectively 7.2 +/- 0.4, 6.9 +/- 0.2 and 5.5 +/- 0.4 in the control, R-120 and R-240 groups during the 2-day observation. Five and three patients suffered pethidine-related side effects in the control and R-120 groups, respectively.
Question: Does oral slow release dextromethorphan premedication provide a pethidine spare effect on posthemorrhoidectomy pain management?
Output:
|
PubmedQA146643
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Due to the sensory loss in the lower extremities, accidental foot injuries may develop in diabetic patients with distal sensorimotor polyneuropathy. Unusual etiologies of foot injury may be of interest. Patient 1, a 51-year-old type 2 diabetic patient, was observed with a burn injury of the digits I-V of the right foot due to an unperceived thermal injury while working at a house construction site and wearing shoes. Patient 2, a 66-year-old type 2 diabetic patient, tried to treat a small dermal lesion caused by improper footwear by using a hot paraffin footbath, but during this unusual self-treatment a painless and unperceived burn injury developed. Bed rest, local disinfection, antibiotics, and minimal surgical intervention (partial amputation, debridement) were applied. After long healing periods, both patients recovered with acceptable residual findings.\n Question: Do severe but preventable foot burn injury in diabetic patients with peripheral neuropathy?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: Due to the sensory loss in the lower extremities, accidental foot injuries may develop in diabetic patients with distal sensorimotor polyneuropathy. Unusual etiologies of foot injury may be of interest. Patient 1, a 51-year-old type 2 diabetic patient, was observed with a burn injury of the digits I-V of the right foot due to an unperceived thermal injury while working at a house construction site and wearing shoes. Patient 2, a 66-year-old type 2 diabetic patient, tried to treat a small dermal lesion caused by improper footwear by using a hot paraffin footbath, but during this unusual self-treatment a painless and unperceived burn injury developed. Bed rest, local disinfection, antibiotics, and minimal surgical intervention (partial amputation, debridement) were applied. After long healing periods, both patients recovered with acceptable residual findings.
Question: Do severe but preventable foot burn injury in diabetic patients with peripheral neuropathy?
Output:
|
PubmedQA199610
|
[
{
"role": "user",
"content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: To investigate the bactericidal activity of lactoferrin-derived peptides and a new LF-derived peptides chimera (LFchimera) against P. aeruginosa and the influence on virulence factors of P. aeruginosa. Lactoferricin (LFcin) and lactoferrampin (LFampin) are highly bioactive peptides isolated from the N-terminal region of lactoferrin (LF) by pepsin digestion. In this study, we designed LFchimera containing LFcin amino acids 17-30 and LFampin amino acids 268-284. Pseudomonas aeruginosa cells were incubated in medium with peptides at different concentrations, and then the assays of viability, pyocyanin, elastase activity and biofilm formation of P. aeruginosa were performed. We found that the concentration-dependent antibactericidal activity and down-regulating pyocyanin, elastase and biofilm formation of LFchimera were significantly stronger than those of LF, LFcin, LFampin or LFcin plus LFampin.\n Question: Do lactoferrin-derived peptides and Lactoferricin chimera inhibit virulence factor production and biofilm formation in Pseudomonas aeruginosa?\n Output: "
},
{
"role": "assistant",
"content": "yes"
}
] |
TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.
INPUT: To investigate the bactericidal activity of lactoferrin-derived peptides and a new LF-derived peptides chimera (LFchimera) against P. aeruginosa and the influence on virulence factors of P. aeruginosa. Lactoferricin (LFcin) and lactoferrampin (LFampin) are highly bioactive peptides isolated from the N-terminal region of lactoferrin (LF) by pepsin digestion. In this study, we designed LFchimera containing LFcin amino acids 17-30 and LFampin amino acids 268-284. Pseudomonas aeruginosa cells were incubated in medium with peptides at different concentrations, and then the assays of viability, pyocyanin, elastase activity and biofilm formation of P. aeruginosa were performed. We found that the concentration-dependent antibactericidal activity and down-regulating pyocyanin, elastase and biofilm formation of LFchimera were significantly stronger than those of LF, LFcin, LFampin or LFcin plus LFampin.
Question: Do lactoferrin-derived peptides and Lactoferricin chimera inhibit virulence factor production and biofilm formation in Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
Output:
|
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