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PubmedQA27308	[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Filaggrin (FLG) has a central role in the pathogenesis of atopic dermatitis (AD). FLG is a complex repetitive gene; highly population-specific mutations and multiple rare mutations make routine genotyping complex. Furthermore, the mechanistic pathways through which mutations in FLG predispose to AD are unclear. We sought to determine whether specific Raman microspectroscopic natural moisturizing factor (NMF) signatures of the stratum corneum could be used as markers of FLG genotype in patients with moderate-to-severe AD. The composition and function of the stratum corneum in 132 well-characterized patients with moderate-to-severe AD were assessed by means of confocal Raman microspectroscopy and measurement of transepidermal water loss (TEWL). These parameters were compared with FLG genotype and clinical assessment. Three subpopulations closely corresponding with FLG genotype were identified by using Raman spectroscopy. The Raman signature of NMF discriminated between FLG-associated AD and non-FLG-associated AD (area under the curve, 0.94; 95% CI, 0.91-0.99). In addition, within the subset of FLG-associated AD, NMF distinguished between patients with 1 versus 2 mutations. Five novel FLG mutations were found on rescreening outlying patients with Raman signatures suggestive of undetected mutations (R3418X, G1138X, S1040X, 10085delC, and L2933X). TEWL did not associate with FLG genotype subgroups.\n Question: Do raman profiles of the stratum corneum define 3 filaggrin genotype-determined atopic dermatitis endophenotypes?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]	TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: Filaggrin (FLG) has a central role in the pathogenesis of atopic dermatitis (AD). FLG is a complex repetitive gene; highly population-specific mutations and multiple rare mutations make routine genotyping complex. Furthermore, the mechanistic pathways through which mutations in FLG predispose to AD are unclear. We sought to determine whether specific Raman microspectroscopic natural moisturizing factor (NMF) signatures of the stratum corneum could be used as markers of FLG genotype in patients with moderate-to-severe AD. The composition and function of the stratum corneum in 132 well-characterized patients with moderate-to-severe AD were assessed by means of confocal Raman microspectroscopy and measurement of transepidermal water loss (TEWL). These parameters were compared with FLG genotype and clinical assessment. Three subpopulations closely corresponding with FLG genotype were identified by using Raman spectroscopy. The Raman signature of NMF discriminated between FLG-associated AD and non-FLG-associated AD (area under the curve, 0.94; 95% CI, 0.91-0.99). In addition, within the subset of FLG-associated AD, NMF distinguished between patients with 1 versus 2 mutations. Five novel FLG mutations were found on rescreening outlying patients with Raman signatures suggestive of undetected mutations (R3418X, G1138X, S1040X, 10085delC, and L2933X). TEWL did not associate with FLG genotype subgroups. Question: Do raman profiles of the stratum corneum define 3 filaggrin genotype-determined atopic dermatitis endophenotypes? Output:
PubmedQA63582	[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: There is evidence that carbohydrate (CHO) mouth rinsing can improve endurance exercise performance as well as muscle force production and sprint performance. Whether the oral administration of non-CHO tastants also affects exercise performance is not known. The purpose of this study was to investigate whether mouth rinsing and ingesting a bitter-tasting solution of quinine improves maximal sprint cycling performance. Fourteen competitive male cyclists performed a 30-s maximal cycling sprint immediately after rinsing their mouth for 10 s and then ingesting a 2-mM bitter quinine solution, plain water, a 0.05% (w/v) sweet aspartame solution, or no solution at all (control). Cycling power output was recorded during the sprint. Heart rate, perceived exertion, blood lactate, and blood glucose were measured preexercise, immediately postexercise, and 7 min postexercise. Quinine significantly improved mean power output by 2.4%-3.9% compared with the three other conditions [P ≤ 0.021, effect size (ES) = 0.81-0.85]. Peak power output in the quinine condition was higher compared with the water (3.7%, P = 0.013, ES = 0.71) and control (3.5% P = 0.021, ES = 0.84) conditions but was not significantly different from aspartame (1.9%, P = 0.114, ES = 0.47). There were no significant differences in cycling performance between water, aspartame, and control conditions. There were no differences in heart rate, perceived exertion, or blood variables between any of the conditions.\n Question: Does mouth rinsing and ingesting a bitter solution improve sprint cycling performance?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]	TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: There is evidence that carbohydrate (CHO) mouth rinsing can improve endurance exercise performance as well as muscle force production and sprint performance. Whether the oral administration of non-CHO tastants also affects exercise performance is not known. The purpose of this study was to investigate whether mouth rinsing and ingesting a bitter-tasting solution of quinine improves maximal sprint cycling performance. Fourteen competitive male cyclists performed a 30-s maximal cycling sprint immediately after rinsing their mouth for 10 s and then ingesting a 2-mM bitter quinine solution, plain water, a 0.05% (w/v) sweet aspartame solution, or no solution at all (control). Cycling power output was recorded during the sprint. Heart rate, perceived exertion, blood lactate, and blood glucose were measured preexercise, immediately postexercise, and 7 min postexercise. Quinine significantly improved mean power output by 2.4%-3.9% compared with the three other conditions [P ≤ 0.021, effect size (ES) = 0.81-0.85]. Peak power output in the quinine condition was higher compared with the water (3.7%, P = 0.013, ES = 0.71) and control (3.5% P = 0.021, ES = 0.84) conditions but was not significantly different from aspartame (1.9%, P = 0.114, ES = 0.47). There were no significant differences in cycling performance between water, aspartame, and control conditions. There were no differences in heart rate, perceived exertion, or blood variables between any of the conditions. Question: Does mouth rinsing and ingesting a bitter solution improve sprint cycling performance? Output:
PubmedQA191119	[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: It has been previously reported that the number of circulating immature cells (CIC) in peripheral blood (PB) estimates the number of CD34+ cells collected in G-CSF plus chemotherapy-induced PBPC mobilization. The correlation of CIC counts in PB with CD34+ cell yield and its usefulness was evaluated in G-CSF-induced PBPC mobilization for healthy donors. CIC counts in PB and CD34+ cell counts in the apheresis product from 122 collections were assessed, and the relationship between these two variables was evaluated with the Pearson rank correlation analysis, the chi-squared test, and the U-test. CIC counts were correlated weakly with the number of CD34+ cells per L of blood processed in the apheresis product (Pearson rank correlation analysis; r=0.357, p<0.0001). When a level of 1.7 x 10(9) CICs per L was selected as a cutoff value, the sensitivity and specificity for collecting more than 20 x 10(6) CD34+ cells per L of blood processed were 63.6 and 77.5 percent, respectively.\n Question: Do peripheral blood circulating immature cell counts predict CD34+ cell yields in G-CSF-induced PBPC mobilization in healthy donors?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]	TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: It has been previously reported that the number of circulating immature cells (CIC) in peripheral blood (PB) estimates the number of CD34+ cells collected in G-CSF plus chemotherapy-induced PBPC mobilization. The correlation of CIC counts in PB with CD34+ cell yield and its usefulness was evaluated in G-CSF-induced PBPC mobilization for healthy donors. CIC counts in PB and CD34+ cell counts in the apheresis product from 122 collections were assessed, and the relationship between these two variables was evaluated with the Pearson rank correlation analysis, the chi-squared test, and the U-test. CIC counts were correlated weakly with the number of CD34+ cells per L of blood processed in the apheresis product (Pearson rank correlation analysis; r=0.357, p<0.0001). When a level of 1.7 x 10(9) CICs per L was selected as a cutoff value, the sensitivity and specificity for collecting more than 20 x 10(6) CD34+ cells per L of blood processed were 63.6 and 77.5 percent, respectively. Question: Do peripheral blood circulating immature cell counts predict CD34+ cell yields in G-CSF-induced PBPC mobilization in healthy donors? Output:
PubmedQA143385	[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: To evaluate the clinical activity and toxicity of capecitabine plus irinotecan as first-line therapy for patients with metastatic colorectal cancer (mCRC), and to describe the association of expression of thymidine phosphorylase (TP), thymidylate synthase (TS), and dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase (DPD) with antitumor activity. Patients with previously untreated mCRC received irinotecan days 1 and 8 intravenously, and capecitabine days 2 to 15 orally in 21-day cycles. Doses were irinotecan 125 mg/m2 and capecitabine 1,000 mg/m2 bid (n = 15; cohort 1), or irinotecan 100 mg/m2 and capecitabine 900 mg/m2 bid (n = 52; cohort 2). Tissues from primary and metastatic sites were assessed for TP, TS, and DPD gene and protein expression. An unacceptable level of GI toxicity in the first 15 patients led to a protocol modification in starting doses. The response rate was 45% (30 of 67 patients). Overall survival was associated with TP expression assessed by immunohistochemistry in both primary tumors (P = .045) and metastases (P = .001). Objective tumor response was associated with TP expression in primary tumors (odds ratio, 4.77; 95% CI, 1.25 to 18.18), with a similar trend in metastases (odds ratio, 8.67; 95% CI, 0.95 to 79.1). TP gene expression in primary tumors was also associated with response.\n Question: Is thymidine phosphorylase expression associated with response to capecitabine plus irinotecan in patients with metastatic colorectal cancer?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]	TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: To evaluate the clinical activity and toxicity of capecitabine plus irinotecan as first-line therapy for patients with metastatic colorectal cancer (mCRC), and to describe the association of expression of thymidine phosphorylase (TP), thymidylate synthase (TS), and dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase (DPD) with antitumor activity. Patients with previously untreated mCRC received irinotecan days 1 and 8 intravenously, and capecitabine days 2 to 15 orally in 21-day cycles. Doses were irinotecan 125 mg/m2 and capecitabine 1,000 mg/m2 bid (n = 15; cohort 1), or irinotecan 100 mg/m2 and capecitabine 900 mg/m2 bid (n = 52; cohort 2). Tissues from primary and metastatic sites were assessed for TP, TS, and DPD gene and protein expression. An unacceptable level of GI toxicity in the first 15 patients led to a protocol modification in starting doses. The response rate was 45% (30 of 67 patients). Overall survival was associated with TP expression assessed by immunohistochemistry in both primary tumors (P = .045) and metastases (P = .001). Objective tumor response was associated with TP expression in primary tumors (odds ratio, 4.77; 95% CI, 1.25 to 18.18), with a similar trend in metastases (odds ratio, 8.67; 95% CI, 0.95 to 79.1). TP gene expression in primary tumors was also associated with response. Question: Is thymidine phosphorylase expression associated with response to capecitabine plus irinotecan in patients with metastatic colorectal cancer? Output:
PubmedQA197183	[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: In rodents, the striatal dopamine (DA) system and the (hypo)thalamic serotonin (5-HT) system are involved in the regulation of feeding behavior. In lean humans, little is known about the relationship between these brain neurotransmitter systems and feeding. We studied the relationship between striatal DA transporters (DAT) and diencephalic 5-HT transporters (SERT), behavioral tasks and questionnaires, and food intake. We measured striatal DAT and diencephalic SERT binding with [123I]FP-CIT SPECT in 36 lean male subjects. Visual attention bias for food (detection speed and distraction time) and degree of impulsivity were measured using response-latency-based computer tasks. Craving and emotional eating were assessed with questionnaires and ratings of hunger by means of VAS scores. Food intake was assessed through a self-reported online diet journal. Striatal DAT and diencephalic SERT binding negatively correlated with food detection speed (p = 0.008, r = -0.50 and p = 0.002, r = -0.57, respectively), but not with food distraction time, ratings of hunger, craving or impulsivity. Striatal DAT and diencephalic SERT binding did not correlate with free choice food intake, whereas food detection speed positively correlated with total caloric intake (p = 0.001, r = 0.60), protein intake (p = 0.01, r = 0.44), carbohydrate intake (p = 0.03, r = 0.39) and fat intake (p = 0.06, r = 0.35).\n Question: Are brain dopamine and serotonin transporter binding associated with visual attention bias for food in lean men?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]	TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: In rodents, the striatal dopamine (DA) system and the (hypo)thalamic serotonin (5-HT) system are involved in the regulation of feeding behavior. In lean humans, little is known about the relationship between these brain neurotransmitter systems and feeding. We studied the relationship between striatal DA transporters (DAT) and diencephalic 5-HT transporters (SERT), behavioral tasks and questionnaires, and food intake. We measured striatal DAT and diencephalic SERT binding with [123I]FP-CIT SPECT in 36 lean male subjects. Visual attention bias for food (detection speed and distraction time) and degree of impulsivity were measured using response-latency-based computer tasks. Craving and emotional eating were assessed with questionnaires and ratings of hunger by means of VAS scores. Food intake was assessed through a self-reported online diet journal. Striatal DAT and diencephalic SERT binding negatively correlated with food detection speed (p = 0.008, r = -0.50 and p = 0.002, r = -0.57, respectively), but not with food distraction time, ratings of hunger, craving or impulsivity. Striatal DAT and diencephalic SERT binding did not correlate with free choice food intake, whereas food detection speed positively correlated with total caloric intake (p = 0.001, r = 0.60), protein intake (p = 0.01, r = 0.44), carbohydrate intake (p = 0.03, r = 0.39) and fat intake (p = 0.06, r = 0.35). Question: Are brain dopamine and serotonin transporter binding associated with visual attention bias for food in lean men? Output:
PubmedQA170513	[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Studies have been done that have focused on the efficacy of bacillus Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccination in the prevention of cases of childhood tuberculous meningitis (TBM). However the efficacy of the vaccination in the prevention of mortality has not been sufficiently evaluated. This study aimed to determine the main features of TBM cases in childhood and to evaluate the factors related to mortality, proving the protective effect of BCG vaccination in childhood TBM. In a retrospective approach, all consecutive cases of TBM in children that occurred between 1997 and 2005, at Dicle University Hospital, were studied. The following data were evaluated: demographic aspects, admission symptoms, radiology and laboratory findings, BCG vaccination status, tuberculin skin test (TST) positivity, and mortality rates. In total, 172 cases of childhood TBM were evaluated (mean age 53.3±55.7 months; 109 boys (63.4%)). The majority of these cases (70.4%) had typical TBM symptoms on admission. BCG vaccination data were available for 152 (88.4%) cases and 29 of them (19.1%) were positive. The TST was performed for 143 patients (83.1%) and 28 (19.6%) were found positive. Hydrocephalus was identified in 118 patients (68.6%) on computed tomography examination. A shunt was placed in 79 cases (45.9%). In total, 24 patients (14.0%) died in the hospital. TST negativity was a significant factor for mortality (p=0.012). BCG positivity was found to be a preventive factor from mortality (p=0.05).\n Question: Is bacillus Calmette-Guérin a preventive factor in mortality of childhood tuberculous meningitis?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]	TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: Studies have been done that have focused on the efficacy of bacillus Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccination in the prevention of cases of childhood tuberculous meningitis (TBM). However the efficacy of the vaccination in the prevention of mortality has not been sufficiently evaluated. This study aimed to determine the main features of TBM cases in childhood and to evaluate the factors related to mortality, proving the protective effect of BCG vaccination in childhood TBM. In a retrospective approach, all consecutive cases of TBM in children that occurred between 1997 and 2005, at Dicle University Hospital, were studied. The following data were evaluated: demographic aspects, admission symptoms, radiology and laboratory findings, BCG vaccination status, tuberculin skin test (TST) positivity, and mortality rates. In total, 172 cases of childhood TBM were evaluated (mean age 53.3±55.7 months; 109 boys (63.4%)). The majority of these cases (70.4%) had typical TBM symptoms on admission. BCG vaccination data were available for 152 (88.4%) cases and 29 of them (19.1%) were positive. The TST was performed for 143 patients (83.1%) and 28 (19.6%) were found positive. Hydrocephalus was identified in 118 patients (68.6%) on computed tomography examination. A shunt was placed in 79 cases (45.9%). In total, 24 patients (14.0%) died in the hospital. TST negativity was a significant factor for mortality (p=0.012). BCG positivity was found to be a preventive factor from mortality (p=0.05). Question: Is bacillus Calmette-Guérin a preventive factor in mortality of childhood tuberculous meningitis? Output:
PubmedQA96019	[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: To investigate the protect effects of sodium ferulate (SF) on the daunormbicin(DNR-induced cardiotoxicity in juvenile rats. Forty male juvenile SD rats were randomly divided into control group (Control), daunorubicin group (DNR), sodium ferudate treatment group (DNR + SF), sodium ferudate group (SF) (n = 10) . Juvenile rats were intraperitoneally treated with DNR (2.5 mg/kg every week for a cumulative dose of 10 mg/kg) preparation immature myocardial injury model in presence with SF (60 mg/kg) oral treat- ment for 25 days. The left ventricular pressure and its response to isoproterenol were measured using left ventricular catheter. Rat myocardium myocardial pathology specimens and ultrastructure changes were also observed. The expression of cardiac Troponin I (cTNI) was detected by Western blot and RT-PCR. Results: SF treatment could inhibit the decreasing of heart rates induced by DNR damage (P < 0.05); it could increase the left ventrivular end diastolic pressure(LVEDP), heart rate, the maximal left ventrivular systolic speed(LVP + dp/dtmax) and the maximal left ventrivular diastolic speed (LVP-dp/dtmax) responding to isoproterenol stimulation(P < 0.01); SF also could improve the myocardial ultrastructure injuries and inhibit the decreasing of cTNI expression caused by DNR damages (P < 0.05).\n Question: Does [ Sodium ferulate protect against daunorubicin-induced cardiotoxicity in juvenile rats ]?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]	TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: To investigate the protect effects of sodium ferulate (SF) on the daunormbicin(DNR-induced cardiotoxicity in juvenile rats. Forty male juvenile SD rats were randomly divided into control group (Control), daunorubicin group (DNR), sodium ferudate treatment group (DNR + SF), sodium ferudate group (SF) (n = 10) . Juvenile rats were intraperitoneally treated with DNR (2.5 mg/kg every week for a cumulative dose of 10 mg/kg) preparation immature myocardial injury model in presence with SF (60 mg/kg) oral treat- ment for 25 days. The left ventricular pressure and its response to isoproterenol were measured using left ventricular catheter. Rat myocardium myocardial pathology specimens and ultrastructure changes were also observed. The expression of cardiac Troponin I (cTNI) was detected by Western blot and RT-PCR. Results: SF treatment could inhibit the decreasing of heart rates induced by DNR damage (P < 0.05); it could increase the left ventrivular end diastolic pressure(LVEDP), heart rate, the maximal left ventrivular systolic speed(LVP + dp/dtmax) and the maximal left ventrivular diastolic speed (LVP-dp/dtmax) responding to isoproterenol stimulation(P < 0.01); SF also could improve the myocardial ultrastructure injuries and inhibit the decreasing of cTNI expression caused by DNR damages (P < 0.05). Question: Does [ Sodium ferulate protect against daunorubicin-induced cardiotoxicity in juvenile rats ]? Output:
PubmedQA32399	[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Many aspects of CSF dynamics are poorly understood due to the difficulties involved in quantification and visualization. In particular, there is debate surrounding the route of CSF drainage. Our aim was to quantify CSF flow, volume, and drainage route dynamics in vivo in young and aged spontaneously hypertensive rats (SHR) using a novel contrast-enhanced computed tomography (CT) method. ICP was recorded in young (2-5 months) and aged (16 months) SHR. Contrast was administered into the lateral ventricles bilaterally and sequential CT imaging was used to visualize the entire intracranial CSF system and CSF drainage routes. A customized contrast decay software module was used to quantify CSF flow at multiple locations. ICP was significantly higher in aged rats than in young rats (11.52 ± 2.36 mmHg, versus 7.04 ± 2.89 mmHg, p = 0.03). Contrast was observed throughout the entire intracranial CSF system and was seen to enter the spinal canal and cross the cribriform plate into the olfactory mucosa within 9.1 ± 6.1 and 22.2 ± 7.1 minutes, respectively. No contrast was observed adjacent to the sagittal sinus. There were no significant differences between young and aged rats in either contrast distribution times or CSF flow rates. Mean flow rates (combined young and aged) were 3.0 ± 1.5 μL/min at the cerebral aqueduct; 3.5 ± 1.4 μL/min at the 3rd ventricle; and 2.8 ± 0.9 μL/min at the 4th ventricle. Intracranial CSF volumes (and as percentage total brain volume) were 204 ± 97 μL (8.8 ± 4.3%) in the young and 275 ± 35 μL (10.8 ± 1.9%) in the aged animals (NS).\n Question: Is cerebrospinal fluid drained primarily via the spinal canal and olfactory route in young and aged spontaneously hypertensive rats?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]	TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: Many aspects of CSF dynamics are poorly understood due to the difficulties involved in quantification and visualization. In particular, there is debate surrounding the route of CSF drainage. Our aim was to quantify CSF flow, volume, and drainage route dynamics in vivo in young and aged spontaneously hypertensive rats (SHR) using a novel contrast-enhanced computed tomography (CT) method. ICP was recorded in young (2-5 months) and aged (16 months) SHR. Contrast was administered into the lateral ventricles bilaterally and sequential CT imaging was used to visualize the entire intracranial CSF system and CSF drainage routes. A customized contrast decay software module was used to quantify CSF flow at multiple locations. ICP was significantly higher in aged rats than in young rats (11.52 ± 2.36 mmHg, versus 7.04 ± 2.89 mmHg, p = 0.03). Contrast was observed throughout the entire intracranial CSF system and was seen to enter the spinal canal and cross the cribriform plate into the olfactory mucosa within 9.1 ± 6.1 and 22.2 ± 7.1 minutes, respectively. No contrast was observed adjacent to the sagittal sinus. There were no significant differences between young and aged rats in either contrast distribution times or CSF flow rates. Mean flow rates (combined young and aged) were 3.0 ± 1.5 μL/min at the cerebral aqueduct; 3.5 ± 1.4 μL/min at the 3rd ventricle; and 2.8 ± 0.9 μL/min at the 4th ventricle. Intracranial CSF volumes (and as percentage total brain volume) were 204 ± 97 μL (8.8 ± 4.3%) in the young and 275 ± 35 μL (10.8 ± 1.9%) in the aged animals (NS). Question: Is cerebrospinal fluid drained primarily via the spinal canal and olfactory route in young and aged spontaneously hypertensive rats? Output:
PubmedQA44069	[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Isolation of the pulmonary veins alone (PVI) is associated with a 50 to 70 % success rate in paroxysmal atrial fibrillation (AF) but is significantly lower for persistent AF. We sought to evaluate patient outcomes in terms of safety and efficacy when posterior left atrial box isolation is included as a catheter ablation strategy in patients with mainly persistent AF. We performed an audit of 100 patients undergoing left atrial (LA) box isolation. Recurrence of arrhythmia was detected by evaluating symptoms and continuous 24 h ECG monitoring at 2, 6 and 12 months post procedure. Seventy-two patients had persistent AF prior to procedure. Average duration of AF was 5.4 ± 5.2 years. All patients underwent circumferential PVI plus linear posterior LA lines to complete box isolation. At a mean follow-up of 12.5 ± 4.2 months, 75 patients were free from atrial fibrillation, 50.6 % of these were taking no antiarrhythmic medication. Twenty-five patients had recurrence of AF, 84 % of whom had previous persistent AF. The average time to recurrence post procedure was 5.9 ± 4.4 months. Thirteen patients underwent repeat procedures for recurrent AF. There were no adverse events relating to the procedure.\n Question: Is clinical outcome when left atrial posterior wall box isolation included as a catheter ablation strategy in patients with persistent atrial fibrillation?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]	TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: Isolation of the pulmonary veins alone (PVI) is associated with a 50 to 70 % success rate in paroxysmal atrial fibrillation (AF) but is significantly lower for persistent AF. We sought to evaluate patient outcomes in terms of safety and efficacy when posterior left atrial box isolation is included as a catheter ablation strategy in patients with mainly persistent AF. We performed an audit of 100 patients undergoing left atrial (LA) box isolation. Recurrence of arrhythmia was detected by evaluating symptoms and continuous 24 h ECG monitoring at 2, 6 and 12 months post procedure. Seventy-two patients had persistent AF prior to procedure. Average duration of AF was 5.4 ± 5.2 years. All patients underwent circumferential PVI plus linear posterior LA lines to complete box isolation. At a mean follow-up of 12.5 ± 4.2 months, 75 patients were free from atrial fibrillation, 50.6 % of these were taking no antiarrhythmic medication. Twenty-five patients had recurrence of AF, 84 % of whom had previous persistent AF. The average time to recurrence post procedure was 5.9 ± 4.4 months. Thirteen patients underwent repeat procedures for recurrent AF. There were no adverse events relating to the procedure. Question: Is clinical outcome when left atrial posterior wall box isolation included as a catheter ablation strategy in patients with persistent atrial fibrillation? Output:
PubmedQA8443	[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: The combination of duodenal lipid and gastric distention induces meal-like fullness followed by nausea in healthy subjects. The aim of this study was to assess the role of cholecystokinin (CCK) A receptors in these changes using a CCK-A antagonist loxiglumide. Twelve healthy subjects were studied on four occasions, during which either 0.9% saline or 20% Intralipid was infused intraduodenally on two occasions each (1 mL/min) while the proximal stomach was distended with air (100 mL/min). During each duodenal infusion, subjects received intravenous loxiglumide (10 mg.kg-1.h-1) on 1 day and placebo on the other. Intragastric pressure changes were recorded, and the subjects reported gastric sensations (fullness, nausea). Loxiglumide did not influence gastric motility or sensitivity during duodenal saline infusion. Duodenal lipid reduced gastric tonic and phasic pressure activity during distensions and induced meal-like fullness and nausea; sensations were reported at similar volumes but lower intragastric pressures (P < 0.001 vs. saline). Loxiglumide partially restored gastric tonic and phasic activity during lipid infusion, reduced the occurrence of meal-like fullness and nausea, and increased the pressures at which sensations were reported (P < 0.001 vs. placebo).\n Question: Do cholecystokinin-A receptors modulate gastric sensory and motor responses to gastric distension and duodenal lipid?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]	TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: The combination of duodenal lipid and gastric distention induces meal-like fullness followed by nausea in healthy subjects. The aim of this study was to assess the role of cholecystokinin (CCK) A receptors in these changes using a CCK-A antagonist loxiglumide. Twelve healthy subjects were studied on four occasions, during which either 0.9% saline or 20% Intralipid was infused intraduodenally on two occasions each (1 mL/min) while the proximal stomach was distended with air (100 mL/min). During each duodenal infusion, subjects received intravenous loxiglumide (10 mg.kg-1.h-1) on 1 day and placebo on the other. Intragastric pressure changes were recorded, and the subjects reported gastric sensations (fullness, nausea). Loxiglumide did not influence gastric motility or sensitivity during duodenal saline infusion. Duodenal lipid reduced gastric tonic and phasic pressure activity during distensions and induced meal-like fullness and nausea; sensations were reported at similar volumes but lower intragastric pressures (P < 0.001 vs. saline). Loxiglumide partially restored gastric tonic and phasic activity during lipid infusion, reduced the occurrence of meal-like fullness and nausea, and increased the pressures at which sensations were reported (P < 0.001 vs. placebo). Question: Do cholecystokinin-A receptors modulate gastric sensory and motor responses to gastric distension and duodenal lipid? Output:
PubmedQA186241	[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: The diagnosis of displacement in scaphoid fractures is notorious for poor interobserver reliability. We tested whether training can improve interobserver reliability and sensitivity, specificity, and accuracy for the diagnosis of scaphoid fracture displacement on radiographs and CT scans. Sixty-four orthopaedic surgeons rated a set of radiographs and CT scans of 10 displaced and 10 nondisplaced scaphoid fractures for the presence of displacement, using a web-based rating application. Before rating, observers were randomized to a training group (34 observers) and a nontraining group (30 observers). The training group received an online training module before the rating session, and the nontraining group did not. Interobserver reliability for training and nontraining was assessed by Siegel's multirater kappa and the Z-test was used to test for significance. There was a small, but significant difference in the interobserver reliability for displacement ratings in favor of the training group compared with the nontraining group. Ratings of radiographs and CT scans combined resulted in moderate agreement for both groups. The average sensitivity, specificity, and accuracy of diagnosing displacement of scaphoid fractures were, respectively, 83%, 85%, and 84% for the nontraining group and 87%, 86%, and 87% for the training group. Assuming a 5% prevalence of fracture displacement, the positive predictive value was 0.23 in the nontraining group and 0.25 in the training group. The negative predictive value was 0.99 in both groups.\n Question: Does training improve interobserver reliability for the diagnosis of scaphoid fracture displacement?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]	TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: The diagnosis of displacement in scaphoid fractures is notorious for poor interobserver reliability. We tested whether training can improve interobserver reliability and sensitivity, specificity, and accuracy for the diagnosis of scaphoid fracture displacement on radiographs and CT scans. Sixty-four orthopaedic surgeons rated a set of radiographs and CT scans of 10 displaced and 10 nondisplaced scaphoid fractures for the presence of displacement, using a web-based rating application. Before rating, observers were randomized to a training group (34 observers) and a nontraining group (30 observers). The training group received an online training module before the rating session, and the nontraining group did not. Interobserver reliability for training and nontraining was assessed by Siegel's multirater kappa and the Z-test was used to test for significance. There was a small, but significant difference in the interobserver reliability for displacement ratings in favor of the training group compared with the nontraining group. Ratings of radiographs and CT scans combined resulted in moderate agreement for both groups. The average sensitivity, specificity, and accuracy of diagnosing displacement of scaphoid fractures were, respectively, 83%, 85%, and 84% for the nontraining group and 87%, 86%, and 87% for the training group. Assuming a 5% prevalence of fracture displacement, the positive predictive value was 0.23 in the nontraining group and 0.25 in the training group. The negative predictive value was 0.99 in both groups. Question: Does training improve interobserver reliability for the diagnosis of scaphoid fracture displacement? Output:
PubmedQA61823	[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Sulforaphane (SUL), an isothiocyanate naturally present in widely consumed vegetables, particularly broccoli, has recently attracted attention due to its inhibitory effects on tumor cell growth by inducing apoptosis. We investigated the ability of SUL to induce autophagy in human colon cancer cells and whether inhibition of autophagy could potentiate the proapoptotic effect of SUL. The proliferation of cells treated with SUL was assessed by MTS assay and colony-forming assay. Apoptosis and caspases activity were investigated by flow cytometry. The formation of acidic vesicular organelles (AVOs) was detected in acridine-orange-stained cells by flow cytometry. Western blotting was used for the detection of light chain 3 (LC3). Localizations of LC3 and cytochrome c were analyzed by immunocytochemistry. The proapoptotic effect was observed by treatment of cells with relatively high concentrations of SUL for long periods of time. After 16 h of treatment, evident formation of AVOs and recruitment of LC3 to autophagosomes, features of autophagy, were observed. Treatment of cells with a specific autophagy inhibitor (3-methyladenine) potentiated the proapoptotic effect of SUL, which was dependent on the activation of caspases and the release of cytochrome c to the cytosol.\n Question: Does inhibition of autophagy potentiate sulforaphane-induced apoptosis in human colon cancer cells?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]	TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: Sulforaphane (SUL), an isothiocyanate naturally present in widely consumed vegetables, particularly broccoli, has recently attracted attention due to its inhibitory effects on tumor cell growth by inducing apoptosis. We investigated the ability of SUL to induce autophagy in human colon cancer cells and whether inhibition of autophagy could potentiate the proapoptotic effect of SUL. The proliferation of cells treated with SUL was assessed by MTS assay and colony-forming assay. Apoptosis and caspases activity were investigated by flow cytometry. The formation of acidic vesicular organelles (AVOs) was detected in acridine-orange-stained cells by flow cytometry. Western blotting was used for the detection of light chain 3 (LC3). Localizations of LC3 and cytochrome c were analyzed by immunocytochemistry. The proapoptotic effect was observed by treatment of cells with relatively high concentrations of SUL for long periods of time. After 16 h of treatment, evident formation of AVOs and recruitment of LC3 to autophagosomes, features of autophagy, were observed. Treatment of cells with a specific autophagy inhibitor (3-methyladenine) potentiated the proapoptotic effect of SUL, which was dependent on the activation of caspases and the release of cytochrome c to the cytosol. Question: Does inhibition of autophagy potentiate sulforaphane-induced apoptosis in human colon cancer cells? Output:
PubmedQA18572	[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Honey bees (Apis mellifera) provide a principal example of diphenic development. Excess feeding of female larvae results in queens (large reproductives). Moderate diet yields workers (small helpers). The signaling pathway that links provisioning to female developmental fate is not understood, yet we reasoned that it could include TOR (target of rapamycin), a nutrient- and energy-sensing kinase that controls organismal growth. Here, the role of Apis mellifera TOR (amTOR) in caste determination is examined by rapamycin/FK506 pharmacology and RNA interference (RNAi) gene knockdown. We show that in queen-destined larvae, the TOR inhibitor rapamycin induces the development of worker characters that are blocked by the antagonist FK506. Further, queen fate is associated with elevated activity of the Apis mellifera TOR encoding gene, amTOR, and amTOR gene knockdown blocks queen fate and results in individuals with worker morphology.\n Question: Is the making of a queen : TOR pathway a key player in diphenic caste development?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]	TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: Honey bees (Apis mellifera) provide a principal example of diphenic development. Excess feeding of female larvae results in queens (large reproductives). Moderate diet yields workers (small helpers). The signaling pathway that links provisioning to female developmental fate is not understood, yet we reasoned that it could include TOR (target of rapamycin), a nutrient- and energy-sensing kinase that controls organismal growth. Here, the role of Apis mellifera TOR (amTOR) in caste determination is examined by rapamycin/FK506 pharmacology and RNA interference (RNAi) gene knockdown. We show that in queen-destined larvae, the TOR inhibitor rapamycin induces the development of worker characters that are blocked by the antagonist FK506. Further, queen fate is associated with elevated activity of the Apis mellifera TOR encoding gene, amTOR, and amTOR gene knockdown blocks queen fate and results in individuals with worker morphology. Question: Is the making of a queen : TOR pathway a key player in diphenic caste development? Output:
PubmedQA57877	[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: To evaluate whether there is a cutoff value for a metabolite concentration measured by 1 H MR spectroscopy (MRS), which can be used to differentiate malignant brain tumors (high-grade gliomas, primary CNS lymphomas [PCNSL] and metastases) from other contrast-enhancing lesions like low-grade gliomas and non-neoplastic lesions. 1 H MRS was performed in 252 consecutive patients with space-occupying brain lesions which were enhanced with application of a contrast agent. Concentrations of N-acetyl-aspartate, total creatine, choline containing metabolites (total choline, tCho), lipids, and lactate were evaluated from the contrast-enhancing part of the lesions and from the normal appearing brain tissue. Linear discriminant analysis was used to find the best predictor for malignant brain tumors. In addition, receiver operating characteristic analysis (ROC) was performed to determine a cutoff value for the best predictor in detecting malignant brain tumors with a specificity of >95%. All brain tumors and 20 out of 47 nonneoplastic lesions were examined histopathologically. The remaining 27 diagnoses were based on MR imaging, clinical findings, and follow-up. The final diagnosis was 134 high-grade gliomas (WHO grade III/IV), 36 metastases, 9 PCNSL, 8 low-grade gliomas (WHO grade I/II), 34 infections, 9 infarctions, 2 hematomas, and 2 vasculitides. 18 patients were excluded due to insufficient spectral quality. The tCho concentration was the best predictor to differentiate malignant brain tumors from enhancing low-grade gliomas or non-neoplastic lesions (F=26.6 [df: 25.833], p<0.0005). The ROC revealed that a cutoff tCho value, based on an increase of ≥40% compared to normal, yielded a specificity of 100% and a sensitivity of 89.4% to correctly diagnose a malignant brain tumor.\n Question: Does cutoff value of choline concentration reliably reveal high-grade brain tumors among other contrast-enhancing brain lesions?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]	TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: To evaluate whether there is a cutoff value for a metabolite concentration measured by 1 H MR spectroscopy (MRS), which can be used to differentiate malignant brain tumors (high-grade gliomas, primary CNS lymphomas [PCNSL] and metastases) from other contrast-enhancing lesions like low-grade gliomas and non-neoplastic lesions. 1 H MRS was performed in 252 consecutive patients with space-occupying brain lesions which were enhanced with application of a contrast agent. Concentrations of N-acetyl-aspartate, total creatine, choline containing metabolites (total choline, tCho), lipids, and lactate were evaluated from the contrast-enhancing part of the lesions and from the normal appearing brain tissue. Linear discriminant analysis was used to find the best predictor for malignant brain tumors. In addition, receiver operating characteristic analysis (ROC) was performed to determine a cutoff value for the best predictor in detecting malignant brain tumors with a specificity of >95%. All brain tumors and 20 out of 47 nonneoplastic lesions were examined histopathologically. The remaining 27 diagnoses were based on MR imaging, clinical findings, and follow-up. The final diagnosis was 134 high-grade gliomas (WHO grade III/IV), 36 metastases, 9 PCNSL, 8 low-grade gliomas (WHO grade I/II), 34 infections, 9 infarctions, 2 hematomas, and 2 vasculitides. 18 patients were excluded due to insufficient spectral quality. The tCho concentration was the best predictor to differentiate malignant brain tumors from enhancing low-grade gliomas or non-neoplastic lesions (F=26.6 [df: 25.833], p<0.0005). The ROC revealed that a cutoff tCho value, based on an increase of ≥40% compared to normal, yielded a specificity of 100% and a sensitivity of 89.4% to correctly diagnose a malignant brain tumor. Question: Does cutoff value of choline concentration reliably reveal high-grade brain tumors among other contrast-enhancing brain lesions? Output:
PubmedQA132182	[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: To investigate the therapeutic effect of E5564 (a clinically used TLR4 inhibitor) in murine abdominal sepsis elicited by intraperitoneal infection with a highly virulent Escherichia coli in the context of concurrent antibiotic therapy. Mice were infected with different doses (~2 × 10(4)-2 × 10(6) CFU) of E. coli O18:K1 and treated after 8 h with ceftriaxone 20 mg/kg i.p. combined with either E5564 10 mg/kg i.v. or vehicle. For survival studies this treatment was repeated every 12 h. Bacterial loads and inflammatory parameters were determined after 20 h in peritoneal lavage fluid, blood, liver and lung tissue. Plasma creatinin, AST, ALT and LDH were determined to assess organ injury. E5564 impaired bacterial clearance under the antibiotic regime after infection with a low dose E. coli (1.7 × 10(4) CFU) while renal function was slightly preserved. No differences were observed in bacterial load and organ damage after infection with a tenfold higher (1.7 × 10(5) E. coli) bacterial dose. While treatment with E5564 slightly attenuated inflammatory markers provoked by the sublethal doses of 104-105 E. coli under the antibiotic regime, it did not affect lethality evoked by infection with 1.7 × 106 E. coli.\n Question: Does tLR4 inhibition impair bacterial clearance in a therapeutic setting in murine abdominal sepsis?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]	TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: To investigate the therapeutic effect of E5564 (a clinically used TLR4 inhibitor) in murine abdominal sepsis elicited by intraperitoneal infection with a highly virulent Escherichia coli in the context of concurrent antibiotic therapy. Mice were infected with different doses (~2 × 10(4)-2 × 10(6) CFU) of E. coli O18:K1 and treated after 8 h with ceftriaxone 20 mg/kg i.p. combined with either E5564 10 mg/kg i.v. or vehicle. For survival studies this treatment was repeated every 12 h. Bacterial loads and inflammatory parameters were determined after 20 h in peritoneal lavage fluid, blood, liver and lung tissue. Plasma creatinin, AST, ALT and LDH were determined to assess organ injury. E5564 impaired bacterial clearance under the antibiotic regime after infection with a low dose E. coli (1.7 × 10(4) CFU) while renal function was slightly preserved. No differences were observed in bacterial load and organ damage after infection with a tenfold higher (1.7 × 10(5) E. coli) bacterial dose. While treatment with E5564 slightly attenuated inflammatory markers provoked by the sublethal doses of 104-105 E. coli under the antibiotic regime, it did not affect lethality evoked by infection with 1.7 × 106 E. coli. Question: Does tLR4 inhibition impair bacterial clearance in a therapeutic setting in murine abdominal sepsis? Output:
PubmedQA99883	[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: We sought to assess the effect of two different internal limiting membrane [ILM] peeling techniques carried out during surgery for idiopathic macular holes on the postoperative extent of a dissociated optic nerve fibre layer appearance [DONFL]. We collected prospective data of surgical records, videos, and pre- and postoperative imaging of a consecutive series of patients undergoing surgery for idiopathic macular hole with one of two surgeons. One surgeon used a forceps pinch-peel technique to peel the ILM, whereas the other surgeon used a diamond dusted membrane scraper. The extent of any DONFL was measured using spectral domain optical coherence tomography and blue reflectance imaging at three months postoperatively. A proportion of the ILMs removed were examined with transmission electron microscopy. Fifty-seven patients were studied, with 41 in the forceps group and 16 in the scraper group. The groups were well matched, with no significant difference in any preoperative parameters. Some degree of DONFL was observed on the 3-month blue reflectance images in 88 % of the forceps group and 100 % of the scraper group [p = 0.14]. There was a significant difference in the total number of depressions in the nerve fibre layer typical of DONFL on OCT between the two groups [p = 0.001], and general regression analysis showed that the peeling technique used had the only significant association with the degree of DONFL observed. Electron microscopy showed large patches of cellular debris on the retinal side of the peeled ILM in 3 out of 4 cases in the scraper group and 1 out of 12 cases in the forceps group.\n Question: Does iLM peeling technique influence the degree of a dissociated optic nerve fibre layer appearance after macular hole surgery?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]	TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: We sought to assess the effect of two different internal limiting membrane [ILM] peeling techniques carried out during surgery for idiopathic macular holes on the postoperative extent of a dissociated optic nerve fibre layer appearance [DONFL]. We collected prospective data of surgical records, videos, and pre- and postoperative imaging of a consecutive series of patients undergoing surgery for idiopathic macular hole with one of two surgeons. One surgeon used a forceps pinch-peel technique to peel the ILM, whereas the other surgeon used a diamond dusted membrane scraper. The extent of any DONFL was measured using spectral domain optical coherence tomography and blue reflectance imaging at three months postoperatively. A proportion of the ILMs removed were examined with transmission electron microscopy. Fifty-seven patients were studied, with 41 in the forceps group and 16 in the scraper group. The groups were well matched, with no significant difference in any preoperative parameters. Some degree of DONFL was observed on the 3-month blue reflectance images in 88 % of the forceps group and 100 % of the scraper group [p = 0.14]. There was a significant difference in the total number of depressions in the nerve fibre layer typical of DONFL on OCT between the two groups [p = 0.001], and general regression analysis showed that the peeling technique used had the only significant association with the degree of DONFL observed. Electron microscopy showed large patches of cellular debris on the retinal side of the peeled ILM in 3 out of 4 cases in the scraper group and 1 out of 12 cases in the forceps group. Question: Does iLM peeling technique influence the degree of a dissociated optic nerve fibre layer appearance after macular hole surgery? Output:
PubmedQA126316	[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Obesity is associated with reduced exercise maximal fat oxidation rate (FATmax), which is generally assessed by cardiopulmonary cycling test. The six-minute walking test (6MWT) presents an alternative method in patients. The aim of this study was to establish a practical reference equation facilitating the prediction of FATmax from the 6 MWT in obese children of both genders. This study is a cross-sectional study using mixed linear and multiple regression models. Anthropometric measurements were recorded and submaximal cycling test and 6 MWT conducted for 131 school-aged obese children, 68 boys and 63 girls. A multiple regression analysis for FATmax, including six-minute walking distance (6 MWD), anthropometric and cardiac parameters as the dependent variables, was performed for the two genders separately. Mean 6 MWD and FATmax were 564.9 ± 53.7 m and 126.5 ± 12.1 mg min(-1) for boys and 506.7 ± 55.0 m and 120.7 ± 10.0 mg min(-1) for girls, respectively. The 6MWD, body mass index, Z-score, fat-free mass, waist and hip circumferences (WC and HC), rest heart rate, and systolic and diastolic blood pressures were highly correlated with FATmax for both genders. There was a significant correlation between 6 MWD and FATmax in both boys and girls (r = 0.88 and r = 0.81, P<0.001, respectively). Stepwise regression analyses revealed that the combinations of 6 MWD with HC for boys and 6MWD with WC for girls improved the predictability of the model (R(2) = 0.81 for boys and R(2) = 0.72 for girls; P<0.001).\n Question: Does six-minute walking test predict maximal fat oxidation in obese children?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]	TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: Obesity is associated with reduced exercise maximal fat oxidation rate (FATmax), which is generally assessed by cardiopulmonary cycling test. The six-minute walking test (6MWT) presents an alternative method in patients. The aim of this study was to establish a practical reference equation facilitating the prediction of FATmax from the 6 MWT in obese children of both genders. This study is a cross-sectional study using mixed linear and multiple regression models. Anthropometric measurements were recorded and submaximal cycling test and 6 MWT conducted for 131 school-aged obese children, 68 boys and 63 girls. A multiple regression analysis for FATmax, including six-minute walking distance (6 MWD), anthropometric and cardiac parameters as the dependent variables, was performed for the two genders separately. Mean 6 MWD and FATmax were 564.9 ± 53.7 m and 126.5 ± 12.1 mg min(-1) for boys and 506.7 ± 55.0 m and 120.7 ± 10.0 mg min(-1) for girls, respectively. The 6MWD, body mass index, Z-score, fat-free mass, waist and hip circumferences (WC and HC), rest heart rate, and systolic and diastolic blood pressures were highly correlated with FATmax for both genders. There was a significant correlation between 6 MWD and FATmax in both boys and girls (r = 0.88 and r = 0.81, P<0.001, respectively). Stepwise regression analyses revealed that the combinations of 6 MWD with HC for boys and 6MWD with WC for girls improved the predictability of the model (R(2) = 0.81 for boys and R(2) = 0.72 for girls; P<0.001). Question: Does six-minute walking test predict maximal fat oxidation in obese children? Output:
PubmedQA140668	[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: This study was designed to test the hypothesis that the increase in maternal cortisol and aldosterone in pregnancy is critical to maternal and fetal homeostasis. Pregnant ewes were adrenalectomized (at approximately 112 days), and aldosterone and cortisol were given to either normal pregnant level (1 mg/kg per day cortisol and 3 microg/kg per day aldosterone) or nonpregnant level (half the dose of either cortisol or aldosterone). Blood samples for measurement of fetal and maternal plasma electrolytes, cortisol, and adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) were collected at days 120, 125, and 130; fetal and maternal blood pressure and heart rate and maternal plasma volume were measured at days 120 and 130. Reduction of maternal cortisol or aldosterone decreased maternal plasma volume at 130 days. In the fetuses in the low cortisol group, cortisol concentrations were lower and ACTH concentrations were higher; however, there was no increase in fetal cortisol with age in the low cortisol or low aldosterone groups. Fetal arterial pressure was decreased in all groups of adrenalectomized ewes at 120 days and decreased in the low cortisol group at 130 days. Fetal arterial pressure was significantly related to maternal plasma volume at 130 days. Fetal arterial oxygen tension at 120 days was decreased in fetuses of low aldosterone ewes and was correlated with plasma volume. Overall fetal arterial oxygen tension correlated with fetal cortisol. Fetal ACTH concentrations correlated positively with fetal cortisol but negatively with fetal blood pressure.\n Question: Does the normal increase in adrenal secretion during pregnancy contribute to maternal volume expansion and fetal homeostasis?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]	TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: This study was designed to test the hypothesis that the increase in maternal cortisol and aldosterone in pregnancy is critical to maternal and fetal homeostasis. Pregnant ewes were adrenalectomized (at approximately 112 days), and aldosterone and cortisol were given to either normal pregnant level (1 mg/kg per day cortisol and 3 microg/kg per day aldosterone) or nonpregnant level (half the dose of either cortisol or aldosterone). Blood samples for measurement of fetal and maternal plasma electrolytes, cortisol, and adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) were collected at days 120, 125, and 130; fetal and maternal blood pressure and heart rate and maternal plasma volume were measured at days 120 and 130. Reduction of maternal cortisol or aldosterone decreased maternal plasma volume at 130 days. In the fetuses in the low cortisol group, cortisol concentrations were lower and ACTH concentrations were higher; however, there was no increase in fetal cortisol with age in the low cortisol or low aldosterone groups. Fetal arterial pressure was decreased in all groups of adrenalectomized ewes at 120 days and decreased in the low cortisol group at 130 days. Fetal arterial pressure was significantly related to maternal plasma volume at 130 days. Fetal arterial oxygen tension at 120 days was decreased in fetuses of low aldosterone ewes and was correlated with plasma volume. Overall fetal arterial oxygen tension correlated with fetal cortisol. Fetal ACTH concentrations correlated positively with fetal cortisol but negatively with fetal blood pressure. Question: Does the normal increase in adrenal secretion during pregnancy contribute to maternal volume expansion and fetal homeostasis? Output:
PubmedQA87173	[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: The Center for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) is actively testing bundled payments models. This study sought to identify relevant details for 90-day post-discharge Emergency Department (ED) visits of Medicare beneficiaries following total joint replacement (TJR) surgery meeting eligibility for a CMS bundled payment program. The CMS research identifiable file for the State of Texas for 2011-2012 was used to identify patients who underwent TJR. Qualifying inpatient claims were linked to 90-day post-discharge ED claims. The claims associated with live discharge were divided into three cohorts; elective total hip replacement (THR), emergent (THR) and total knee replacement (TKR). The frequency, distribution, diagnoses, and disposition for these ED visits were identified and stratified by timing within the post-discharge period as well as discharge diagnosis. Visits were correlated with age, gender, joint replaced, and fracture. There were 50,838 TJR surgeries in Texas in 2011-2012 that would have been eligible for inclusion in the CMS defined CJR program. A total of 12,747 ED visits by 9,299 patients occurred in the 90-days post-discharge period. Visits to the ED by patients 85 and older predominated in the case of THR performed secondary to a hip fracture. Patients 65-74 predominated in both elective surgery categories. There were 2370 ED visits within 90 days of 10,786 elective total hip replacements; of which 55.5% were discharged home, 34.6% were hospitalized or transferred and 6.9% were admitted to observation. Of the 3438 ED visits among 8475 emergent hip replacement cases; 22.4% were discharged home, 50.2% were hospitalized or transferred and 5.3% were admitted to observation. Of the 6939 visits among 31,387 knee replacement cases; 61.9% were discharged home, 30.6% were readmitted or transferred, and 7.1% were admitted to observation. The discharge diagnoses varied by volume and timing in the post-discharge period. The most prevalent diagnoses across groups included injury/trauma, physiologic decompensation, cardiopulmonary events, and infection.\n Question: Does emergency Department visit Following Joint Replacement Surgery in an Era of Mandatory Bundled Payments?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]	TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: The Center for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) is actively testing bundled payments models. This study sought to identify relevant details for 90-day post-discharge Emergency Department (ED) visits of Medicare beneficiaries following total joint replacement (TJR) surgery meeting eligibility for a CMS bundled payment program. The CMS research identifiable file for the State of Texas for 2011-2012 was used to identify patients who underwent TJR. Qualifying inpatient claims were linked to 90-day post-discharge ED claims. The claims associated with live discharge were divided into three cohorts; elective total hip replacement (THR), emergent (THR) and total knee replacement (TKR). The frequency, distribution, diagnoses, and disposition for these ED visits were identified and stratified by timing within the post-discharge period as well as discharge diagnosis. Visits were correlated with age, gender, joint replaced, and fracture. There were 50,838 TJR surgeries in Texas in 2011-2012 that would have been eligible for inclusion in the CMS defined CJR program. A total of 12,747 ED visits by 9,299 patients occurred in the 90-days post-discharge period. Visits to the ED by patients 85 and older predominated in the case of THR performed secondary to a hip fracture. Patients 65-74 predominated in both elective surgery categories. There were 2370 ED visits within 90 days of 10,786 elective total hip replacements; of which 55.5% were discharged home, 34.6% were hospitalized or transferred and 6.9% were admitted to observation. Of the 3438 ED visits among 8475 emergent hip replacement cases; 22.4% were discharged home, 50.2% were hospitalized or transferred and 5.3% were admitted to observation. Of the 6939 visits among 31,387 knee replacement cases; 61.9% were discharged home, 30.6% were readmitted or transferred, and 7.1% were admitted to observation. The discharge diagnoses varied by volume and timing in the post-discharge period. The most prevalent diagnoses across groups included injury/trauma, physiologic decompensation, cardiopulmonary events, and infection. Question: Does emergency Department visit Following Joint Replacement Surgery in an Era of Mandatory Bundled Payments? Output:
PubmedQA156958	[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: In a genome-wide association study performed in the Framingham Offspring Cohort, individuals homozygous for the rs7566605 C allele located upstream of insulin-induced gene 2 (INSIG2) were reported to incur an increased risk of obesity. This finding was later replicated in four out of five populations examined. The goal of the study reported here was to assess the role of the INSIG2 single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP) in susceptibility to obesity in the prospective longitudinal Atherosclerosis Risk in Communities (ARIC) study (n = 14,566) and in three other cohorts: the Coronary Artery Risk Development in Young Adults (CARDIA) study (n = 3,888), the Genetic Epidemiology Network of Arteriopathy (GENOA) study (n = 4,766), and extremely obese and lean individuals ascertained at the University of Ottawa (n = 1,502). The combined study sample is comprised of 24,722 white, African-American, and Mexican-American participants. Differences in mean body mass index (BMI) and other anthropometric measures including weight, waist circumference, and waist-to-hip ratio were assessed by a general linear model in individuals categorized by INSIG2 rs7566605 genotype. Multivariable logistic regression was used to predict the risk of obesity (BMI >or= 30 kg/m2). There was no discernable variation in the frequencies of the three INSIG2 SNP genotypes observed between white, Hispanic, and African-American obese individuals and non-obese study subjects. When the relationship between rs7566605 and BMI considered either as a categorical variable or a continuous variable was examined, no significant association with obesity was found for participants in any of the four study populations or in a combined analysis (p = 0.38) under a recessive genetic model. There was also no association between the INSIG2 polymorphism and the obesity-related quantitative traits except for a reduced waist-to-hip ratio in white ARIC study participants homozygous for the C allele, and an increased waist-to-hip ratio in African-Americans in the ARIC cohort with the same genotype (p = 0.04 and p = 0.01, respectively). An association with waist-to-hip ratio was not seen when the combined study sample was analyzed (p = 0.74).\n Question: Does the INSIG2 rs7566605 genetic variant play a major role in obesity in a sample of 24,722 individuals from four cohorts?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "no" } ]	TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: In a genome-wide association study performed in the Framingham Offspring Cohort, individuals homozygous for the rs7566605 C allele located upstream of insulin-induced gene 2 (INSIG2) were reported to incur an increased risk of obesity. This finding was later replicated in four out of five populations examined. The goal of the study reported here was to assess the role of the INSIG2 single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP) in susceptibility to obesity in the prospective longitudinal Atherosclerosis Risk in Communities (ARIC) study (n = 14,566) and in three other cohorts: the Coronary Artery Risk Development in Young Adults (CARDIA) study (n = 3,888), the Genetic Epidemiology Network of Arteriopathy (GENOA) study (n = 4,766), and extremely obese and lean individuals ascertained at the University of Ottawa (n = 1,502). The combined study sample is comprised of 24,722 white, African-American, and Mexican-American participants. Differences in mean body mass index (BMI) and other anthropometric measures including weight, waist circumference, and waist-to-hip ratio were assessed by a general linear model in individuals categorized by INSIG2 rs7566605 genotype. Multivariable logistic regression was used to predict the risk of obesity (BMI >or= 30 kg/m2). There was no discernable variation in the frequencies of the three INSIG2 SNP genotypes observed between white, Hispanic, and African-American obese individuals and non-obese study subjects. When the relationship between rs7566605 and BMI considered either as a categorical variable or a continuous variable was examined, no significant association with obesity was found for participants in any of the four study populations or in a combined analysis (p = 0.38) under a recessive genetic model. There was also no association between the INSIG2 polymorphism and the obesity-related quantitative traits except for a reduced waist-to-hip ratio in white ARIC study participants homozygous for the C allele, and an increased waist-to-hip ratio in African-Americans in the ARIC cohort with the same genotype (p = 0.04 and p = 0.01, respectively). An association with waist-to-hip ratio was not seen when the combined study sample was analyzed (p = 0.74). Question: Does the INSIG2 rs7566605 genetic variant play a major role in obesity in a sample of 24,722 individuals from four cohorts? Output:
PubmedQA150100	[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: We aimed to evaluate the effects of chest and motor physiotherapy treatment on hemodynamic variables in preterm newborns with respiratory distress syndrome. We evaluated heart rate (HR), respiratory rate (RR), systolic (SAP), mean (MAP) and diastolic arterial pressure (DAP), temperature and oxygen saturation (SO2%) in 44 newborns with respiratory distress syndrome. We compared all variables between before physiotherapy treatment vs. after the last physiotherapy treatment. Newborns were treated during 11 days. Variables were measured 2 minutes before and 5 minutes after each physiotherapy treatment. We applied paired Student t test to compare variables between the two periods. HR (148.5 ± 8.5 bpm vs. 137.1 ± 6.8 bpm - p < 0.001), SAP (72.3 ± 11.3 mmHg vs. 63.6 ± 6.7 mmHg - p = 0.001) and MAP (57.5 ± 12 mmHg vs. 47.7 ± 5.8 mmHg - p = 0.001) were significantly reduced after 11 days of physiotherapy treatment compared to before the first session. There were no significant changes regarding RR, temperature, DAP and SO2%.\n Question: Does chest associated to motor physiotherapy improve cardiovascular variables in newborns with respiratory distress syndrome?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]	TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: We aimed to evaluate the effects of chest and motor physiotherapy treatment on hemodynamic variables in preterm newborns with respiratory distress syndrome. We evaluated heart rate (HR), respiratory rate (RR), systolic (SAP), mean (MAP) and diastolic arterial pressure (DAP), temperature and oxygen saturation (SO2%) in 44 newborns with respiratory distress syndrome. We compared all variables between before physiotherapy treatment vs. after the last physiotherapy treatment. Newborns were treated during 11 days. Variables were measured 2 minutes before and 5 minutes after each physiotherapy treatment. We applied paired Student t test to compare variables between the two periods. HR (148.5 ± 8.5 bpm vs. 137.1 ± 6.8 bpm - p < 0.001), SAP (72.3 ± 11.3 mmHg vs. 63.6 ± 6.7 mmHg - p = 0.001) and MAP (57.5 ± 12 mmHg vs. 47.7 ± 5.8 mmHg - p = 0.001) were significantly reduced after 11 days of physiotherapy treatment compared to before the first session. There were no significant changes regarding RR, temperature, DAP and SO2%. Question: Does chest associated to motor physiotherapy improve cardiovascular variables in newborns with respiratory distress syndrome? Output:
PubmedQA189889	[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: We hypothesized that metachronous colorectal liver metastases (CLM) have different biology after failure of oxaliplatin (FOLFOX) compared to 5-fluorouracil (5-FU) or no chemotherapy for adjuvant treatment of colorectal cancer (CRC). It is unclear whether patients treated with liver resection for metachronous CLM after adjuvant FOLFOX for CRC have worse outcomes than those who received 5-FU or no chemotherapy. We identified 341 patients who underwent hepatectomy for metachronous CLM (disease-free interval ≥12 months, 1993-2010). Mass-spectroscopy genotyping for somatic gene mutations in CLM was performed in a subset of 129 patients. Adjuvant treatment for primary CRC was FOLFOX in 77 patients, 5-FU in 169 patients, and no chemotherapy in 95 patients. Node-positive primary was comparable between FOLFOX and 5-FU but lower in the no-chemotherapy group (P < 0.0001). Median metastasis size was smaller in the FOLFOX group (2.5 cm) than in the 5-FU (3.0 cm) or no-chemotherapy (3.5 cm) groups, (P = 0.008) although prehepatectomy chemotherapy utilization, metastases number, and carcinoembryonic antigen levels were similar. Disease-free survival (DFS) and overall survival (OS) rates after hepatectomy were worse in patients treated with adjuvant FOLFOX [DFS at 3 years: 14% vs 38% (5-FU) vs 45% (no-chemo), OS at 3 years: 58% vs 70% (5-FU) vs 84% (no-chemo)]. On multivariate analysis, adjuvant FOLFOX was associated with worse DFS (P < 0.0001) and OS (P < 0.0001). Mutation analysis revealed ≥1 mutations in 57% of patients (27/47) after FOLFOX, 29% (12/41) after 5-FU, and 32% (13/41) after no chemotherapy (P = 0.011).\n Question: Is adjuvant chemotherapy with FOLFOX for primary colorectal cancer associated with increased somatic gene mutations and inferior survival in patients undergoing hepatectomy for metachronous liver metastases?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]	TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: We hypothesized that metachronous colorectal liver metastases (CLM) have different biology after failure of oxaliplatin (FOLFOX) compared to 5-fluorouracil (5-FU) or no chemotherapy for adjuvant treatment of colorectal cancer (CRC). It is unclear whether patients treated with liver resection for metachronous CLM after adjuvant FOLFOX for CRC have worse outcomes than those who received 5-FU or no chemotherapy. We identified 341 patients who underwent hepatectomy for metachronous CLM (disease-free interval ≥12 months, 1993-2010). Mass-spectroscopy genotyping for somatic gene mutations in CLM was performed in a subset of 129 patients. Adjuvant treatment for primary CRC was FOLFOX in 77 patients, 5-FU in 169 patients, and no chemotherapy in 95 patients. Node-positive primary was comparable between FOLFOX and 5-FU but lower in the no-chemotherapy group (P < 0.0001). Median metastasis size was smaller in the FOLFOX group (2.5 cm) than in the 5-FU (3.0 cm) or no-chemotherapy (3.5 cm) groups, (P = 0.008) although prehepatectomy chemotherapy utilization, metastases number, and carcinoembryonic antigen levels were similar. Disease-free survival (DFS) and overall survival (OS) rates after hepatectomy were worse in patients treated with adjuvant FOLFOX [DFS at 3 years: 14% vs 38% (5-FU) vs 45% (no-chemo), OS at 3 years: 58% vs 70% (5-FU) vs 84% (no-chemo)]. On multivariate analysis, adjuvant FOLFOX was associated with worse DFS (P < 0.0001) and OS (P < 0.0001). Mutation analysis revealed ≥1 mutations in 57% of patients (27/47) after FOLFOX, 29% (12/41) after 5-FU, and 32% (13/41) after no chemotherapy (P = 0.011). Question: Is adjuvant chemotherapy with FOLFOX for primary colorectal cancer associated with increased somatic gene mutations and inferior survival in patients undergoing hepatectomy for metachronous liver metastases? Output:
PubmedQA108109	[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Albuminuria has been proven to be associated with cardiovascular morbidity and mortality. Such an association has been found not only in subjects with diabetes and hypertension, but also in the general population. It could therefore be expected that especially subjects with higher albuminuria levels may benefit from blood pressure-lowering agents to improve their cardiovascular outcome.\n Question: Does baseline albuminuria predict the efficacy of blood pressure-lowering drugs in preventing cardiovascular events?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]	TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: Albuminuria has been proven to be associated with cardiovascular morbidity and mortality. Such an association has been found not only in subjects with diabetes and hypertension, but also in the general population. It could therefore be expected that especially subjects with higher albuminuria levels may benefit from blood pressure-lowering agents to improve their cardiovascular outcome. Question: Does baseline albuminuria predict the efficacy of blood pressure-lowering drugs in preventing cardiovascular events? Output:
PubmedQA67572	[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Based on results from randomized, controlled clinical trials, lithium monotherapy or lithium with the addition of an antipsychotic remains a first-line treatment option for both acute and long-term mood stabilization in bipolar mania. However, response to lithium is poor in bipolar patients who exhibit clinical characteristics such as rapid cycling and mixed manic states, suggesting that they may have a biologically and genetically distinct form of bipolar disorder. A test that could predict response to lithium based upon genetic factors would have significant clinical value. Eight clinical characteristics were assessed in 92 lithium responders and 92 nonresponders; all probands were from families recruited for linkage studies. Lithium response was rated retrospectively from a standardized interviews and medical records. Eight candidate genes were selected from those reported to be associated with susceptibility to illness, lithium response, or lithium mechanism of action. Sixty-seven single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) were genotyped in these subjects and analyzed for association with the defined clinical characteristics. Using q-value analysis for multiplicity correction, we found significant interactions between lithium response and SNPs (rs1387923 and rs1565445) in the gene encoding neurotrophic tyrosine kinase receptor type 2 (NTRK2) and suicidal ideation, and between SNP rs2064721 in the gene encoding inositol polyphosphate-1-phosphatase (INPP1) and post-traumatic stress disorder.\n Question: Does the pharmacogenetics of lithium response depend upon clinical co-morbidity?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]	TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: Based on results from randomized, controlled clinical trials, lithium monotherapy or lithium with the addition of an antipsychotic remains a first-line treatment option for both acute and long-term mood stabilization in bipolar mania. However, response to lithium is poor in bipolar patients who exhibit clinical characteristics such as rapid cycling and mixed manic states, suggesting that they may have a biologically and genetically distinct form of bipolar disorder. A test that could predict response to lithium based upon genetic factors would have significant clinical value. Eight clinical characteristics were assessed in 92 lithium responders and 92 nonresponders; all probands were from families recruited for linkage studies. Lithium response was rated retrospectively from a standardized interviews and medical records. Eight candidate genes were selected from those reported to be associated with susceptibility to illness, lithium response, or lithium mechanism of action. Sixty-seven single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) were genotyped in these subjects and analyzed for association with the defined clinical characteristics. Using q-value analysis for multiplicity correction, we found significant interactions between lithium response and SNPs (rs1387923 and rs1565445) in the gene encoding neurotrophic tyrosine kinase receptor type 2 (NTRK2) and suicidal ideation, and between SNP rs2064721 in the gene encoding inositol polyphosphate-1-phosphatase (INPP1) and post-traumatic stress disorder. Question: Does the pharmacogenetics of lithium response depend upon clinical co-morbidity? Output:
PubmedQA42071	[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Pedicle screw loosening is a major safety concern in instrumented spinal surgery due to loosening with potential pseudarthrosis and possible loss of correction requiring revision surgery. Several cadaver studies have compared insertion torque of pedicle screws with resistance to pullout or cyclic loading. In most of these studies, a correlation has been found between these variables. Clinical studies have been made, comparing insertion torque to bone mineral density or radiological signs of screw loosening. There are no clinical studies comparing insertion torque to extraction torque or other biomechanical parameters in vivo. This study was designed to investigate whether the insertion torque of pedicle screws can be used to predict the purchase of the screws. The insertion torque of stainless steel pedicle screws was recorded in eight patients undergoing lumbar fusion surgery with four-screw constructs. Torque gauge manometers were used for the recordings. The implants were removed after one year, and the extraction torque of the screws was recorded. The mean insertion torque was 76 ± 41 Ncm and the mean extraction torque 29 ± 36 Ncm. The r value was 0.591, suggesting that there was a correlation between the insertion and extraction torque. However, the scattergram revealed that the screws could be divided into two groups, six screws with a high correlation between insertion and extraction torque, and 26 screws where no correlation could be demonstrated.\n Question: Is insertion torque a good predictor of pedicle screw loosening after spinal instrumentation : a prospective study in 8 patients?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "no" } ]	TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: Pedicle screw loosening is a major safety concern in instrumented spinal surgery due to loosening with potential pseudarthrosis and possible loss of correction requiring revision surgery. Several cadaver studies have compared insertion torque of pedicle screws with resistance to pullout or cyclic loading. In most of these studies, a correlation has been found between these variables. Clinical studies have been made, comparing insertion torque to bone mineral density or radiological signs of screw loosening. There are no clinical studies comparing insertion torque to extraction torque or other biomechanical parameters in vivo. This study was designed to investigate whether the insertion torque of pedicle screws can be used to predict the purchase of the screws. The insertion torque of stainless steel pedicle screws was recorded in eight patients undergoing lumbar fusion surgery with four-screw constructs. Torque gauge manometers were used for the recordings. The implants were removed after one year, and the extraction torque of the screws was recorded. The mean insertion torque was 76 ± 41 Ncm and the mean extraction torque 29 ± 36 Ncm. The r value was 0.591, suggesting that there was a correlation between the insertion and extraction torque. However, the scattergram revealed that the screws could be divided into two groups, six screws with a high correlation between insertion and extraction torque, and 26 screws where no correlation could be demonstrated. Question: Is insertion torque a good predictor of pedicle screw loosening after spinal instrumentation : a prospective study in 8 patients? Output:
PubmedQA97211	[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: The utility of the upper limit of vulnerability (ULV) test in patients undergoing defibrillator implantation has been reported, so the purpose of this study was to evaluate the difference in the clinical outcomes between patients with ULV ≤15 J or >15 J. A total of 165 patients receiving an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator underwent a vulnerability test. At the time of the implantation, we delivered a 15-J shock on the T-peak and ±20 ms later to cover the most vulnerable part of the cardiac cycle. The clinical outcomes were prospectively analyzed. A 15-J shock induced ventricular fibrillation (VF) in 30 patients (ULV >15 J) and did not in 135 (ULV ≤15 J). The characteristics of the 2 groups were comparable. After a mean follow-up of 757 days, Kaplan-Meier curve analysis showed that the ULV ≤15 J group experienced less VF than the ULV >15 J group (log-rank P=0.003). The occurrence of ventricular tachycardia was similar between the 2 groups (P=0.140). Furthermore, the effectiveness of ATP was comparable. After adjusting for other known predictors of shock therapy, a ULV >15 J was independently associated with the occurrence of VF (hazard ratio: 6.25; 95% confidence interval: 1.913-20.40; P<0.01).\n Question: Does upper limit of vulnerability during defibrillator implantations predict the occurrence of appropriate shock therapy for ventricular fibrillation?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]	TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: The utility of the upper limit of vulnerability (ULV) test in patients undergoing defibrillator implantation has been reported, so the purpose of this study was to evaluate the difference in the clinical outcomes between patients with ULV ≤15 J or >15 J. A total of 165 patients receiving an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator underwent a vulnerability test. At the time of the implantation, we delivered a 15-J shock on the T-peak and ±20 ms later to cover the most vulnerable part of the cardiac cycle. The clinical outcomes were prospectively analyzed. A 15-J shock induced ventricular fibrillation (VF) in 30 patients (ULV >15 J) and did not in 135 (ULV ≤15 J). The characteristics of the 2 groups were comparable. After a mean follow-up of 757 days, Kaplan-Meier curve analysis showed that the ULV ≤15 J group experienced less VF than the ULV >15 J group (log-rank P=0.003). The occurrence of ventricular tachycardia was similar between the 2 groups (P=0.140). Furthermore, the effectiveness of ATP was comparable. After adjusting for other known predictors of shock therapy, a ULV >15 J was independently associated with the occurrence of VF (hazard ratio: 6.25; 95% confidence interval: 1.913-20.40; P<0.01). Question: Does upper limit of vulnerability during defibrillator implantations predict the occurrence of appropriate shock therapy for ventricular fibrillation? Output:
PubmedQA23363	[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Congenital heart disease is the most common type of birth defect, affecting ≈2% of the population. Malformations involving the cardiac outflow tract and semilunar valves account for >50% of these cases predominantly because of a bicuspid aortic valve, which has an estimated prevalence of 1% in the population. We previously reported that mutations in NOTCH1 were a cause of bicuspid aortic valve in nonsyndromic autosomal-dominant human pedigrees. Subsequently, we described a highly penetrant mouse model of aortic valve disease, consisting of a bicuspid aortic valve with thickened cusps and associated stenosis and regurgitation, in Notch1-haploinsufficient adult mice backcrossed into a Nos3-null background. Here, we described the congenital cardiac abnormalities in Notch1(+/-);Nos3(-/-) embryos that led to ≈65% lethality by postnatal day 10. Although expected Mendelian ratios of Notch1(+/-);Nos3(-/-) embryos were found at embryonic day 18.5, histological examination revealed thickened, malformed semilunar valve leaflets accompanied by additional anomalies of the cardiac outflow tract including ventricular septal defects and overriding aorta. The aortic valve leaflets of Notch1(+/-);Nos3(-/-) embryos at embryonic day 15.5 were significantly thicker than controls, consistent with a defect in remodeling of the semilunar valve cushions. In addition, we generated mice haploinsufficient for Notch1 specifically in endothelial and endothelial-derived cells in a Nos3-null background and found that Notch1(fl/+);Tie2-Cre(+/-);Nos3(-/-) mice recapitulate the congenital cardiac phenotype of Notch1(+/-);Nos3(-/-) embryos.\n Question: Does endothelial Notch1 be Required for Proper Development of the Semilunar Valves and Cardiac Outflow Tract?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]	TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: Congenital heart disease is the most common type of birth defect, affecting ≈2% of the population. Malformations involving the cardiac outflow tract and semilunar valves account for >50% of these cases predominantly because of a bicuspid aortic valve, which has an estimated prevalence of 1% in the population. We previously reported that mutations in NOTCH1 were a cause of bicuspid aortic valve in nonsyndromic autosomal-dominant human pedigrees. Subsequently, we described a highly penetrant mouse model of aortic valve disease, consisting of a bicuspid aortic valve with thickened cusps and associated stenosis and regurgitation, in Notch1-haploinsufficient adult mice backcrossed into a Nos3-null background. Here, we described the congenital cardiac abnormalities in Notch1(+/-);Nos3(-/-) embryos that led to ≈65% lethality by postnatal day 10. Although expected Mendelian ratios of Notch1(+/-);Nos3(-/-) embryos were found at embryonic day 18.5, histological examination revealed thickened, malformed semilunar valve leaflets accompanied by additional anomalies of the cardiac outflow tract including ventricular septal defects and overriding aorta. The aortic valve leaflets of Notch1(+/-);Nos3(-/-) embryos at embryonic day 15.5 were significantly thicker than controls, consistent with a defect in remodeling of the semilunar valve cushions. In addition, we generated mice haploinsufficient for Notch1 specifically in endothelial and endothelial-derived cells in a Nos3-null background and found that Notch1(fl/+);Tie2-Cre(+/-);Nos3(-/-) mice recapitulate the congenital cardiac phenotype of Notch1(+/-);Nos3(-/-) embryos. Question: Does endothelial Notch1 be Required for Proper Development of the Semilunar Valves and Cardiac Outflow Tract? Output:
PubmedQA105487	[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Aprotinin has been widely used to reduce bleeding and transfusion requirements in cardiac surgery and in lung transplantation. A recent study found a significant reduction in severe (grade III) primary graft dysfunction (PGD) in lung transplantation where aprotinin had been used. However, recently, concerns regarding the safety of aprotinin have been raised, and the future use of aprotinin is uncertain. In our institution, aprotinin has been widely used in cardiac surgery and transplantation. We decided to review our lung transplant caseload to investigate the impact of aprotinin on PGD and mortality and to guide our future clinical use of this antifibrinolytic. A retrospective review of prospectively collected data on 213 consecutive patients who underwent single- or double-lung transplantation was performed. Ninety-nine patients, who received aprotinin, were compared with 114 patients who did not. The main outcome variables analysed were development of primary graft dysfunction, renal impairment and mortality. Aprotinin was associated with a significantly increased risk of PGD in the first 48 h postoperatively (p=0.01).\n Question: Is aprotinin in lung transplantation associated with an increased incidence of primary graft dysfunction?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]	TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: Aprotinin has been widely used to reduce bleeding and transfusion requirements in cardiac surgery and in lung transplantation. A recent study found a significant reduction in severe (grade III) primary graft dysfunction (PGD) in lung transplantation where aprotinin had been used. However, recently, concerns regarding the safety of aprotinin have been raised, and the future use of aprotinin is uncertain. In our institution, aprotinin has been widely used in cardiac surgery and transplantation. We decided to review our lung transplant caseload to investigate the impact of aprotinin on PGD and mortality and to guide our future clinical use of this antifibrinolytic. A retrospective review of prospectively collected data on 213 consecutive patients who underwent single- or double-lung transplantation was performed. Ninety-nine patients, who received aprotinin, were compared with 114 patients who did not. The main outcome variables analysed were development of primary graft dysfunction, renal impairment and mortality. Aprotinin was associated with a significantly increased risk of PGD in the first 48 h postoperatively (p=0.01). Question: Is aprotinin in lung transplantation associated with an increased incidence of primary graft dysfunction? Output:
PubmedQA3659	[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Insect bites produce diverse skin reactions. Although quite common, the histopathologic features of arthropod assaults have not ever been studied systemically. Twenty biopsies from cases, clinically diagnosed as arthropod bite reactions between January 2003 and June 2007 were reviewed retrospectively. The aim of the study was to verify as to whether reliable histopathologic criteria could be established based on the frequency of findings observed. Epidermal spongiosis (present in 16 of 20 cases), in particular spongiosis of the infundibular epithelium and acrosyringia as well as eosinophilic spongiosis, emerge as relevant diagnostic clues. A moderately dense, superficial and deep infiltrate consisting mainly of lymphocytes and eosinophils was prevalent in the dermis, with eosinophils tending to interstitial and periadnexal distribution. Of note, 19 of 20 (95%) cases revealed periadnexal involvement, whereas 16 of 20 (80%) had the infiltrate extending particularly along the sweat ducts and the coiled glands. In three biopsies, concomitant involvement of sweat glands, hair follicles and sebaceous glands was noted.\n Question: Does a histopathologic study of arthropod bite reactions in 20 patients highlight relevant adnexal involvement?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]	TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: Insect bites produce diverse skin reactions. Although quite common, the histopathologic features of arthropod assaults have not ever been studied systemically. Twenty biopsies from cases, clinically diagnosed as arthropod bite reactions between January 2003 and June 2007 were reviewed retrospectively. The aim of the study was to verify as to whether reliable histopathologic criteria could be established based on the frequency of findings observed. Epidermal spongiosis (present in 16 of 20 cases), in particular spongiosis of the infundibular epithelium and acrosyringia as well as eosinophilic spongiosis, emerge as relevant diagnostic clues. A moderately dense, superficial and deep infiltrate consisting mainly of lymphocytes and eosinophils was prevalent in the dermis, with eosinophils tending to interstitial and periadnexal distribution. Of note, 19 of 20 (95%) cases revealed periadnexal involvement, whereas 16 of 20 (80%) had the infiltrate extending particularly along the sweat ducts and the coiled glands. In three biopsies, concomitant involvement of sweat glands, hair follicles and sebaceous glands was noted. Question: Does a histopathologic study of arthropod bite reactions in 20 patients highlight relevant adnexal involvement? Output:
PubmedQA146834	[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Ewing's sarcoma is a malignancy characterized by a specific 11:22 chromosomal translocation which generates a novel EWS-FLI1 fusion protein functioning as an aberrant transcription factor. In the present study, we have further characterized the junction region of the EWS-FLI1 fusion protein. In-silico model of EWS-FLI1 fusion protein was analysed for ligand binding sites, and a putative region (amino acid (aa) 251-343 of the type 1 fusion protein) in the vicinity of the fusion junction was cloned and expressed using bacterial expression. The recombinant protein was characterized by Circular Dichroism (CD). We then expressed aa 251-280 ectopically in Ewing's sarcoma cell-line and its effect on cell proliferation, tumorigenicity and expression of EWS-FLI1 target genes were analysed. Our modelling analysis indicated that Junction region (aa 251-343) encompasses potential ligand biding sites in the EWS-FLI1 protein and when expressed in bacteria was present as soluble form. Ectopically expressing this region in Ewing's sarcoma cells inhibited tumorigenicity, and EWS-FLI1 target genes indicating a dominant negative biological effect.\n Question: Does junction region of EWS-FLI1 fusion protein have a dominant negative effect in Ewing 's sarcoma in vitro?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]	TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: Ewing's sarcoma is a malignancy characterized by a specific 11:22 chromosomal translocation which generates a novel EWS-FLI1 fusion protein functioning as an aberrant transcription factor. In the present study, we have further characterized the junction region of the EWS-FLI1 fusion protein. In-silico model of EWS-FLI1 fusion protein was analysed for ligand binding sites, and a putative region (amino acid (aa) 251-343 of the type 1 fusion protein) in the vicinity of the fusion junction was cloned and expressed using bacterial expression. The recombinant protein was characterized by Circular Dichroism (CD). We then expressed aa 251-280 ectopically in Ewing's sarcoma cell-line and its effect on cell proliferation, tumorigenicity and expression of EWS-FLI1 target genes were analysed. Our modelling analysis indicated that Junction region (aa 251-343) encompasses potential ligand biding sites in the EWS-FLI1 protein and when expressed in bacteria was present as soluble form. Ectopically expressing this region in Ewing's sarcoma cells inhibited tumorigenicity, and EWS-FLI1 target genes indicating a dominant negative biological effect. Question: Does junction region of EWS-FLI1 fusion protein have a dominant negative effect in Ewing 's sarcoma in vitro? Output:
PubmedQA123187	[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: the aim of the study was to decipher the molecular signals involved in IL-I's action on intestinal epithelial cells (IEC). Mode-K cells, used as a model of IEC, were treated with IL-I, and PLA2 activity and PGE2, ceramide, and cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2) levels were measured using enzyme-immuno-assay kit, EIA, thin-layer chromatography and western blotting assays respectively. IL-I caused a concentration- and time-dependent increase in PLA2 activity (3-fold increase), in ceramide levels (peak increase = 10.5 +/- 0.9 pmol/nmol phosphate), and in COX-2 and PGE2 levels. PGE2 increase was biphasic with an early peak at 10 min (around 5 ng/mg protein) due to increased PLA2 activity. The later peak (13.1 +/- 1.9 ng/mg protein) at 4 h was due to COX-2 induction.\n Question: Does iL-1 activate two phospholipid signaling pathways in intestinal epithelial cells?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]	TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: the aim of the study was to decipher the molecular signals involved in IL-I's action on intestinal epithelial cells (IEC). Mode-K cells, used as a model of IEC, were treated with IL-I, and PLA2 activity and PGE2, ceramide, and cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2) levels were measured using enzyme-immuno-assay kit, EIA, thin-layer chromatography and western blotting assays respectively. IL-I caused a concentration- and time-dependent increase in PLA2 activity (3-fold increase), in ceramide levels (peak increase = 10.5 +/- 0.9 pmol/nmol phosphate), and in COX-2 and PGE2 levels. PGE2 increase was biphasic with an early peak at 10 min (around 5 ng/mg protein) due to increased PLA2 activity. The later peak (13.1 +/- 1.9 ng/mg protein) at 4 h was due to COX-2 induction. Question: Does iL-1 activate two phospholipid signaling pathways in intestinal epithelial cells? Output:
PubmedQA20750	[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: To assess complement-mediated myocardial injury on isolated guinea pig working hearts and cardioprotective effects of CD59. Using a modified Langendorff apparatus, isolated guinea-pig working hearts were perfused with a modified Krebs Henseleit buffer containing 3% heat-inactivated human plasma and zymosan (IPZ) (control) (n = 10), 3% normal human plasma and zymosan (NPZ) (n = 10), or 3% normal human plasma and zymosan and 1.5 microg/ml CD59 (NPZC) (n = 10), respectively. Epicardial electrocardiogram (ECG), cardiac output (CO), coronary arterial flow (CF), maximum left ventricular developed pressure (LVP(max)), maximum left ventricular developed pressure increase rate (+ dp/dt(max)), maximum left ventricular developed pressure decrease rate (- dp/dt(max)) and heart rate (HR) were recorded at 0, 15, 30, 45 and 60 min of treatment. After the experiment, immunohistochemical examination was performed to detect the presence of C3a or C5b-9 in the myocardium of the isolated hearts. Compared the IPZ group, hearts treated with NPZ showed a slight depression on ST segments of epicardial ECG at 15 min, a significant elevation between 30 min to 60 min, a decrease in CF, CO, LVP(max), + dp/dt(max) and - dp/dt(max), and an increase in HR at 15 min. The observed alterations in CF, CO, LVP(max), + dp/dt(max) and - dp/dt(max) remained decreased, while the HR remained increased until the end of the protocol. The all above parameters of hearts treated with NPZC were similar to the control group (IPZ) at any given time. Immunohistochemical examination showed positive signals of C3a and C5b-9 in the myocardium of hearts treated with NPZ. C3a was positive in NPZC, and C3a and C5b-9 were negative in IPZ.\n Question: Does cD59 prevent human complement-mediated injuries in isolated guinea pig hearts?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]	TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: To assess complement-mediated myocardial injury on isolated guinea pig working hearts and cardioprotective effects of CD59. Using a modified Langendorff apparatus, isolated guinea-pig working hearts were perfused with a modified Krebs Henseleit buffer containing 3% heat-inactivated human plasma and zymosan (IPZ) (control) (n = 10), 3% normal human plasma and zymosan (NPZ) (n = 10), or 3% normal human plasma and zymosan and 1.5 microg/ml CD59 (NPZC) (n = 10), respectively. Epicardial electrocardiogram (ECG), cardiac output (CO), coronary arterial flow (CF), maximum left ventricular developed pressure (LVP(max)), maximum left ventricular developed pressure increase rate (+ dp/dt(max)), maximum left ventricular developed pressure decrease rate (- dp/dt(max)) and heart rate (HR) were recorded at 0, 15, 30, 45 and 60 min of treatment. After the experiment, immunohistochemical examination was performed to detect the presence of C3a or C5b-9 in the myocardium of the isolated hearts. Compared the IPZ group, hearts treated with NPZ showed a slight depression on ST segments of epicardial ECG at 15 min, a significant elevation between 30 min to 60 min, a decrease in CF, CO, LVP(max), + dp/dt(max) and - dp/dt(max), and an increase in HR at 15 min. The observed alterations in CF, CO, LVP(max), + dp/dt(max) and - dp/dt(max) remained decreased, while the HR remained increased until the end of the protocol. The all above parameters of hearts treated with NPZC were similar to the control group (IPZ) at any given time. Immunohistochemical examination showed positive signals of C3a and C5b-9 in the myocardium of hearts treated with NPZ. C3a was positive in NPZC, and C3a and C5b-9 were negative in IPZ. Question: Does cD59 prevent human complement-mediated injuries in isolated guinea pig hearts? Output:
PubmedQA6459	[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: In the event of a large scale organophosphate (OP) or nerve agent exposure that depletes a hospital's atropine stores, alternative antidotes should be considered. To test the effects of parenteral administration of ophthalmic antimuscarinic agents on survivability in a rat model of acute, lethal OP poisoning. After determining appropriate dosing for comparison, rodents were randomized to receive one of four intraperitoneal antidotes (n = 10 per group): 1) normal saline (0.3 mL), 2) atropine sulfate (10 mg/kg), 3) ophthalmic atropine sulfate (1%; 10 mg/kg), or 4) ophthalmic homatropine (5%; 20 mg/kg). Five minutes after pretreatment, dichlorvos (10 mg/kg) was administered subcutaneously. Mortality rates and time to death were compared by using Fisher's exact test and the Kaplan-Meier method with log rank test, respectively. If the animal was alive at 120 minutes, survival was assumed. Survival in rats pretreated with standard atropine was 100%. Survival in rats pretreated with ophthalmic homatropine and atropine sulfate were 100% (p < 0.001; 95% CI = 0.98 to 1.02) and 90% (p < 0.01; 95% CI = 0.71 to 1.09), respectively, compared with controls (20% survival; 95% CI = 0.04 to 0.45). Time of death ranged between 7 and 19 minutes. Comparison of survival times revealed a statistically significant improvement in experimental groups compared with controls (p < 0.0001).\n Question: Does pretreating rats with parenteral ophthalmic antimuscarinic agents decrease mortality from lethal organophosphate poisoning?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]	TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: In the event of a large scale organophosphate (OP) or nerve agent exposure that depletes a hospital's atropine stores, alternative antidotes should be considered. To test the effects of parenteral administration of ophthalmic antimuscarinic agents on survivability in a rat model of acute, lethal OP poisoning. After determining appropriate dosing for comparison, rodents were randomized to receive one of four intraperitoneal antidotes (n = 10 per group): 1) normal saline (0.3 mL), 2) atropine sulfate (10 mg/kg), 3) ophthalmic atropine sulfate (1%; 10 mg/kg), or 4) ophthalmic homatropine (5%; 20 mg/kg). Five minutes after pretreatment, dichlorvos (10 mg/kg) was administered subcutaneously. Mortality rates and time to death were compared by using Fisher's exact test and the Kaplan-Meier method with log rank test, respectively. If the animal was alive at 120 minutes, survival was assumed. Survival in rats pretreated with standard atropine was 100%. Survival in rats pretreated with ophthalmic homatropine and atropine sulfate were 100% (p < 0.001; 95% CI = 0.98 to 1.02) and 90% (p < 0.01; 95% CI = 0.71 to 1.09), respectively, compared with controls (20% survival; 95% CI = 0.04 to 0.45). Time of death ranged between 7 and 19 minutes. Comparison of survival times revealed a statistically significant improvement in experimental groups compared with controls (p < 0.0001). Question: Does pretreating rats with parenteral ophthalmic antimuscarinic agents decrease mortality from lethal organophosphate poisoning? Output:
PubmedQA159478	[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Several factors determine the risk of HIV mother-to-child transmission (MTCT), such as coinfections in placentas from HIV-1 positive mothers with other pathogens. Chagas' disease is one of the most endemic zoonoses in Latin America, caused by the protozoan Trypanosoma cruzi. The purpose of the study was to determine whether T. cruzi modifies HIV infection of the placenta at the tissue or cellular level. Simple and double infections were carried out on a placental histoculture system (chorionic villi isolated from term placentas from HIV and Chagas negative mothers) and on the choriocarcinoma BeWo cell line. Trypomastigotes of T. cruzi (VD lethal strain), either purified from mouse blood or from Vero cell cultures, 24 h-supernatants of blood and cellular trypomastigotes, and the VSV-G pseudotyped HIV-1 reporter virus were used for the coinfections. Viral transduction was evaluated by quantification of luciferase activity. Coinfection with whole trypomastigotes, either from mouse blood or from cell cultures, decreased viral pseudotype luciferase activity in placental histocultures. Similar results were obtained from BeWo cells. Supernatants of stimulated histocultures were used for the simultaneous determination of 29 cytokines and chemokines with the Luminex technology. In histocultures infected with trypomastigotes, as well as in coinfected tissues, IL-6, IL-8, IP-10 and MCP-1 production was significantly lower than in controls or HIV-1 transducted tissue. A similar decrease was observed in histocultures treated with 24 h-supernatants of blood trypomastigotes, but not in coinfected tissues.\n Question: Does trypanosoma cruzi ( Chagas ' disease agent ) reduce HIV-1 replication in human placenta?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]	TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: Several factors determine the risk of HIV mother-to-child transmission (MTCT), such as coinfections in placentas from HIV-1 positive mothers with other pathogens. Chagas' disease is one of the most endemic zoonoses in Latin America, caused by the protozoan Trypanosoma cruzi. The purpose of the study was to determine whether T. cruzi modifies HIV infection of the placenta at the tissue or cellular level. Simple and double infections were carried out on a placental histoculture system (chorionic villi isolated from term placentas from HIV and Chagas negative mothers) and on the choriocarcinoma BeWo cell line. Trypomastigotes of T. cruzi (VD lethal strain), either purified from mouse blood or from Vero cell cultures, 24 h-supernatants of blood and cellular trypomastigotes, and the VSV-G pseudotyped HIV-1 reporter virus were used for the coinfections. Viral transduction was evaluated by quantification of luciferase activity. Coinfection with whole trypomastigotes, either from mouse blood or from cell cultures, decreased viral pseudotype luciferase activity in placental histocultures. Similar results were obtained from BeWo cells. Supernatants of stimulated histocultures were used for the simultaneous determination of 29 cytokines and chemokines with the Luminex technology. In histocultures infected with trypomastigotes, as well as in coinfected tissues, IL-6, IL-8, IP-10 and MCP-1 production was significantly lower than in controls or HIV-1 transducted tissue. A similar decrease was observed in histocultures treated with 24 h-supernatants of blood trypomastigotes, but not in coinfected tissues. Question: Does trypanosoma cruzi ( Chagas ' disease agent ) reduce HIV-1 replication in human placenta? Output:
PubmedQA181426	[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Systemic chemotherapy is being used increasingly in patients with colorectal cancer. The effects of prior systemic adjuvant or palliative chemotherapy on morbidity following hepatic resection for metastases are not well defined. To assess the peri-operative impact of systemic chemotherapy on liver resection for colorectal cancer hepatic metastases. Ninety-six resections for colorectal cancer hepatic metastases performed from July 2001 to July 2003 (93% > or =2 segments) were reviewed. Pre-operative demographics, peri-operative features, and post-operative outcomes were collected prospectively. Type of chemotherapy and the temporal relationship of chemotherapy to the liver resection were analyzed. Fifty-three of 96 patients (55%) received a mean of 5.7 cycles (6.1 months) of systemic chemotherapy prior to hepatic resection, with a median interval of 12 months from end of chemotherapy to liver resection (range 1-75 months). Thirty-five received 5-fluorouracil/leucovorin (5-FU/LV) alone, nine had irinotecan (CPT-11) in addition to 5-FU/LV, and nine were not specified. Pre-operative age, sex, co-morbidities, ASA score, biochemical and liver enzyme profiles, tumor number, and extent and technique of hepatic resection were the same in the chemotherapy and non-chemotherapy cohorts. Mean tumor size was smaller (4.5 cm vs. 5.8 cm) and synchronous metastases were half as common (25% vs. 49%) in the chemotherapy group. Liver resection operative time was equivalent (270 min) in the two groups. Higher estimated blood loss (EBL) (1,000 ml vs. 850 ml), but fewer transfusions (23% vs. 15%) were associated with the chemotherapy group. Although not statistically significant, post-operative liver enzyme peaks were higher in the chemotherapy group (AST = 402 U/L vs. 302 U/L, P = 0.09 and ALT = 433 U/L vs. 312 U/L, P = 0.1). Peak changes in INR and serum bilirubin did not differ. Complications and length of stay (LOS) did not differ between the groups. The only post-operative death was in the non-chemotherapy group. Interestingly, hepatic steatosis was present in 28% of the non-chemotherapy cases and 57% of the chemotherapy resection specimens (P = 0.005) and was marked (>30%) in 7% and 10%, respectively. Further analysis of the chemotherapy group based on the interval between completion of chemotherapy and the hepatic resection (<6 months, 7-12 months, 1-2 years, and >2 years) revealed a trend towards worse outcomes in most categories for those in the >2 years cohort. When comparing the 5-FU/LV alone, to the CPT-11 group there were no significant differences except higher intra-operative blood loss in the group receiving 5-FU/LV alone (1,295 ml vs. 756 ml, P = 0.01).\n Question: Does chemotherapy for colorectal cancer prior to liver resection for colorectal cancer hepatic metastases adversely affect peri-operative outcomes?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "no" } ]	TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: Systemic chemotherapy is being used increasingly in patients with colorectal cancer. The effects of prior systemic adjuvant or palliative chemotherapy on morbidity following hepatic resection for metastases are not well defined. To assess the peri-operative impact of systemic chemotherapy on liver resection for colorectal cancer hepatic metastases. Ninety-six resections for colorectal cancer hepatic metastases performed from July 2001 to July 2003 (93% > or =2 segments) were reviewed. Pre-operative demographics, peri-operative features, and post-operative outcomes were collected prospectively. Type of chemotherapy and the temporal relationship of chemotherapy to the liver resection were analyzed. Fifty-three of 96 patients (55%) received a mean of 5.7 cycles (6.1 months) of systemic chemotherapy prior to hepatic resection, with a median interval of 12 months from end of chemotherapy to liver resection (range 1-75 months). Thirty-five received 5-fluorouracil/leucovorin (5-FU/LV) alone, nine had irinotecan (CPT-11) in addition to 5-FU/LV, and nine were not specified. Pre-operative age, sex, co-morbidities, ASA score, biochemical and liver enzyme profiles, tumor number, and extent and technique of hepatic resection were the same in the chemotherapy and non-chemotherapy cohorts. Mean tumor size was smaller (4.5 cm vs. 5.8 cm) and synchronous metastases were half as common (25% vs. 49%) in the chemotherapy group. Liver resection operative time was equivalent (270 min) in the two groups. Higher estimated blood loss (EBL) (1,000 ml vs. 850 ml), but fewer transfusions (23% vs. 15%) were associated with the chemotherapy group. Although not statistically significant, post-operative liver enzyme peaks were higher in the chemotherapy group (AST = 402 U/L vs. 302 U/L, P = 0.09 and ALT = 433 U/L vs. 312 U/L, P = 0.1). Peak changes in INR and serum bilirubin did not differ. Complications and length of stay (LOS) did not differ between the groups. The only post-operative death was in the non-chemotherapy group. Interestingly, hepatic steatosis was present in 28% of the non-chemotherapy cases and 57% of the chemotherapy resection specimens (P = 0.005) and was marked (>30%) in 7% and 10%, respectively. Further analysis of the chemotherapy group based on the interval between completion of chemotherapy and the hepatic resection (<6 months, 7-12 months, 1-2 years, and >2 years) revealed a trend towards worse outcomes in most categories for those in the >2 years cohort. When comparing the 5-FU/LV alone, to the CPT-11 group there were no significant differences except higher intra-operative blood loss in the group receiving 5-FU/LV alone (1,295 ml vs. 756 ml, P = 0.01). Question: Does chemotherapy for colorectal cancer prior to liver resection for colorectal cancer hepatic metastases adversely affect peri-operative outcomes? Output:
PubmedQA153412	[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: In contrast to renal or cardiac xenografts, the inhibition of complement using cobra venom factor (CVF) accelerates pulmonary xenograft failure. By activating C3/C5 convertase, CVF depletes complement while additionally generating C5a and other anaphylatoxins, to which pulmonary xenografts may be uniquely susceptible. The current study investigates the role of C5a in pulmonary xenograft failure in baboons. Left orthotopic pulmonary xenografts using swine lungs expressing human CD46 were performed in baboons receiving: I) no other treatment (n=4), II) immunodepletion (n=5), and III) immunodepletion plus a single dose of mouse anti-human C5a monoclonal antibody (anti-C5a, 0.6 mg/kg administered intravenously) (n=3). The extent to which anti-C5a inhibits baboon C5a was assessed in vitro using a hemolytic reaction involving baboon serum and porcine red blood cells and by ELISA. Baboons in Group III exhibited significantly prolonged xenograft survival (mean=722+/-121 min, P=0.02) compared to baboons in Group I (mean=202+/-24 min) and Group II (mean=276+/-79 min). Furthermore, baboons in Groups I and II experienced pronounced hemodynamic compromise requiring inotropic support whereas those in Group III remained hemodynamically stable throughout experimentation without the need for additional pharmacologic intervention.\n Question: Does effect of an anti-C5a monoclonal antibody indicate a prominent role for anaphylatoxin in pulmonary xenograft dysfunction?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]	TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: In contrast to renal or cardiac xenografts, the inhibition of complement using cobra venom factor (CVF) accelerates pulmonary xenograft failure. By activating C3/C5 convertase, CVF depletes complement while additionally generating C5a and other anaphylatoxins, to which pulmonary xenografts may be uniquely susceptible. The current study investigates the role of C5a in pulmonary xenograft failure in baboons. Left orthotopic pulmonary xenografts using swine lungs expressing human CD46 were performed in baboons receiving: I) no other treatment (n=4), II) immunodepletion (n=5), and III) immunodepletion plus a single dose of mouse anti-human C5a monoclonal antibody (anti-C5a, 0.6 mg/kg administered intravenously) (n=3). The extent to which anti-C5a inhibits baboon C5a was assessed in vitro using a hemolytic reaction involving baboon serum and porcine red blood cells and by ELISA. Baboons in Group III exhibited significantly prolonged xenograft survival (mean=722+/-121 min, P=0.02) compared to baboons in Group I (mean=202+/-24 min) and Group II (mean=276+/-79 min). Furthermore, baboons in Groups I and II experienced pronounced hemodynamic compromise requiring inotropic support whereas those in Group III remained hemodynamically stable throughout experimentation without the need for additional pharmacologic intervention. Question: Does effect of an anti-C5a monoclonal antibody indicate a prominent role for anaphylatoxin in pulmonary xenograft dysfunction? Output:
PubmedQA100091	[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: The present study aimed to determine if salty and sweet taste preferences in children are related to each other, to markers of growth, and to genetic differences. We conducted a 2-day, single-blind experimental study using the Monell two-series, forced-choice, paired-comparison tracking method to determine taste preferences. The volunteer sample consisted of a racially/ethnically diverse group of children, 5-10 years of age (n = 108), and their mothers (n = 83). After excluding those mothers who did not meet eligibility and children who did not understand or comply with study procedures, the final sample was 101 children and 76 adults. The main outcome measures were most preferred concentration of salt in broth and crackers; most preferred concentration of sucrose in water and jelly; reported dietary intake of salty and sweet foods; levels of a bone growth marker; anthropometric measurements such as height, weight, and percent body fat; and TAS1R3 (sweet taste receptor) genotype. Children preferred higher concentrations of salt in broth and sucrose in water than did adults, and for both groups, salty and sweet taste preferences were significantly and positively correlated. In children, preference measures were related to reported intake of sodium but not of added sugars. Children who were tall for their age preferred sweeter solutions than did those that were shorter and percent body fat was correlated with salt preference. In mothers but not in children, sweet preference correlated with TAS1R3 genotype.\n Question: Are preferences for salty and sweet tastes elevated and related to each other during childhood?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]	TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: The present study aimed to determine if salty and sweet taste preferences in children are related to each other, to markers of growth, and to genetic differences. We conducted a 2-day, single-blind experimental study using the Monell two-series, forced-choice, paired-comparison tracking method to determine taste preferences. The volunteer sample consisted of a racially/ethnically diverse group of children, 5-10 years of age (n = 108), and their mothers (n = 83). After excluding those mothers who did not meet eligibility and children who did not understand or comply with study procedures, the final sample was 101 children and 76 adults. The main outcome measures were most preferred concentration of salt in broth and crackers; most preferred concentration of sucrose in water and jelly; reported dietary intake of salty and sweet foods; levels of a bone growth marker; anthropometric measurements such as height, weight, and percent body fat; and TAS1R3 (sweet taste receptor) genotype. Children preferred higher concentrations of salt in broth and sucrose in water than did adults, and for both groups, salty and sweet taste preferences were significantly and positively correlated. In children, preference measures were related to reported intake of sodium but not of added sugars. Children who were tall for their age preferred sweeter solutions than did those that were shorter and percent body fat was correlated with salt preference. In mothers but not in children, sweet preference correlated with TAS1R3 genotype. Question: Are preferences for salty and sweet tastes elevated and related to each other during childhood? Output:
PubmedQA47748	[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Cancer survival is related to features of the primary malignancy and concurrent presence of nonmalignant diseases (comorbidities), including weight-related conditions (obesity, weight loss). The Charlson and Elixhauser methods are 2 well-known methods that take comorbidities into account when explaining survival. They differ in both the number and categorization of comorbidities. Cancer, comorbidity, and survival data were acquired from inpatient administrative hospital records in 574 colorectal cancer patients. Robust Poisson regression was used to analyze 2- and 3-year survival according to cancer features and comorbidities classified by the Charlson and Elixhauser methods. Data for weight-related conditions (body mass index, weight loss) and performance status were acquired upon a new patient visit to the regional cancer center. Discrimination was assessed with the concordance (c) statistic. A base model (age, sex, stage) had excellent discrimination (c-statistic, 0.824 [2-year survival] and 0.827 [3-year survival]). The addition of Charlson comorbidities did not outperform the base model (c-statistic, 0.831 [2-year survival] and 0.833 [3-year survival]). Elixhauser comorbidities added higher discrimination compared with the base model, both in stage and overall (c-statistic, 0.852 [2-year survival] and 0.854 [3-year survival]; P < .01). The greatest increase in the c-statistic contributed by the addition of the Elixhauser comorbidities occurred in stage II patients (increased from 0.683 to 0.838). Overall, the Elixhauser comorbidities outperformed the Charlson comorbidities (P < .05). The use of self-reported weight and performance status data significantly increased discrimination by the Elixhauser method in 2-year but not 3-year survival.\n Question: Does a comparison of Charlson and Elixhauser comorbidity measure to predict colorectal cancer survival using administrative health data?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]	TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: Cancer survival is related to features of the primary malignancy and concurrent presence of nonmalignant diseases (comorbidities), including weight-related conditions (obesity, weight loss). The Charlson and Elixhauser methods are 2 well-known methods that take comorbidities into account when explaining survival. They differ in both the number and categorization of comorbidities. Cancer, comorbidity, and survival data were acquired from inpatient administrative hospital records in 574 colorectal cancer patients. Robust Poisson regression was used to analyze 2- and 3-year survival according to cancer features and comorbidities classified by the Charlson and Elixhauser methods. Data for weight-related conditions (body mass index, weight loss) and performance status were acquired upon a new patient visit to the regional cancer center. Discrimination was assessed with the concordance (c) statistic. A base model (age, sex, stage) had excellent discrimination (c-statistic, 0.824 [2-year survival] and 0.827 [3-year survival]). The addition of Charlson comorbidities did not outperform the base model (c-statistic, 0.831 [2-year survival] and 0.833 [3-year survival]). Elixhauser comorbidities added higher discrimination compared with the base model, both in stage and overall (c-statistic, 0.852 [2-year survival] and 0.854 [3-year survival]; P < .01). The greatest increase in the c-statistic contributed by the addition of the Elixhauser comorbidities occurred in stage II patients (increased from 0.683 to 0.838). Overall, the Elixhauser comorbidities outperformed the Charlson comorbidities (P < .05). The use of self-reported weight and performance status data significantly increased discrimination by the Elixhauser method in 2-year but not 3-year survival. Question: Does a comparison of Charlson and Elixhauser comorbidity measure to predict colorectal cancer survival using administrative health data? Output:
PubmedQA100022	[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: Microvascular inflammation is associated with cardiac syndrome X (CSX). High-density lipoprotein cholesterol (HDL-C) reveals antiatherogenic features with stimulating endothelial NO production, inhibiting oxidative stress and vascular inflammation. We investigated relationship between HDL-C and inflammatory markers in CSX. Hundred patients with CSX and control group of 80 subjects were evaluated. Hematologic indices, lipid levels and C-reactive protein (CRP) levels were studied in patients underwent coronary angiography. CRP levels were higher in CSX group than control group (4.59 ± 3.82 mg/dL vs. 2.48 ± 1.32 mg/dL, P<0.001). HDL-C was significantly lower in CSX group compared to control group (36.5 ± 4.0 mg/dL vs. 47.5 ± 12.7 mg/dL, P=0.008). White blood cell (WBC) count was higher in CSX group than in control group. Neutrophil-lymphocyte ratio (NLR) was found significantly increased in CSX group as compared to control group. On multivariate linear regression, lower HDL-C was found to be a significant predictor of higher NLR in patients with CSX independent from other clinical and biochemical variables.\n Question: Is hDL-cholesterol associated with systemic inflammation in cardiac syndrome X?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]	TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: Microvascular inflammation is associated with cardiac syndrome X (CSX). High-density lipoprotein cholesterol (HDL-C) reveals antiatherogenic features with stimulating endothelial NO production, inhibiting oxidative stress and vascular inflammation. We investigated relationship between HDL-C and inflammatory markers in CSX. Hundred patients with CSX and control group of 80 subjects were evaluated. Hematologic indices, lipid levels and C-reactive protein (CRP) levels were studied in patients underwent coronary angiography. CRP levels were higher in CSX group than control group (4.59 ± 3.82 mg/dL vs. 2.48 ± 1.32 mg/dL, P<0.001). HDL-C was significantly lower in CSX group compared to control group (36.5 ± 4.0 mg/dL vs. 47.5 ± 12.7 mg/dL, P=0.008). White blood cell (WBC) count was higher in CSX group than in control group. Neutrophil-lymphocyte ratio (NLR) was found significantly increased in CSX group as compared to control group. On multivariate linear regression, lower HDL-C was found to be a significant predictor of higher NLR in patients with CSX independent from other clinical and biochemical variables. Question: Is hDL-cholesterol associated with systemic inflammation in cardiac syndrome X? Output:
PubmedQA42590	[ { "role": "user", "content": "TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer.\n INPUT: To study whether a cue-based clinical pathway for oral feeding initiation and advancement of premature infants would result in earlier achievement of full oral feeding. Age of achievement of full oral intake was compared for two groups of preterm infants; a prospective study group vs historic cohort controls. Study infants had oral feedings managed by nurses using a clinical pathway that relied on infant behavioral readiness signs to initiate and advance oral feedings. Controls had oral feedings managed by physician orders. Fifty-one infants (n=28 study and n=23 control) were studied. Gender distribution, gestational age, birth weight and ventilator days were not different between groups. Study infants reached full oral feedings 6 days earlier than controls (36+/-1 3/7 weeks of postmenstrual age (PMA) vs 36 6/7+/-1 4/7 weeks of PMA, P=0.02).\n Question: Does cue-based oral feeding clinical pathway result in earlier attainment of full oral feeding in premature infants?\n Output: " }, { "role": "assistant", "content": "yes" } ]	TASK: Your task is to answer the biomedical question based on the provided input. Only output yes, no, or maybe as answer. INPUT: To study whether a cue-based clinical pathway for oral feeding initiation and advancement of premature infants would result in earlier achievement of full oral feeding. Age of achievement of full oral intake was compared for two groups of preterm infants; a prospective study group vs historic cohort controls. Study infants had oral feedings managed by nurses using a clinical pathway that relied on infant behavioral readiness signs to initiate and advance oral feedings. Controls had oral feedings managed by physician orders. Fifty-one infants (n=28 study and n=23 control) were studied. Gender distribution, gestational age, birth weight and ventilator days were not different between groups. Study infants reached full oral feedings 6 days earlier than controls (36+/-1 3/7 weeks of postmenstrual age (PMA) vs 36 6/7+/-1 4/7 weeks of PMA, P=0.02). Question: Does cue-based oral feeding clinical pathway result in earlier attainment of full oral feeding in premature infants? Output: